Bacterial, Viral, Fungal, and Parasitic Infections - ATI Chapter 56 Flashcards
(161 cards)
1
Q
______ are the micro-organisms or microbes that cause infections.
A
Pathogens
2
Q
_____ is the ability of a pathogen to invade the host and cause disease.
A
Virulence
3
Q
_____ is a common viral infection that erupts years after exposure to chickenpox and invades a specific nerve tract.
A
Herpes zoster i
4
Q
_______ is the most common type of pathogen (Staphylococcus aureus, Escherichia coli, Mycobacterium tuberculosis)
A
bacteria
5
Q
______ are organisms that use the host’s genetic machinery to reproduce (rhinovirus, HIV, hepatitis, herpes zoster, herpes simplex)
A
viruses
6
Q
____ are molds and yeasts (Candida albicans, Aspergillus)
A
fungi
7
Q
_____ are protein particles that have the ability to cause infections (Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease).
A
prions
8
Q
____ are organisms that live on and often cause harm to a host organism.
A
parasites
9
Q
Malaria and toxoplasmosis are examples of
A
protozoa
10
Q
Worms: flatworms, roundworms are examples of
A
Helminths
11
Q
Schistosomes are examples of
A
Flukes
12
Q
Lice, mites, ticks are examples of
A
Arthropods
13
Q
The infection process (________) includes the following.
A
chain of infection
14
Q
______ of infections include bacteria, viruses, fungus, prion and parasites.
A
causative agent
15
Q
Examples of ______ of infection include humans, animals, food, water, soil, insects, and fomites.
A
reservoir
16
Q
Portals of exit from (means leaving) the host
A
respiratory tract gastrointestinal tract genitourinary tract skin/mucous membranes blood/body fluids
17
Q
HIV and hepatitis B and C exit the body (portal of exit) via ______.
A
blood/body fluids
18
Q
Herpes simplex virus and varicella exit the body (portal of exit) via ______.
A
skin/mucous membranes
19
Q
Escherichia coli, herpes simplex virus (type 1), HIV exit the body (portal of exit) via _______.
A
genitourinary tract
20
Q
Shigella, Salmonella enteritidis, Salmonella typhi, hepatitis A, C. diff exit the body (portal of exit) via ______.
A
gastrointestinal tract
21
Q
Mycobacterium tuberculosis and Parainfluenza virus exit the body (portal of exit) via ______.
A
respiratory tract
22
Q
Modes of transmissions
A
contact
droplet
airborne
vector-borne
23
Q
Contact modes of transmission
A
direct physical contact
indirect contact with a vehicle of transmission
fecal-oral transmission
24
Q
Person to person transmission is known as _____ contact.
A
direct physical
25
Inanimate objects, water, food, and blood are modes of transmission known as _______.
indirect contact with a vehicle of transmission
26
Handling food after using a restroom and failing to wash hands result in the _______.
fecal-oral transmission
27
_____ transmission is when large droplets travel through the air up to 3 to 6 feet (sneezing, coughing, and talking).
droplet
28
_____ transmission is when small droplets remain int he air and can travel extended distances depending on airflow (sneezing and coughing)
airborne
29
_____ transmission occurs when animals or insects as intermediaries (ticks transmit Lyme disease; mosquitoes transmit West Nile virus and malaria).
vector-borne
30
The portal of ______ to the host is often the same as the portal of exit.
entry
31
A _______ has compromised defense mechanisms (immunosuppression, breaks in skin) leave the host more susceptible to infections.
susceptible host
32
______ allows the body to restrict entry or immediately respond to a foreign organisms (antigen) through the activation of phagocytic cells, complement and inflammation.
nonspecific innate - native immunity
33
______ immunity provides temporary immunity but does not have memory of past exposures.
nonspecific innate-native
34
Intact skin is the body's _____ of defense against microbial invasion.
first line
35
The skin, mucous membranes, secretions, enzymes, phagocytic cells, and _______ work in concert to prevent infections.
protective proteins
36
Phagocyic cells (neutrophils, eosinophils, macrophages), the complement system, and ______ are involved in the inflammatory response.
interferons
37
An ________ localizes the area of microbial invasion and prevents its spread.
inflammatory response
38
_______ allows the body to make antibodies in response to a foreign organism (antigen).
specific adaptive immunity
39
Specific adaptive immunity requires time to react to _____.
antigens
40
_____ immunity provides permanent immunity due to memory of past exposures.
specific adaptive
41
______ immunity involves B and T lymphocytes.
specific adaptive
42
Specific adaptive immunity produces specific ______ against specific antigens (immunoglobulins: IgA, IgD, IgE, IgG, IgM)
antibodies
43
The 5 immunoglobulins produced via specific adaptive immunity
```
IgA
IgD
IgE
IgG
IgM
```
44
Environmental Risk Factors
excessive alcohol consumption
nicotine use: smoking, smokeless tobacco
malnutrition
45
Medication therapy (immunosuppressive agents) Risk Factors
glucocorticosteroids
| antineoplastics
46
Chronic disease Risk factors
```
Diabetes mellitus
Cancer
HIV, AIDS
Peripheral vascular disease
Chronic pulmonary disease
Heart failure
```
47
Older adults are at increased risk for _______.
infection
48
Older adults are at increased risk for infection because of the slowed response to ______.
antibiotic therapy
49
Older adults are at increased risk for infection because of the slowed ______: indicators of infection are more difficult to identify, resulting in possible delays in diagnosis and treatment.
immune response
50
Older adults are at increased risk for infection because of the loss of _______ and thinning of the skin.
subcutaneous tissue
51
Older adults are at increased risk for infection because of the decreased vascularity and slowed ______.
wound healing
52
Older adults are at increased risk for infection because of the decreased cough and ____ reflexes.
gag
53
Older adults are at increased risk for infection because of the ________ such as diabetes mellitus, COPD, neurological or musculoskeletal impairments)
chronic illnesses
54
Older adults are at increased risk for infection because of the decreased _____ acid production.
gastric
55
Older adults are at increased risk for infection because of the _____ mobility.
decreased
56
Older adults are at increased risk for infection because of the bowel/bladder ______.
incontinence
57
Older adults are at increased risk for infection because of _______.
dementia
58
Older adults are at increased risk for infection because of the greater incidence of _____ devices (urinary catheters, feeding tubes, tracheostomies, intravenous lines)
invasive
59
Common indications of _____ are not always present in the older adult client. Altered mental status, agitation, or incontinence can be present instead.
infection
60
Expected findings with infections
chills
sore throat
fatigue and malaise
change in level of consciousness, nuchal rigidity, photophobia, headache
nausea, vomiting, anorexia, abdominal cramping and diarrhea
localized pain or discomfort
61
Physical assessment findings with an infection
Fever
Increased pulse and respiratory rate, decreased blood pressure
localized redness and edema
enlarged lymph nodes
dyspnea, cough, purulent sputum, and crackles in lung fields.
dysuria, urinary frequency, hematuria, and pyuria
rash, skin lesions, purulent wound drainage, and erythema
dysphagia, hyperemia, and enlarged tonsils
62
Lab tests for infection
white blood cell (WBC) count with differential
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
Immunoglobulin electrophoresis
Antibody screening tests
Antibody screening tests
Auto-antibody screening tests
Antigen tests
Stool for ova and parasites
Culture and Sensitivity
63
An elevated _____ is an indicator of infection (expected reference range is 5k to 10k /mm^3).
white blood cell (WBC) count
64
The differential with a WBC identifies specific types of WBC's that can assist in diagnosis of the ______ of infection or the specific type of pathogen.
severity
65
The rate at which ______ settle out of plasma is determined by the Erythocyte sedimentation rate (ESR).
red blood cells
66
An elevated ______ is an indicator of an active inflammatory process or infection (expected reference range is 15 to 20 mm/hr)
ESR
67
An increase indicates in ESR indicates an ______ inflammatory process or infection.
active
68
The immunoglobulin electrophoresis determines the presence and quantity of specific ________.
immunoglobulins (IgG, IgA, IgM)
69
_______ is used to detect hypersensitivity disorders, autoimmune disorders, chronic viral infections, immunodeficiency, multiple myeloma, and intrauterine infections.
immunoglobulin electrophoresis
70
______ tests detect the presence of antibodies against specific causative agents (bacteria, fungi, viruses, parasites).
antibody screening tests
71
A _______ antibody screening test indicates that the client has been exposed to and developed antibodies to a specific pathogen, but it does not provide information about whether or not the client is currently infected (HIV antibodies)
positive
72
_____ detect the presence of antibodies against a person's own DNA (self-cells).
auto-antibody screening tests
73
Auto-antibody screening tests detect the presence of antibodies against ______ is associated with autoimmune conditions (systemic lupus erythematosus, rheumatoid arthritis).
self cells
74
______ detect the presence of a specific pathogen (HIV).
antigen tests
75
Antigen tests are used to identify certain infections or _____.
disorders.
76
_______ detects presence of ova and parasites, such as hookworm ova in stool.
stool for ova and parasites test
77
_____ separate stool specimens usually are collected for stool for ova and parasites test.
three
78
Each specimen must be transported to the lab while it is still _____ for the stool for ova and parasites test.
warm
79
A _____ is a microscopic exam to identify an infecting organism.
culture
80
Cultures can be obtained from blood, sputum, urine, wound and _____.
soft tissue
81
Cultures should be obtained before any _____ is initiated.
antibiotic
82
The sensitivity report indicates which antibiotics are _____ against the identified organism.
effective
83
X-rays, computed tomography (CT) scan, ______ , and biopsies are used to determine the presence of infection, abscesses, and lesions.
magnetic resonance imagining (MRI)
84
A _____ is a nuclear scan that uses a radioactive substance to identify hot spots of WBC's within the client's body.
Gallium scan
85
Radioactive gallium citrate is injected intravenously and accumulates in areas where _____ is present.
inflammation
86
Patient centered care involves assessing the presence of risk factors for ____.
infection
87
Patient centered care involves assessing recent _____ or exposure to an infectious disease.
travel
88
Patient centered care involves assessing _____ that can put the client at increased risk.
behaviors
89
Patient centered care involves assessing increased temp, heart and respiratory rate, thirst, and _____.
anorexia
90
Patient centered care involves assessing the presence of _____, which occur when temperature is rising, and diaphoresis, which occurs when temperature is decreasing.
chills
91
Patient centered care involves assessing the presence of _______ (greater than 105.8F) which can cause brain and organ damage.
hyperpyrexia
92
Patient centered care involves implementing infection control measures which include performing frequent ______ to prevent transmission of infection to other clients.
hand hygiene
93
Patient centered care involves implementing infection control measures which include maintaining a clean _____.
environment
94
Patient centered care involves implementing infection control measures which include performing wound care measures, such as ______.
sterile dressing changes
95
Patient centered care involves implementing infection control measures which include the use of _______ (gloves, masks, gowns, goggles)
personall protective equipment/barriers
96
Patient centered care involves implementing infection control measures which include encouraging recommended ______.
immunizations
97
Patient centered care involves implementing infection control measures which include the implementation of _______ as needed.
protective precautions
98
Patient centered care involves implementing infection control measures which include encouraging adequate rest and _____.
nutrition
99
Patient centered care involves implementing infection control measures which include providing _____ activities if needed.
diversional
100
Patient centered care involves implementing infection control measures which encourageme of ____ intake or maintaining intravenous fluid replacement to prevent dehydration.
increased fluid
101
Patient centered care involves implementing infection control measures which protect and maintain the client's _____ (skin, mucous membranes)
protective barriers
102
____ protective precautions that are implemented for all clients.
standard
103
You need to use ____ precautions for C diff, herpes simplex virus, impetigo, MRSA, and VRSA.
contact
104
You need ____ precautions for Haemophilus influenzae type B (Hib), pertussis, mumps, rubella, plague, streptococcal pneumonia, and meningoccoccal pneumonia.
droplet
105
You need _____ precautions for measles, varicella, and tuberculosis.
airborne
106
Acetaminophen and aspirin are used for fever and discomfort as prescribed and known as _____.
antipyretics
107
When using antipyretics monitor fever to determine effectiveness of _____.
medications
108
When using antipyretics document temperature ______ on the medical record for trending.
fluctuations
109
______ meds kill pathogens or prevent their growth.
antimicrobial therapy
110
____ are given for worm infestations.
anthelmintics
111
There are currently no treatments for _____.
prions
112
Administer anitmicrobial therapy as ____.
prescribed
113
When using antimicrobial meds monitor for medication ______ (reduced fever, increased level of comfort, decreasing WBC count)
effectiveness
114
Maintain a medication ______ with antimicrobial therapy to assure consistent therapeutic blood levels of the antibiotic.
schedule
115
Patient education in regards to infection should include (3)
any infection control measures needed at home
self-administration of medication therapy
complications that need to be reported immediately
116
______ should receive the H. influenzae type b (Hib) vaccine.
infants
117
Adults and _______ at risk should receive the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPSV).
older adults
118
____ should receive the meningococcal vaccine on schedule and prior to living in a residential or communal setting.
adolescents
119
_____ are becoming less effective for some strains of pathogens, due to the pathogen's ability to adapt and become resistant to previously sensitive antibiotics. This significantly _____ the number of antibiotics that are effective against the pathogen.
antimicrobials
| limit
120
Use of antibiotics, especially _______ antibiotics, has significantly decreased to prevent new strains from evolving.
broad-spectrum
121
____ is a strain of S. aureus that is resistant to all antibiotics, except vancomycin.
MRSA
122
____ is a strain of S. aureus that is resistant to vancomycin but so far is sensitive to other antibiotics specific to the strain.
VRSA
123
Monitor antimicrobial levels and ensure that therapeutic levels are ____.
maintained.
124
Implement precautions to prevent the spread of _____, in particular with medication-resistant infections.
infection
125
Patient education about medication-resistant infections should include making sure they know to _____ the full course of antimicrobial therapy.
complete
126
Patient education about medication-resistant infections should include making sure they know to avoid the _____ of antimicrobials.
overuse
127
______ is a systemic inflammatory response syndrome resulting from the body's response to a serious infection, usually bacterial (peritonitis, meningitis, pneumonia, wound infections and UTIs)
sepsi
128
Sepsis is a potentially _____ complication that can lead to widespread inflammation, blood clotting, organ failure, and shock.
life-threatening
129
Blood cultures definitively diagnose _____.
sepsis
130
Systemic _____ are prescribed accordingly for sepsis.
antimicrobials
131
Vasopressors and ______ may be prescribed for shock and blood clotting manifestations with sepsis.
anticoagulants
132
Mechanical ventilation, dialysis, and other interventions can be needed for treatment of ________ with sepsis.
specific organ failure
133
Risk Factors for Sepsis
Very young age
Very old age
Weakened Immune system
sever injuries (trauma)
134
Herpes zoster is a ____ infection.
viral
135
Herpes zoster initially produces chickenpox, after which the virus lies dormant int he ______ of the sensory cranial and spinal nerves. It is reactivated as shingles later in life.
dorsal root ganglia
136
____ is usually preceded by a prodromal period of several days, during which pain, itching, tingling, or burning can occur along the involved dermatome.
shingles
137
Shingles can be very painful and _____.
debilitating
138
Risk factors for Herpes zoster (Shingles)
```
concurrent illness
stress
compromise to the immune system
fatigue
poor nutritional status
```
139
Possible _________ makes older adult clients more susceptible to herpes zoster infection. Assess the client carefully for typical and atypical indications of infections.
immunocompromise
140
Expected finding with Herpes zoster (Shingles)
paresthesia (tingling, prickling)
| pain that is unilateral and extends horizontally along a dematome
141
With ______ during a physical assessment you might find vesicular, unilateral rash (the rash and lesions occur on the skin area innervated by the infected nerve)
Herpes zoster (Shingles)
142
With ______ during a physical assessment you might find if the eye is infected there are changes or a loss of vision.
Herpes zoster (Shingles)
143
With ______ during a physical assessment you might find rash that is erythematous, vesicular, pustular, or _____ (depending on the stage).
```
Herpes zoster (shingles)
crusting
```
144
Herpes zoster (shingles) presents in a physical exam as a rash that usually lasts _____.
several weeks
145
With Herpes zoster (shingles) there is usually a ____ fever.
low-grade
146
_____ provide a definitive diagnosis of Herpes zoster (Shingles) (but the virus grows so slowly that cultures are often of minimal diagnostic use)
cultures
147
Occasionally, and _______ assay can be done for Herpes zoster (Shingles)
immunofluorescence
148
For a patient with Herpes zoster (Shingles) you want to assess/monitor (5)
```
pain
condition of lesion
presence of fever
neurologic complications
indications of infections
```
149
Use an air mattress or _____ for pain prevention/control of affected areas for patients with Herpes zoster (Shingles)
bed cradle
150
With ______ you need to isolate the client until the vesicles have crusted over.
Herpes zoster (Shingles)
151
With ______ you need to maintain strict wound care precautions.
Herpes zoster (Shingles)
152
With Herpes zoster (Shingles) the virus can be transmitted through _____ causing chickenpox. Avoid exposing the client to infants, pregnant women who have not had chickenpox, and clients who are immunocompromised.
direct contact
153
Moisten dressings with cool tap water or 5% aluminum acetate (Burow's solution) and apply to the affected skin for ___ to ___ , four to six times per day as prescribed for patient's with Herpes zoster (Shingles).
30 to 60 minutes
154
With Herpes zoster (Shingles) use _____, such as calamine lotion, or recommend oatmeal baths to help relieve itching and discomfort.
lotions
155
For patients with Herpes zoster (Shingles) administer _____ as prescribed.
medications
156
_____ (NSAIDs, narcotics) enhance client comfort.
Analgesics
157
If medications are started soon after the rash appears with Herpes zoster, ______, such as acyclovir, can decrease the severity of the infection and shorten and clinical course.
antiviral agents
158
Recommend zoster vaccine live for clients _______ to prevent shingles. This vaccine does not treat active shingles infections.
60 and older
159
Postherpetic neuralgia is a complication of Herpes zoster that is characterized by pain that persists for longer than ____ following the resolution of the vesicular rash.
1 month
160
Postherpetic neuralgia is a complication of Herpes zoster which a physician may prescribe _______.
tricyclic antidepressants
161
Postherpetic neuralgia is a complication of Herpes zoster that is common in adults older than _____.
60
