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B777 AMM > B777 RR Trent 800 Series Power Plant > Flashcards

B777 RR Trent 800 Series Power Plant Flashcards

(89 cards)

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1
Q

General: Which fan cowl has the chine installed?

A

Left and right engine inboard fan cowls.

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2
Q

General: At Idle power, what is the inlet suction hazard area extension?

A

15 feet (4.6m)

NOTE: At take off power is 27 ft (8.3m).

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3
Q

General: How is the gap of the fan cowls adjusted?

A

By adding or removing shims and latches tension mechanism (adjustable star).

T/R cowls should be adjusted first before adjusting fan cowl latches.

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4
Q

General: Which sensor probe is fitted to the inlet cowl?

A

P20/T20 probe.

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5
Q

General: Where does PDOS pump get power from?

A

Ground handling bus 28v dc for control and ground handling 115v ac (3 phases) for pump power.

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6
Q

Engine: How many turbine stages drive the fan?

A

5 LPT stages.

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7
Q

Engine: How many turbine stages drive the HPC?

A

Only one HPT stage.

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8
Q

Engine: Where are the trim balance weights fitted for the Fan at?

A

At the rear of spinner.

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9
Q

Engine: Where are the trim balance weights for the LPT?

A

At the blade tip of the last LPT stage (5th stage).

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10
Q

Engine: How do you turn the N3 compressor (HPC) for borescope inspections?

A

With the HP System turning tool attached to a drive squared accessed through the breather cover (removed) on the front of external gearbox module.

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11
Q

Engine: Which engine mount transfers thrust loads to the strut?

A

Rear engine mount does.

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12
Q

Fuel & Control: How is the Fuel HPSOV in the FMU directly controlled (hard-wired)?

A

By related fire handle.

Fuel Control Switches through ELMS and automatically by OPU if N1 or N2 have an over speed.

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13
Q

Fuel & Control: Which engine parameter is used for thrust calculation in RR Trent 800?

A

EPR, N1 is alternate.

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14
Q

Fuel & Control: When can the Control Alternator provide power for EEC operation?

A

N3 > 5%.

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15
Q

Fuel & Control: What does the HP Filter do?

A

It acts as a last chance filter for the metered fuel going to fuel nozzles to avoid nozzles from blockage. It is cleanable.

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16
Q

Fuel & Control: When does the controlling channel in EEC change over?

A

Every new start or a lane failure.

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17
Q

Fuel & Control: What happens if the OPU detects N1 or N2 overspeed?

A

Immediately shuts the engine down through HPSOV t/m.

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18
Q

Fuel & Control: How is the fuel flow in the fuel nozzles calibrated for their relative position around the engine?

A

By means of weight distributor valves inside fuel nozzles whose assure the fuel supply pressure between the top and bottom nozzles is equal.

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19
Q

Fuel & Control: What does the Control Alternator not directly power to?

A

Related EEC.

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20
Q

Fuel & Control: Which EDIU channel only transmits 629 and receive 429?

A

Center channel.

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21
Q

Fuel & Control: With the Engine Mode Switch indicating “ALTN”, what does it indicate?

A

EEC has had a reversionary event.

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22
Q

Fuel & Control: Where is the Data Entry Plug (DEP) attached to?

A

To the Electronic Unit Protection Box case with a lanyard.

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23
Q

Fuel & Control: Which fuel pump operates the ejector pump of the Drains Tank of the engine?

A

The Low Pressure Pump. The ejector pump removes fuel from the Drains Tank and sends it back to LP pump inlet.

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24
Q

Fuel & Control: What does the Autothrottle Servomotor brake do?

A

Moves the thrust lever and resolver at the same time and provides some friction (feel) to thrust levers.

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25
Fuel & Control: Where do the throttle resolvers get power from?
Related EEC provides power to excite throttle resolvers and so reads the position of resolvers to determine throttles position
26
Fuel & Control: Where are the throttle resolvers located?
Below throttle lever assembly, actuated by throttle lever by means of a rod.
27
Fuel & Control: Where are the relays that control the HPSOV located?
ELMS, P110 or P210 for left engine / right engine respectively.
28
Indication: How is EGT measured and where is it sensed?
By means of 17 thermocouples in the T44 engine station (entrance of LPT).
29
Indication: What pressures are used to calculate EPR
P20 / P50
30
Indication: How is N1 sensed?
By means of three N1 probes reading a phonic wheel on the LP shaft.
31
Indication: How is N2 sensed?
By means of three N2 probes reading a phonic wheel on the IP shaft.
32
Indication: How is N3 sensed?
Control alternator provides N3 speed using a power phase it uses to power PCU up.
33
Indication: Which displays show the engine vibration levels?
Secondary EICAS display and EPCS performance page.
34
Indication: Which LRU calculates the engine balance solution?
AVMU. NOTE: The Engine Balancing System (EBS) is a shared function between AVM and AIMS. (Ref P248). We can access to it through MAT.
35
Indication: What must you do prior to carrying out an engine balance solution?
Map the installed weighs and compare them against those in the AVMU memory.
36
General: How many bearings has the entire engine?
Eight bearings with roller and ball type bearings. - LP shaft has 3 from forward to aft: roller-ball roller & ball. - IP shaft has 3 from forward to aft: roller-ball roller. - HP shaft has 2: ball-roller.
37
General: Where is the Engine Data Plate located?
Left side of fan case below Electrical Protection Box.
38
General: What is the RR Trend 800 series engine by-pass ratio?
6:1 The fan supplies 80% of total rated thrust.
39
Engine: Which shaft drives the accessory gearbox?
N3 shaft.
40
Engine: How many fan blades does fan disc have?
26 fan blades.
41
Engine: What is the basic design of LP shaft (N1) in regard with air flow?
LP fan disc driven by 5 LPT stages.
42
Engine: What is the basic design of IP shaft (N2) in regard with air flow?
8 IPC stages driven by a single stage IPT disc.
43
Engine: What is the basic design of HP shaft (N3) in regard with air flow?
6 HPC stages driven by a single stage HPT disc.
44
Oil: Which component can the EEC modulate to maintain fuel and oil temperatures?
ACOC (Air cooled-oil cooler) which is servo-fuel operated and electronically controlled by EEC by means of t/m.
45
Oil : Which sensor is directly connected to AIMS?
Engine oil quantity transmitter.
46
Oil: Which filters are monitored for differential pressure?
Pressure and scavenge filters.
47
Oil: How many main engine bearing chambers are there?
Four.
48
Oil: When will oil bypass the FCOC?
When oil is too cold or FCOC internal passages get blocked or obstructed.
49
Oil: Where is the Master Chip Detecrtor _MCD_ located?
Up stream of Scavenge Filter Housing, which is underneath oil filler neck.
50
Oil: When can you do an oil level check after engine shutdown?
5 minutes after shut down.
51
Air: Which compressor stages have bleed valves fitted and how many of them are there?
IPC 8th stage and HPC 3 stage; 3 valves for IPC and 3 valves for HPC. One of the IPC bleed valves are controlled separately (the left one). NOTE: Fail-safe position for all valves is open.
52
Air: Where is the air taken from for Zone 1 cooling?
Ram air from an air intake in top of nose cowl.
53
Air: How is the VSV monitored for position by EEC?
By means of a LVDT per EEC channel (A in the left VSV actuator and B in the right VSV actuator). NOTE: VSVs fail-safe is closed.
54
Air: How is the left IP Bleed Valve controlled?
By EEC through a separate solenoid. NOTE: Fail-safe is open (solenoid de-energized).
54
Air: What air supply is used for TIC?
Fan air.
55
Air: How is TIC Valve controlled?
By a solenoid and a pneumatic open-close actuator. Servo-air is HPC 3rd stage. NOTE: Its fail safe position is closed (solenoid de-energized). Located on turbine case at 3:00.
55
Air: Which compressor stages are variable?
The IPC first 2 stages.
56
Air: What is the fail-safe position of the bleed valves?
Open.
56
Ignition: When will auto-relight ignition operate?
Whenever T30 / P30 temperature drops / pressure decreases (respectively) or there is a commanded & actual N3 speed difference. NOTE 1: Auto re-light is available after engine is idle stabilized. On ground idle, EEC monitors commanded vs actual N3 speed to find out a flame out. Above idle power settings, EEC monitors N3, P30 (burner pressure) and aircraft altitude to find for a flame out, but also EEC monitors T30 thermocouples to find a condition of flame out due a heavy rain / hail ingestion.
57
Ignition: Where does the ignition exciters get power from?
Power Conditioning Unit (PCU) from L & R 115v ac buses or 115v ac Stby Bus, but controlled by EEC.
58
Ignition: What is the back-up power source for the ignition system if the L & R 115v ac buses are lost?
115v Standby AC bus.
59
Ignition: Where are the ignition exciters located?
On the left side of the engine fan case.
60
Ignition: When does EEC remove exciter power?
At 50% N3.
61
Ignition: Where is the digital start command to the EEC sent from?
From the Engine Control Panel via OPAS.
62
Exhaust: What does the V-Band latch do?
It holds T/R halves together around rear fan case V-groove.
63
Exhaust: What does the thrust reverser Test-enable Switch do?
It allows to make T/R deployment test on the ground without running the engine.
64
Exhaust: How does EEC sense T/R selection?
By means of TRA (thrust resolvers angle).
65
Exhaust: How is T/R deactivated for maintenance?
By deactivating Isolation Valve by pushing the by-pass valve handle and installing a lock-out pin to holding it in place, this interconnects both extend-retract lines of actuators avoiding hydraulic blockage.
66
Exhaust: What does the sync-lock do?
It provides level of safety keeping the T/R safe locked stowed in-flight and on the ground when T/R is not selected. It is attached to lower actuator. It is the manual drive for the system.
67
Exhaust: What is used to drive the T/R manually?
A 3/8 in manual drive inserted in the sync-lock/ manual drive mechanism.
68
Exhaust: Where is the sync-lock valve located?
In the engine aft strut above Isolation Valve.
69
Exhaust: Where is the Isolation and the DCV located?
The Isolation valve is in the engine aft strut below of Sync-lock Valve. The Directional Control Valve is in the top engine pylon (forward strut).
70
Exhaust: How is the HIV monitored for position?
By means of an associated pressure switch which closes contacts when IV is open to hydraulic pressure.
71
Exhaust: When will the T/R interlock actuator move to allow full reverse selection on T/R lever?
Once the T/R translation sleeves are at least 60% near full extend position.
72
Start: What auto-start failures won't allow a further start attempt?
Locked rotor(s) or starter shaft breakage.
73
Start: During start, when does AIMS release the start switch?
N3 at 63% speed.
74
Start: When does the EEC close the Starter Air Valve?
At 50% N3.
75
Start: How is the Starter Control Valve position monitored?
By position switches in the valve.
76
Start: Where is the starter motor located?
In the left front face of accessory gear box.
77
Pneu Annex: Where is the PRSOV located?
Left side of engine core at 09:30, below and aft of HPSOV.
78
Pneu Annex: Where is the HPSOV located?
Left side of engine core at 10:00.
79
Pneu Annex: What compressor stages provide customer bleed air?
IP 8th stage and HP 6th stage.
80
Elec Annex: Where is the BUG (Backup Generator) Air-Oil Heat Exchanger located?
At the right lower fan duct.
81
Elec Annex: Where is the IDG Air/Oil Heat Exchanger located?
On the left side of fan case (7:00).
82
A-ice Annex: Where is the Engine Anti-ice valve located?
On the right side of engine core at 5:00
83
A-Ice Annex: Where is the Anti-ice Controller located?
On the right side of fan hub at 13:30
84
Fire Prot Annex: How many sections of twin fire detectors on the engine are there?
6
85
Fire Prot Annex: How is the engine nacelle overheat detected?
By means of dual fire/overheat detector loop routed there.
86
Fire Prot Annex: How is turbine overheat detected?
By means of a dual-element thermocouple fitted fore and aft of IPT. An overheat in that zone is treated as a Engine Fire with all aural and related warnings provided for an engine fire event. However this sub-system is not tested by the Engine Fire System test.

B777 AMM (49 decks)

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