basics, anemias, coagulation Flashcards

(36 cards)

1
Q

human HSC surface markers

A

Lin- Kit+ CD34+

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2
Q

cyclic neutropenia mutation

A
  • inherited mutation in neutrophil elastase
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3
Q

____ Tpo stimulates platelet production.

A
  • high
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4
Q

blood cell development takes place ____.

A
  • near endosteum and near vascular spaces
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5
Q

Epo clinical use

A
  • anemia of chronic kidney failure

- chemo-induced anemia

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6
Q

Tpo clinical use

A
  • ITP

- chemo-induced thrombocytopenia

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7
Q

G-CSF clinical use

A
  • chemo-induced neutropenia

- aplastic anemia

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8
Q

CM-CSF clinical use

A
  • chemo-induced neutropenia
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9
Q

cytopenia should prompt ____.

A
  • a bone marrow biopsy
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10
Q

active bone marrow in adults

A
  • spine, pelvis, sternum, ribs, skull
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11
Q

bone marrow aspiration uses

A
  • morphology
  • differential count
  • histochemical stain
  • cytogenetic
  • flow cytometry
  • culture
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12
Q

bone marrow core biopsy uses

A
  • cellularity/architecture
  • IHC staining
  • abnormal cell population and pattern
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13
Q

normal myeloid: erythroid ratio

A
  • 3:1
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14
Q

congenital aplastic anemia

A
  • fanconia anemia
  • schwachman-diamond
  • dyskeratosis congenita
  • amegakaryocytic thrombocytopenia
  • cyclic neutropenia
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15
Q

acquired aplastic anemia

A
  • unknown
  • radiation
  • toxins/chemicals
  • drugs
  • autoimmune disease
  • lymphoid malignancy
  • pregnancy
  • virus
  • PNH
  • metastatic disease to marrow
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16
Q

paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

A
  • CD55 and CD59 not expressed = compliment lysis

- flow cytometry diagnosis

17
Q

aplastic anemia is caused by:

A
  • immune mediated stem cell suppression

- stem cell damage/loss

18
Q

aplastic anemia treatment: immune suppression caused

A
  • anti-thymocyte globulin, cyclosporine A, corticosteroids
19
Q

aplastic anemia treatment: sc damage caused

A
  • stem cell transplantation with radiation and chemo can cure
20
Q

band cells

A
  • one step before mature granulocytes

- neutrophilic bands increase with acute bacterial infection

21
Q

eosinophils are associated with which cancer?

22
Q

> 5-10% basophils indicates what?

23
Q

toxic granulation

A
  • dark azurophilic granules seen with infection or G-CSF
24
Q

Dohle bodies

A
  • cytoplasmic inclusions and ribosome rich ER seen in sepsis or G-CSF use
25
Pelger-Huet anomaly
- bilobed nucleus - hereditary = benign - acquired = MDS
26
increased monocytes are seen with
- chronic infection - chronic inflammation - chronic neutropenia - neutropenia recovery - preleukemia - MPS
27
decreased monocytes are seen with
- BM failure - corticosteroids - myelosuppression
28
O2 independent killing mechanisms
- cationic proteins - lysozyme - lactoferrin - proteolytic hydrolytic enzymes
29
respiratory burst
- G6P - superoxide dismutase - myeloperoxidase - catalase - cytochrome
30
leukocytosis
- increased WBC
31
myeloperoxidase deficiency
- usually partial | - respiratory burst affected but H2O2 sufficient
32
Chediak-Higashi syndrome
- failure of phagolysosome formation - neutropenia - skin infections, giant lysosomes, albinism
33
specific granule deficiency
- absence of specific granules | - affects skin, ears, sinopulmonary
34
Hyper IgE/Job's
- defect in chemotaxis - increased IgE - recurrent skin and pulmonary infections
35
chronic granulomatous disease
- defect in respiratory burst enzyme complex (NADPH oxidase) - decreased H2O2 production - cannot kill catalase+ microbes - nitroblue-tetrazolium test is negative - x-linked - hepatosplenomegaly
36
leukemoid reaction
- increase in WBC count due to infection or disease