B4 FAA WRITTEN

Question 1

Altimeter setting is the value to which the barometric pressure scale of the altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates

Answer 1

true altitude at field elevation.

Question 2

Preflight action, as required for all flights away from the vicinity of an airport, shall include

Answer 2

alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned.

Question 3

The mature stage of a thunderstorm begins with

Answer 3

the start of precipitation.

Question 4

(Refer to figure 20, area 1.) The NALF Fentress (NFE) Airport is in what type of airspace?

Answer 4

Class E. The Nalf Fentress (NFE) airport is halfway between areas 1 and 2 in Figure 20. It is inside a magenta dashed line indicating Class E airspace starts at the surface.

Question 5

When activated, an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) transmits on

Answer 5

406 MHz.

Question 6

Unless otherwise authorized, which situation requires ADS-B?

Answer 6

Overflying Class C airspace below 10,000 feet MSL.

Question 7

If instructed by ground control to taxi to Runway 9, the pilot may proceed

Answer 7

to the next intersecting runway where further clearance is required.

Question 8

(Refer to Figure 67.) What effect does a 30-gallon fuel burn have on the weight and balance if the airplane weighed 2,784 pounds and the MOM/100 was 2,222 at takeoff?

Answer 8

Moment will decrease to 2,087 lbs-in.

Question 9

Unless otherwise authorized, the maximum indicated airspeed at which aircraft may be flown when at or below 2,500 feet AGL and within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of Class C airspace is

Answer 9

200 kts

Question 10

With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a class of aircraft?

Answer 10

Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, balloon. EXPLANATION With respect to the certification of aircraft, class is a broad grouping of aircraft having similar means of propulsion, flight, or landing. Examples include airplane, rotorcraft, glider, balloon, landplane, and seaplane.

Question 11

What change occurs in the fuel/air mixture when carburetor heat is applied?

Answer 11

The fuel/air mixture becomes richer. EXPLANATION Carburetors are normally calibrated at sea level pressure to meter the correct fuel/air mixture. As altitude increases, air density decreases and the amount of fuel is too great for the amount of air–the mixture is too rich. This same result may be brought about by the application of carburetor heat. The heated air entering the carburetor has less density than unheated air and the fuel/air mixture is enriched.

Question 12

For VFR flight operations above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds required is

Answer 12

1 mile. EXPLANATION Controlled airspace above 10,000 feet which allows VFR is Class E airspace, and requires cloud clearance of 1,000 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 1 SM horizontal during operations above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL.

Question 13

If the grade of fuel used in an aircraft engine is lower than specified for the engine, it will most likely cause

Answer 13

detonation.

Question 14

The left turning tendency of an airplane caused by P-factor is the result of the

Answer 14

propeller blade descending on the right, producing more thrust than the ascending blade on the left.

Question 15

VFR cruising altitude is true or magnetic heading?

Answer 15

magnetic

Question 16

After takeoff, which airspeed would the pilot use to gain the most altitude in a given period of time?

Answer 16

V(Y). EXPLANATION V(Y) (best rate-of-climb speed) is the calibrated airspeed at which the airplane will obtain the maximum increase in altitude per unit of time (feet per minute) after takeoff.

Question 17

During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts?

Answer 17

Dissipating. EXPLANATION Downdrafts characterize the dissipating stage of the thunderstorm cell and the storm dies rapidly.

Question 18

True altitude is

Answer 18

the vertical distance of an aircraft above mean sea level (MSL)

Question 19

Indicated altitude

Answer 19

the altitude shown on an aircraft’s altimeter when it is set to the local barometric pressure at the airport

Question 20

Density Altitude

Answer 20

It is calculated by taking pressure altitude and correcting for non-standard temperature and pressure conditions.

Question 21

What values are used for winds aloft forecasts?

Answer 21

True direction and knots.

Question 22

What is the minimum weather condition required for airplanes operating under Special VFR in Class D airspace?

Answer 22

1 mile flight visibility.

Question 23

what are the three stages of a thunderstorm?

Answer 23

The developing (cumulus) stage, the mature (precipitation) stage, and the dissipating (downdrafts) stage

Question 24

what are the three requirements for a thunderstorm?

Answer 24

moisture, instability and a lifting force

Question 25

Possible mountain wave turbulence could be anticipated when winds of 40 knots or greater blow

Answer 25

across a mountain ridge, and the air is stable.

Question 26

What causes an airplane (except a T-tail) to pitch nose down when power is reduced and controls are not adjusted?

Answer 26

the downwash on the elevator from the propeller slipstream is reduced and elevator effectiveness is reduced.

Question 27

How do variations in temperature affect the altimeter?

Answer 27

Pressure levels are raised on warm days and the indicated altitude is lower than true altitude.

Question 28

Deviation error of the magnetic compass is caused by

Answer 28

certain metals and electrical systems within the aircraft.

Question 29

Who is responsible for ensuring appropriate entries are made in maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service?

Answer 29

Owner or operator.

Question 30

right of way rules

Answer 30

ballons, gliders, aircraft towing, airships, airplanes, rotorcraft

Question 31

During a night flight, you observe a steady white light and a flashing red light ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?

Answer 31

The other aircraft is flying away from you.

Question 32

What does the outbound destination sign identify?

Answer 32

Identifies direction to take-off runways.

Question 33

The numbers 8 and 26 on the approach ends of the runway indicate that the runway is orientated approximately

Answer 33

magnetic.

Question 34

Clouds, fog, or dew will always form when

Answer 34

water vapor condenses.

Question 35

Steady precipitation preceding a front is an indication of

Answer 35

stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence.

Question 36

What effect does high density altitude, as compared to low density altitude, have on propeller efficiency and why?

Answer 36

Efficiency is reduced because the propeller exerts less force at high density altitudes than at low density altitudes.

Question 37

what regulations allows a private pilot to preform preventative maintenance?

Answer 37

14 CFR _SECT _43.7

Question 38

An airplane and an airship are converging. If the airship is left of the airplane's position, which aircraft has the right-of-way?

Answer 38

The airship.

Question 39

The definition of nighttime is

Answer 39

the time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight.

Question 40

When operating the transponder on the VFR code (1200), what is the minimum mode the transponder must be in?

Answer 40

Mode A.

Question 41

Which device is a secondary flight control? A. Spoilers B. Ailerons C. Stabilators

Answer 41

Spoilers

Question 42

The angle of attack at which an airplane wing stalls will...

Answer 42

Remain the same regardless of gross weight

Question 43

What force makes an airplane turn?

Answer 43

The horizontal component of lift

Question 44

What determines the longitudinal stability of an airplane?

Answer 44

The location of the CG with respect to the center of lift

Question 45

In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the north if...

Answer 45

An aircraft is accelerated while on an east—west heading

Question 46

In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate initially a turn toward the west if...

Answer 46

A right turn is entered from a north heading

Question 47

In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the south when...

Answer 47

In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the south when... The aircraft is decelerated while on a west heading

Question 48

In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate initially a turn toward the east if...

Answer 48

A left turn is entered from a north heading

Question 49

What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from a south heading in the Northern Hemisphere?

Answer 49

The compass will indicate a turn to the right, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring

Question 50

Under what condition is indicated altitude the same as true altitude?

Answer 50

When at sea level under standard conditions

Question 51

The width of a Federal Airway from either side of the center line is....

Answer 51

4 nm

Question 52

Except in Alaska, during what time period should lighted position lights be displayed on an aircraft?

Answer 52

Sunrise to sunset

Question 53

In which class of airspace is acrobatic flight prohibited?

Answer 53

Class E airspace below 1,500' AGL

Question 54

No person my operate an aircraft in acrobatic flight when the flight visibility is less than...

Answer 54

(3) three-miles

Question 55

What is the lowest altitude permitted for acrobatic flight?

Answer 55

1,500' AGL

Question 56

Which is normally prohibited when operating a restricted category civil aircraft?

Answer 56

Flights over a densely populated area

Question 57

Which incident requires notification to the nearest NTSB field office?

Answer 57

Flight control system malfunction or failure

Question 58

If the outside air temperature (OAT) at a given altitude is warmer than standard, the density altitude is...

Answer 58

Higher than pressure altitude

Question 59

What effect does hazy have on the ability to see traffic or terrain features during flight?

Answer 59

All traffic or terrain features appear to be farther away than their actual distance

Question 60

Large accumulations of carbon monoxide in the human body result in...

Answer 60

Loss of muscular power

Question 61

Risk management, as part of the aeronautical decision making (ADM) process, relies on which features to risk associated with each flight?

Answer 61

Situational awareness, problem recognition, and good judgment

Question 62

What causes variations in altimeter settings between weather reporting points?

Answer 62

Unequal heating of the Earth's surface

Question 63

Convective circulation patterns associated with sea breezes are caused by...

Answer 63

Cool, dense air moving inland from over the water

Question 64

The development of thermals depends upon...

Answer 64

Solar heating

Question 65

One of the most easily recognized discontinuities across a front is...

Answer 65

A change in temperature

Question 66

A pilot can expect a wind shear zone in a temperature inversion whenever the windspeed at 2,000' to 4,000' above the surface is at least...

Answer 66

25-knots

Question 67

If the temperature/dewpoint spread is small and decreasing, and the temperature is 62ºF, what type weather is most likely to develop?

Answer 67

Fog or low clouds

Question 68

What is meant by the term "dew point"?

Answer 68

The temperature to which air must be cooled to become saturated

Question 69

The amount of water vapor which air can hold depends on the...

Answer 69

Air temperature

Question 70

Which conditions result in the formation of frost?

Answer 70

The temperature of the collecting surface is at or below the dewpoint of the adjacent air and the dewpoint is below freezing

Question 71

Low level turbulence can occur and icing can become hazardous in which type of fog?

Answer 71

Steam fog

Question 72

In which situation is advection fog most likely to form?

Answer 72

An air mass moving inland from the coast in winter

Question 73

What types of fog depends upon wind in order to exist?

Answer 73

Advection fog and upslope fog

Question 74

The conditions necessary for the formation of cumulonimbus clouds are a lifting action and...

Answer 74

Unstable, moist air

Question 75

At approximately what altitude above the surface would the pilot expect the base of cumuliform clouds if the surface air temperature is 82ºF and the dewpoint is 38ºF?

Answer 75

10,000'AGL (82-38=44; 44/4.4=10).

Question 76

What is the approximate base of the cumulus clouds if the surface air temperature at 1,000' MSL is 70ºF and the dewpoint is 48ºF?

Answer 76

6,000' (add 5.4ºF per 1,000')

Question 77

What is a characteristic of stable air?

Answer 77

Stratiform clouds

Question 78

Moist, stable air flowing upslope can be expected to...

Answer 78

Produce stratus type clouds

Question 79

Stead precipitation preceding a front is an indication of...

Answer 79

Stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence

Question 80

What are characteristics of a moist, unstable air mass?

Answer 80

Cumuliform clouds and showery precipitation

Question 81

The most frequent type of ground or surface based temperature inversion is that which is produced by...

Answer 81

Terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively still night

Question 82

Which weather conditions should be expected beneath a low level temperature inversion layer when the relative humidity is high?

Answer 82

Smooth air, poor visibility, fog, haze, or low clouds

Question 83

To best determine general forecast weather conditions over several states, the pilot should refer to...

Answer 83

Aviation Area Forecasts

Question 84

The sectional of the Area Forecast entitled "VFR CLDS/WX contains a general description of...

Answer 84

Clouds and weather which cover an area greater than 3,000 square miles and is significant to VFR flight operations.

Question 85

From which primary source should information be obtained regarding expected weather at the estimated time of arrival if your destination has no Terminal Forecast?

Answer 85

Area Forecast

Question 86

What does the heavy dashed line that forms a large rectangular box on a Radar Summary Chart refer to?

Answer 86

Severe weather watch area

Question 87

hat information is provided by the Radar Summary Chart that is not shown on other weather charts?

Answer 87

Lines and cells of hazardous thunderstorms

Question 88

Which statement about longitude and latitude is true?

Answer 88

Lines of longitude cross the Equator at right angles

Question 88

Radar weather reports are of special interest to pilots because they indicate...

Answer 88

Location of precipitation along with type, intensity, and cell movement of precipitation

Question 89

What information is contained in the Notices to Airmen Publication (NTAP)?

Answer 89

Current NOTAM (D) and FDC NOTAMs

Question 90

When NOTAMs are published in the Notices to Airmen Publication (NTAP), they are...

Answer 90

Only available in a standard weather briefing if the pilot request published NOTAMs

Question 91

indicator (CDI) needle is centered during an omnireciver check using a VOR test signal (VOT), the omnibearing selector (OBS) and the TO/FROM indicator should read...

Answer 91

0º FROM or 180º TO, regardless of the pilot's position from the VOT

Question 92

What should the airborne accuracy of a VOR be?

Answer 92

±6º

Question 93

How many satellites make up the Global Positioning System (GPS)?

Answer 93

24

Question 94

What is the minimum number of GPS satellites that are observable by a user anywhere on earth?

Answer 94

5

Question 95

How many GPS satellites are required to yield a three-dimensional position (latitude, longitude, and altitude) and time solution?

Answer 95

4

Question 96

Which of the following is a true statement concerning the Global Positioning System?

Answer 96

Navigating by GPS must be integrated with other forms of navigation

Question 97

When converting from true course to magnetic heading, a pilot should...

Answer 97

Subtract westerly variation and add right wind correction angl

Question 98

How do you know if you're in Moderate Turbulence?

Answer 98

You can feel the strain of the seatbelt during bumps

Question 99

How long is a METAR good for? When does it come out?

Answer 99

Good for 1 hour. Issued 50-minutes past the hour

Question 100

How long is a TAF good for? When does it come out?

Answer 100

Valid for 24-hours, issued 4x daily (0000Z, 0600Z, 1200Z, 1800Z)

Question 101

What is standard pressure in PSI?

Answer 101

14.7 psi

Question 102

What is the pressure lapse rate?

Answer 102

-1 inHg per 1000'

Question 103

Describe a high pressure system

Answer 103

Moves clockwise, down and out, wants to go low

Question 104

Describe a low pressure system

Answer 104

Moves counterclockwise, upward and in

Question 105

Describe High Clouds

Answer 105

20000'AGL and above (usually 300-400 miles ahead of front) Cirrus Cirro-cumulus Cirro-stratus

Question 106

Describe Middle Clouds

Answer 106

6500' - 20000'AGL Alto-stratus Alto-cumulus

Question 107

Describe Low Clouds

Answer 107

0' - 6500'AGL Stratus Strato-cumulus Nimbo-Stratus (rain) Vertical Developing Clouds

Question 108

Describe Steam Fog

Answer 108

Cold, dry air moves over relatively warmer water and evaporates. (Can produce low level turbulence)

Question 109

Describe Upslope Fog

Answer 109

Warm, moist, stable air with wind pushes upslope and cools to its dewpoint. (Puts clouds on top of a mountain)

Question 110

Describe Precipitation Induced Fog

Answer 110

warm rain/drizzle that falls through a cold layer of air and evaporates saturating the air. (Happens in the south more)

Question 111

Describe Radiation Fog

Answer 111

On a calm, cool, clear humid night the ground cools faster than the adjacent air, cooling the air to its dew point.

Question 112

Advection Fog

Answer 112

Warm, moist air moving over a cooler surface cooling it to its dewpoint. (Coastal fog generally)

Question 113

What is Virga?

Answer 113

Rain that evaporates before hitting the ground causing strong downdrafts.

Question 114

All operations within Class C airspace must be in

Answer 114

an aircraft equipped with a 4096-code transponder with Mode C encoding capability.