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BACTERIAL AND FUNGAL INFECTIONS Flashcards

(55 cards)

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1
Q

no detectable antibodies

A

Lag phase

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2
Q

Produces a stronger response to the stimulus

A

Secondary (Anamnestic) Response

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3
Q

Described by HIGH-GRADE FEVER

A

Febrile disease

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4
Q

Bacteria causing malaria

A

Plasmodium
➢ P . falciparum
➢ P . vivax
➢ P . malariae
➢ P . ovale
➢ P . knowlesi

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5
Q

GROUP A STREPTOCOCCAL INFECTION: Major cause of

A

bacterial pharyngitis and childhood impetigo

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6
Q

inhibits phagocytosis; limits C3 deposition; helps attach to host cells

A

M protein

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7
Q

Notable streptolysin

A

Streptolysin O

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8
Q

Gold standard in detecting Group A streptococcus

A

Bacteria culture

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9
Q

+ of blood culture group A streptococcus

A

Small, translucent colonies surrounded by a “clearing” zone

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10
Q

● Alpha Hemolysis:
● Beta Hemolysis:
● Gamma Hemolysis: No hemolysis

A

Partial greenish, Complete hemolysis (Colorless)

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11
Q

__________________________________
● Strep A antigen collected from throat swabs react with __________.
● Labeled Ab-Ag complex is captured by an anti-antibody in the test area, producing dense line
● Rapid, and has high sensitivity compared to some traditional methods

A

LATERAL FLOW IMMUNOCHROMATOGRAPHIC ASSAY (LFA)

enzyme-labeled antibodies

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12
Q

For the qualitative detection of Streptococcus pyogenes Group A antigen from throat swab specimens.

A

BinaxNOW® lateral flow assay

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13
Q

Positive in 95% of patients with Acute PSGN due to GAS pharyngitis

A

STREPTOZYME TEST

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14
Q

Less reproducible; increased rate of false-positives and false-negatives; coupled with ASO and anti-Dnase B

A

STREPTOZYME TEST

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15
Q

ANTISTREPTOLYSIN O (ASO) TESTING

➢ Titers are acquired and reported in ___________, depending on the reagent used
➢ Moderately elevated if titers are _______________.

A

Todd units or IU

240 Todd units (adults) and 320 Todd units (children)

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16
Q

The Rocky Mountain wood tick, ______________, is a known North American vector of Rickettsia rickettsii

A

Dermacentor andersoni

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17
Q

The characteristic spotted rash of _________________, the most severe and most frequently reported rickettsial illness in the United States. The disease is caused by Rickettsia rickettsii.

A

Rocky Mountain spotted fever

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18
Q

When _________ appear, it means that you only have a few days to live — meaning you’re in its ____________.

A

Rashes, fulminant phase

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19
Q

For lyme disease, once bitten, there will be a presence of a __________.

A

bull eye’s rash

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20
Q

meaning you are infected with the bacteria.

A

Erythema chronicum migrans or bull eye’s rash

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21
Q

remains the usual method for confirming RMSF

A

Serological testing

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22
Q

Gold standard for RMSF

A

INDIRECT IMMUNOFLUORESCENCE ASSAY

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23
Q

Proteus vulgaris

24
Q

Proteus mirabilis

25
Low sensitivity and specificity ➢ Because of the cross reaction ➢ Needs to correlate the S/S of the disease
Weil-Felix test
26
Positive only if EIA-IFA and immunoblot assays are both positive
Immunoblot procedure (Western Blood)
27
Ingestion of contaminated meat, poultry, eggs, dairy products, and aquaculture-farmed fish and shellfish
NON-TYPHOIDAL GASTROENTERITIS
28
Symptoms manifest within _______ after ingestion of contaminated foods
6-48 hours
29
Transmitted through fecally-contaminated food or water
ENTERIC FEVER (TYPHOID FEVER) / Salmonella Typhi
30
____________ still remains as the gold standard for diagnosis
Bacterial cultivation
31
Salmonella colonies growing on Hektoen enteric agar showing ____________ resulting from the production of ____________.
black centers, hydrogen sulfide
32
Agglutination test; detection of antibodies vs. S. Typhi and S. Paratyphi
Widal test
33
Widal test: Directed against different antigens:
O (somatic) and H (flagellar) antigens
34
Widal test: Quantitative test: Reported in titers; _____ is considered indicative of current or prior infection
≥1:20
35
TYPHIDOT TEST ● Principle: _________ ● Detects IgG or IgM antibodies in blood samples ● Easy to perform; requires less training ● Complementary to ______
Immunochromatography, Widal test
36
TYPHIDOT TEST: __________ will react with the serum sample
Nitrocellulose membrane
37
cardiovascular; syphilitic gummas; neurosyphilis
Tertiary syphilis
38
systemic; hematologic spread (mucocutaneous rash); condylomata lata (mucous patches in the mouth); start of CNS involvement
Secondary syphilis
39
SEROLOGIC, NON TREPONEMAL TEST ● Detects the presence of ______ antibodies, directed to _________ ➢ Reaginic Ab (IgE) ➢ ___________ - substance found on mitochondrial membranes; released together with ________ in T . pallidum infections. ● Flocculation
REAGIN, CARDIOLIPIN, Cardiolipin (aka Calcutta antigen), LECITHIN
40
Venereal Disease Research Laboratories (VDRL) Test ANTIGEN DELIVERY NEEDLES ➢ QUALITATIVE– ______ blunt-tip needle capable of delivering 60 drops/mL ➢ QUANTITATIVE– ____ needle capable of delivering 75 drops/mL OR 23G with or without bevel, delivering 100 drops of saline per mL ➢ CSF VDRL– 21G OR 22G 100 drops/mL - ROTATION (MECHANICAL ROTATOR) ➢ SERUM: 180 rpm for 4 minutes ➢ CSF: 180 rpm for 8 minutes - MICROSCOPE ➢ Examine flocculation under LPO
18G, 19G
41
for easier interpretation
Charcoal
42
ANTIGEN DELIVERY NEEDLE for RPR
20G blunt-tipped needle, capable of delivering 60 drops of reagent antigen per 1 mL
43
Treponema pallidum IMMOBILIZATION TEST ● Mix px serum with live, motile T . pallidum extracted from _______________. ● Positive if >50% of treponemes are immobilized ● Negative if <20% are immobilized
rabbit testicular chancre
44
FLUORESCENT TREPONEMAL ANTIBODY ABSORPTION TEST (FTA-ABS) ● Heat-inactivated serum is incubated with a sorbent containing the ________ of the bacterium ● Serum sample is then mixed in wells containing the __________ ● Indirect Immunofluorescence test ● Slides are washed, air-dried and mixed with an antibody conjugate (anti-antibody with fluorescin), then incubated
Reiter strain, Nichols strain
45
85% of farmers and some person with no evidence of disease. Uses gel immunodiffusion.
Aspergillosis
46
Complement fixation, >50% positive in proven cases: test is positive in about 80% of cases.
Blastomycosis
47
Latex agglutination, EIA, immunofluorescence assay
Cryptococcosis
48
Latex particle agglutination
Sporotrichosis
49
HISTOPLASMOSIS Immunodiffusion techniques: H and M bands ● ________ bands indicate active infection ● M band presence only indicates early infection, chronic infection, or recent reactive skin test ● H band appears later than the M band ● H band disappearance indicates ______
H and M, regression
50
HISTOPLASMA Complement Fixation Test ● Cross-reactivity can be seen with ___________________
aspergillosis, blastomycosis, coccidiomycosis
51
ASPERGILLOSIS Enzyme Immunoassay- _________
IgE and IgG vs. Aspergillus galactomannan antigen
52
DIAGNOSING SPOROTRICHOSIS Skin testing: Negative for patients with _________; positive with extracutaneous sporotrichosis
cutaneous type
53
CRYTOCOCCOSIS Cryptococcal Antigen Detection Test ● May cause false-positives with _______________.
Trichosporon spp. infections
54
● Rapid; easy to perform; gives reproducible results. ● Point-of-care testing (POCT) or home testing (Ex: Pregnancy Test) ● Modified to increase sensitivity; can be made semiquantitative ● Single use; disposable
IMMUNOCHROMATOGRAPHY/LATERAL FLOW ASSAY
55
IMMUNOCHROMATOGRAPHY/LATERAL FLOW ASSAY Conjugate pad contains the ___________ that may or may not be already saturated with Ag of interest (Monoclonal Ab is already labelled with __________)
monoclonal Ab, colloidal gold

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