Bacterial Infections Flashcards

(103 cards)

1
Q

Treatment of chlamydia

A

Doxycycline or macrolides e.g. azithromycin

Partner notification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Complications of chlamydia

A

Infertility
PID
Ectopic pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What % of women have GBS?

A

20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Who does not get treated for GBS?

A

Non pregnant women

Early pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Effects of GBS on baby

A

Neonatal sepsis

Neonatal meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Treatment of GBS

A

IV Benpen

If allergic - vancomycin or clindamycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Causes of vaginal discharge

A

Thrush
Gonorrhoea
Bacterial vaginosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Where is Staph A normally found?

A

As a normal commensal on the skin, nose and groin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What can staph A normally cause infections of?

A

Skin and soft tissue infections
Infective endocarditis
Prosthetic limb infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is MRSA?

A

When staph A is resistant to flucloxacillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does Staph A produce

A

Penicillinase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is used to assess the severity of pneumonia?

A

CURB65

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Treatment of community acquired pneumonia

A

Amoxicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Test for legionella

A

Antigen in the urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the most common contaminants of blood cultures?

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis and other coag -ve staphs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What condition/infection can strep oralis cause?

A

IE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does IE stand for?

A

Infective endocarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What can EColi 0157 result in?

A

HUS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Causes of gastroenteritis

A

Campylobacter
Shigella
Ecoli 0157
Salmonella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Causative organism of pneumonia following influenzas

A

Staph Areus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Causative organism of community acquired pneumonia

A

Strep pneumonia EE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Treatment of lower urinary tract infection

A

Trimethoprim

Nitrofurantoin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Treatment of acute pyelonephritis

A

Broad spec cephalosporin or quinolone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Treatment of dental abscess

A

Amoxicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Treatment of cellulitis near the nose / eyes
Co amoxiclav
26
Feature of legionella pneumophilia
Deranged LFTs
27
1st line Tx for severe otitis external
Flucloxacillin
28
Treatment of cellulitis
Flucloxacillin
29
Causative organism of exacerbation of bronchiectasis
Haemophilus influenzae
30
Treatment of infective exacerbations of chronic bronchitis
Amoxicillin OR Tetracycline OR Clarity romp in
31
What kind of bacteria is neiserria meningitis?
Gram -ve cocci
32
Treatment of throat infections requiring Ax
Phenoxymethylpenicillin
33
Treatment of hospital acquired pneumonia which presents within 5 days of admission
Co amoxiclav or cefuroxamine
34
Treatment of hospital acquired pneumonia after 5 days
Piperacillin and tazobactam OR Broad spec cephalosporin (e.g. ceftazime) OR Quinolone (e.g. ciprofloxacin)
35
Treatment of acute prostatitis
Quinolone or trimethoprim
36
Treatment of animal or human bite
Co amoxiclav
37
Treatment of mastitis due to breastfeeding
Flucloxacillin
38
Treatment of sinusitis
Amoxicillin or doxycycline or erythromycin
39
Treatment of otitis media
Amoxicillin
40
What kind of bacteria are staph, strep and enterococcus?
Gram +ve cocci
41
Association of mycoplasma pneumoniae
Haemolytic anaemia
42
Treatment of pneumoniae caused by atypical pathogens
Clarithromycin
43
Who is Kleibsiella pneumonia typically seen in?
Alcoholics
44
Presentation of pneumococcal pneumoniae
Rapid onset High fever Pleuritic chest pain Herpes labialise
45
What lymphadenopathy can be seen in rubella?
Suboccipital and post auricular lymphadenopathy
46
What may occur before campylobacter infection?
Flu like prodrome
47
What may a campylobacter infection mimic?
Appendicitis
48
Treatment of bacterial vagi no’s is
Oral or topical metronidazole or topical clindamycin
49
What type of syphillis would a painless ulcer indicate?
Primary
50
Treatment of non gonococcal urethritis
Doxycycline or azithromycin
51
What type of syphillis does an ascending aortic aneurysm indicate?
Tertiary
52
Treatment of syphillis
Benpen
53
Complication of Lyme disease of the heart
Heart block
54
What causes diptheria?
Corynebacterium diptheriae
55
Presentation of diptheria
``` Diptheric membrane on tonsils Necrosis of myocardial, neural and renal tissue Sore throat Bulky cervical lymphadenopathy Neuritis e.g. CNS Heart block ```
56
What may be present in the history to point towards diptheria?
Recent visitations to Eastern Europe / Russia / Asia
57
Features of congenital syphillis
Blunted upper incisor teeth (Hutchison’s teeth), mulberry molars Rhagades (linear scars at angels of mouth) Keratitis Sabers shins Saddle nose Deafness
58
Treatment of early Lyme disease
Doxycycline
59
Treatment of trichomonas vaginalis
Metronidazole
60
Another name for slap cheek
Erythema infectious
61
Causative organism for Lyme disease
Borrelia burgdorferi
62
Test for Lyme disease
ELISA Abs to borrelia burgdorferi
63
What does LGV stand for?
Lymphogranuloma venereum
64
What causes LGV?
Chlamydia trochamitis
65
Stags of LGV
1. Small painless pustule which later forms an ulcer 2. Painful inguinal lymphadenopathy 3. Proctocolitis
66
Treatment of LGV
Doxycycline
67
What does PJP stain with?
Silver stain
68
S/Es of amphotericin b
Nephrotoxicity
69
What is bacterial vaginosis?
An overgrowth of predominately anaerobic organisms such as Gardnerella vaginallis Results in decreased lactic acid production producing aerobic lactobacilli resulting in increased vaginal pH
70
Who is bacterial vaginosis seen in?
Sexually active women
71
Presentation of bacterial vaginosis
Discharge - fishy, offensive | Asymptomatic in 50%
72
Amsels criteria for bacterial vaginosis
1. Thin white homogenous discharge 2. Clue cells on microscopy (stippled vaginal epithelial cells) 3. Vaginal pH > 4.5 4. +ve whiff test
73
Treatment for bacterial vaginsosis
Oral metronidazole 5 - 7 days
74
Relapse rate for BV
> 50% within 3 months
75
Risks of BV in pregnancy
Increased risk of preterm labour, low birth weight, chorioamniotis, late miscarriage
76
Treatment of PID
Oral ofloxacin + oral metronidazole + IM ceftrixazone OR Oral doxycycline and oral metronidazole
77
What kind of infection is trichomonas vaginalis?
STI caused by a parasite
78
Presentation of TV
Vaginal discharge - offensive, yellow, green, frothy Vulvovaginitis Strawberry cervix Ph > 4.5 Asymptomatic in men but can cause urethritis
79
Investigation for tv
Microscopy of wet mount - motile trophozoites
80
Treatment of TV
Metronidazole 5-7 days or one off dose metronidazole 2g
81
What causes cat scratch disease?
Bartonella henselae
82
Causative organism of Chagas’ disease
Trypanosome cruzi
83
Presentation of Chagas’ disease
Dilated cardiomyopathy Megaoesophagus Mega colon
84
Pathology of gas gangrene
Life threatening bacterial infection causing gangrene that can cause muscle necrosis, sepsis, gas production and death
85
Causative organism of gas gangrene
Clostridium perfringes
86
Causes of gas gangrene
Traumatic / surgical inoculation of a wound with bacteria | Sponataneous often seen in immunosuppressive
87
Presentation of gas gangrene
Pain Then systemic features (fever, dehydration) Progressing to skin changes - often blisters which can burst producing foul smelling discharge Often creptitus can be heard on movement
88
What is mycoplasma pneumoniae?
Atypical pneumoniae that typically occurs in younger patients
89
Presentation of mycoplasma pneumoniae
Prolonged and gradual onset Flu like symptom preceding a dry cough Bilateral consolidation on X-RAY
90
Investigations of mycoplasma pnunemoniae
Mycoplasma serology | +ve cold agglutination test
91
Complications of mycoplasma pneumoniae
``` Erythema multiforme Cold autoimmune haemolytic anaemia Meningoencephalitis Guillian barre syndrome Bulbous myringitis Pericarditis/myocarditis Hepatitis Pancreatitis Acute GN ```
92
Treatment of mycoplasma pneumoniae
Doxycycline or macrolide e.g. (erythromycin / clarithromycin)
93
Treatment of legionella
Clarithromycin
94
Treatment for MRSA
Nasal mupirocin and chlorhexidine for the skin
95
What is leprosy?
Granulomatous disease primarily affecting the peripheral nerves and skin
96
Causative organism of leprosy
Mycobacterium leprae
97
Presentation of leprosy
Patches of hypopigmented skin typically affecting buttocks, face and extensor surfaces of limbs
98
What determines what type of leprosy a patient will develop?
The degree of cell mediated immunity
99
Treatment of leprosy
3x therapy; Rifampicin, dapsone and clofazimine
100
Investigation for both chlamydia and gonorrhoea
NAATs
101
Treatment for atypical pneumonia
Clarithromycin
102
Very common organism causing LRTI in CF patients
Pseudomonas aeurginosa
103
What can mycoplasma cause?
Immune mediated neurological diseases