Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Psych 104 > Before FINAL WOO > Flashcards

Before FINAL WOO Flashcards

1
Q

Hallucinations

A

Realistic perceptual experiences in the absence of external stimuli
-any sensory modality
-quite common

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Out of body and near death experiences

A

Sense of consciousness leaving our bodies
-watching yourself do something
-very common

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Near death experiences

A

Special type of OBE reported by people who have nearly died
-tunnel of bright light, life review, being of light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Deja vu

A

Feeling of reliving an experience that is new
-declines with age
-no clear answer why

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Mystical experiences

A

Feelings of unity or oneness with the world
-wonder and awe
-unique to each person

-tied with religion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Hypnosis

A

Interpersonal situation, producing changes in consciousness in a person
-media displays as pseudoscientific

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Hypnosis begins with

A

Induction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Hypnosis is followed by

A

Suggestions
-for a person to think or do
-effectiveness depends on how suggestible a person is

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Six myths of hypnosis

A

-hypnosis produces a trance state where amazing things can happen

-hypnotic phenomena are unique

-hypnosis is a sleep like state

-hypnotized people are unaware of surroundings

-hypnotized people forget what happened during hypnosis

-hypnosis enhances memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Two main theories of hypnosis

A

-social cognitive theory
-dissociation theory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Social cognitive theory

A

People’s attitudes, beliefs, motivations and expectations about hypnosis shape response

-including ability to respond to suggestions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Dissociation theory

A

Main part of a person is hypnotized and impacted

Another part is a hidden observer, unaffected and just observes what is going on

-hypnosis bypasses sense of control we feel over our own behaviours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Psychoactive drugs

A

Influence how our brains operate
-leads to a feeling of altered conscious experience

-drug effects due to type of drug or expectations of that drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Mental sets

A

Expectations
-psychoactive drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Depressants

A

Dec activity of CNS
-initial high, followed by sleepiness and slower thinking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Example of depressants

A

Alcohol, barbiturates, quaaludes, Valium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Stimulants

A

Inc activity of CNS
-alertness, well being and energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Examples of stimulants

A

Tobacco, cocaine, amphetamines, methamphetamine, caffeine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Opiates

A

Sense of euphoria and dec pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Opiates example

A

Heroin, morphine, codeine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Psychedelics

A

Dramatically altered perception, mood and thoughts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Psychedelics example

A

Marjuana, LSD and ecstasy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Substance use disorder

A

People experience recurrent significant impairment or distress associated with one or more drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is a key feature of substance use disorders

A

Tolerance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Two types of drug dependence

A

-physical
-psychological

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Physical dependence

A

When people take the drug to avoid withdrawal symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Psychological dependence

A

When use of the drug is motivated by intense cravings
-people feel like they need to feel normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Sociocultural influences (explanations of drug use and abuse)

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Personality (explanations of drug use and abuse)

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Learning and expectations (explanations of drug use and abuse)

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Genetic influences (explanations of drug use and abuse)

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Depressants

A

Slow down CNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the most widely used and abused drug

A

Alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Small doses of alcohol

A

Lead to relaxation, elevated mood, inc talkativeness and activity
-lowered inhibitions and impaired judgment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

High doses

A

Lead to slowed thinking, impaired concentration, impairment in walking/talking and muscle coordination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Alcohol increases

A

GABA activity
-inhibitory NT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

alcohol decreases

A

Glutamate activity
-excitatory NT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

BAC < 0.5

A

Small does

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

BAC of 0.5-1.0

A

High doses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Illegal operation of a vehicle range from

A

0.05 to 0.08

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Sedative hypnotics

A

Used to treat acute anxiety and insomnia
-dangerous at high doses
-strong depressant effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Three types of sedative hypnotics

A

-barbiturates
-non barbiturates
-benzodiazepines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Stimulants

A

Stimulate CNS
-inc hear rate, respiration and blood pressure
-nicotine, cocaine, amphetamines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Nicotine

A

-addictive
-activates receptors sensitive to ACH
-stimulation, relaxation, inc alertness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Cocaine

A

-most powerful natural stimulant
-enhanced mental and physical capacity, stimulation
-dec in hunger, indifference to pain
-sense of well being then Dec fatigue

-activity of neurotransmitters dopamine and serotonin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Amphetamines

A

Reduce appetite, Dec need for sleep, reduce feelings of depression
-inc dopamine and NE activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Narcotics

A

Heroin, morphine, codeine

-severe symptoms come from using opioids regularly
-strong sens of euphoria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Opiates

A

Describe close relatives of optimum such as codeine morphine and heroine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Opioids

A

Describe entire class of drugs, including synthetic opiates such as
-oxycontin
-fentanyl
-carfentanyl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Narcotics

A

Legal term for illegal drugs that alter your state of consciousness while also inducing sleep and reliving pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Psychedelics

A

-hallucinogenic (dramatic alternations in perception, mood and thought
-LSD, mescaline, PCP, ecstasy and marijuanna

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Marijuana

A

-most frequently used illegal drug
-short term effects (time slowing down, enhanced sensations, hunger, laughter)
-higher doses effects (exaggerated emotions, altered sense of self)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

LSD and other hallucinogens

A

-come from interference with serotonin at synapse
-impacts on receptor sites for dopamine

-range from clear thoughts to dramatic hangers
-negative experiences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

MDMA ecstasy

A

-stimulant and hallucinogenic
-serotonin
-inc self confidence, well being, intense empathy for others
-inc BP, rebound depression, liver problems, memory loss, damage to neurons that rely on serotonin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Learning

A

Change in an organisms behaviours or thoughts as a result of experience

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Habituation

A

Process by which we respond less strongly over time to repeated stimuli
-reduces focus on safe things

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Sensitization

A

Inc in vigour of behaviour that can result from repeated presentations of a stimulus or arousal from extraneous stimuli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Pavlov discoveries

A

Studies digestive processes in drugs
-dogs fed in the morning when hooked to a device measuring salvia output
-after few days dogs began salivating before they could see or smell food

-discovery of classical conditioning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Classical conditioning

A

Form of learning in which a neural stimulus comes to signal the occurrence of a second stimulus that elicits an automatic response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Unconditioned stimulus (UCS)

A

Naturally elicits an automatic response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Unconditioned response (UCR)

A

Elicited by UCS, the natural response to UCS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Neutral stimulus (NS)

A

A stimulus that does not naturally or normally elicit a response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Conditioned stimulus (CS)

A

Previously neutral stimulus that now elicits a response due to pairing with the UCS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Conditioned response (CR)

A

Response that is elicited by CS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Acquisition

A

Process of learning that the CS predicts the imminent arrival of UCS
-CS grows in strength with repeated pairings
-growth represents learning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Asymptote

A

When the CR occurs with every presentation of the CS and the CR is similar in magnitude to the UCR
-no further learning occurs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Extinction

A

When a CS is presented without the US, the CS will slowly lose the ability to elicit a CR
-predictive relationship between the CS and imminent arrival of UCS is broken

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Spontaneous recovery

A

Seemingly extinct CR reappears if the CS is presented again following a delay after extinction
-CS reappears in somewhat weaker form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Renewal effect

A

When a response is extinguished in a setting different from the one in which the animal acquired it
-when restoring animal to OG setting, extinguished response reappears

-treatment of phobias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Stimulus generalization

A

-once a CS has been established similar stimuli may also produce a CR

-magnitude of CR produced by the new CS depends on its similarity to the old CS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Stimulus discrimination

A

occurs when we exhibit a less pronounced CR to CSs that differ from original CS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Higher order conditioning

A

Paring an NS with a CS and still get conditioning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Advertising

A

Paring products (NS) with attractive people having fun (UCS)
-have to be careful about latent inhibition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Fetishism

A

Sexual attraction to non living things
-arises from classical conditioning

-paring shoes (NS) with sex cues (naked people; UCS) that leads to sexual excitement
-eventually shoes (CS) leads to sexual excitement (UCR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Drug tolerance

A

Using drugs in the same location leads to conditioned compensatory responses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Conditioned compensatory responses

A

When the cue (room or environment) leads to the opposite physiological reaction as the drug that should be coming room

-drinking at bar, vs drinking at home

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

The case of little albert

A

-11 month baby, afraid of noise but liked white rats
-shown white rat paired with sound of hammer blow to a gong (evoked fear response)

-after five days of training, albert was tested with various objects to replace rat (all in which were white except blocks and sealskin coat)

-each stimulus except for blocks produced a fear reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Operant conditioning

A

Is learning controlled by the consequences of the organisms behaviour

Stimulus —> response —> outcome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Target behaviour is (classical conditioning vs operant conditioning)

A

CC: elicited automatically

OC: emitted voluntarily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Behaviour is a function of (classical conditioning vs operant conditioning)

A

Cc: stimuli that precede the behaviour

Oc: consequences that follow the behaviour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Behaviour depends primarily on (classical conditioning vs operant conditioning)

A

Cc: autonomic ns

Oc: skeletal muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Law of effect was discovered by

A

Edward thorndike

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

law of effect

A

Basis for much of operant conditioning

-if a response in the prescience of a stimulus is followed by satisfaction, the bond between stimulus and response will be stronger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

How did thorndike discover law of effect

A

Trained cats to escape a puzzle box
-hungry cats placed in the box, with food outside
-faster they get out of the box, faster they get food

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Puzzle boxes

A

-long time to escape at first
-escaped more quickly each time
-process was gradual

Showed learning was incremental, did not occur through insight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Reinforcement

A

Any outcome that strengthens the probability of a response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Positive reinforcement

A

Behaviour followed by the presentation of a stimulus and behaviour is strengthened

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Negative reinforcement

A

Behaviour is followed by the removal of stimulus and the behaviour is strengthened

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Punishment

A

Any outcome that weakens the probability of a response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Positive punishment

A

Behaviour is followed by the presentation of a stimulus and the behaviour is weakened

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Negative punishment

A

Behaviour is followed by the removal of a stimulus and the behaviour is weakened

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Presenting stimulus, increases target behaviour

A

Positive reinforcement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Presenting a stimulus, decreases target behaviour

A

Positive punishment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Removing a stimulus, decreases target behaviour

A

Negative punishment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Removing a stimulus, increases target behaviour

A

Negative reinforcement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Scolding by a pet owner, reducing a dogs habit of chewing on shoes

A

Positive punishment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Giving a gold star on homework, resulting in a student studyin more

A

Positive reinforcement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Confiscating a favourite toy, stopping a child from throwing future tantrums

A

Negative punishment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Static on phone subsides when you stand in a specific spot in your room, causing you to stand there more often

A

Negative reinforcement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Disadvantages of punishments

A

-not effective for altering behaviour in many cases
-tells what NOT to do, opposed to what they SHOULD do
-creates anxiety (interferes with future learning)
-encourage subversive behaviour
-creates model for behaviour toward others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Discriminative stimulus S^d

A

Any stimulus that signals the presence of reinforcement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Spontaneous recovery

A

Sudden re-emergence of an extinguished CR or an extinguished operant response after a delay following extinction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Stimulus generalization

A

In classical conditioning:
-elicitation of a response by stimuli similar to the original CS

In operant conditioning:
-inc probability of responding in the presence of stimuli similar to original S^d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Stimulus discrimination

A

Displaying a less pronounced response to stimuli that differ from the original CS or S^d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Schedule reinforcement

A

The response requirement that must be met to obtain reinforcement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

CRF- continous reinforcement schedules

A

Reinforce a behaviour every time it occurs
-fast learning, but labor intensive
-extinction can occur quickly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

PRF- partial intermittent reinforcement schedules

A

Only some responses are reinforced
-slower learning but less labor intensive and more resistant to extinction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Four main types of schedules

A

-fixed ratio (FR)
-variable ratio (VR)
-fixed interval (FI)
-variable interval (VI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Ratio schedules

A

Require a certain number of responses to be performed before a reinforcer is delivered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Interval schedules

A

Reinforce the first behaviour after period of time has elapsed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Fixed ratio schedule

A

Reinforcer delivered after a fixed number of responses
-pause after reinforcer delivered is common
-moderate rate of responding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Variable ratio schedule

A

Reinforcer delivered after a variable number of responses that average around a particular number
-no pauses seen
-very high rate of responding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Fixed interval schedule

A

First response after a specific period of time will lead to the delivery of a reinforcer
-responses before the interval has elapsed lead to nothing
-scalloped shaped response curve

114
Q

Variable interval schedule

A

First response after a varying unpredictable period of time has elapsed
-period of time is entered around some average but still unpredictable
-responses before interval has elapsed to nothing
-moderate rate of responding no pauses

115
Q

Variable interval schedule

A

First re

116
Q

Four main types of schedules

A

-fixed ratio
-variable ratio
-fixed interval
-variable interval

117
Q

Fixed ratio schedule

A

Stair step incline
-rapid responding
-post reinforcement pause

118
Q

Variable ratio schedule

A

Steep line
-high steady rate
-no pauses

119
Q

Fixed interval schedule

A

Long pause after reinforcement yields scalloping effect

120
Q

Variable interval schedule

A

Moderate steady rate with no pauses

121
Q

Animal training and operant conditioning

A

Much of animal training you see in zoos or other animal shows was developed through operant conditioning
-shaping by successive approximations

122
Q

Applications of operant conditioning

A

Overcoming procrastination (risk for inc physical and psychological stress)

Therapeutic uses (token economies)

123
Q

Premack principle

A

Reinforce lower probability behaviour using the opportunity to engage in a higher probability behaviour

124
Q

Combining classical and operant conditioning

A

-not always independent they work together a lot of the time
-mowers two process theory of avoidance and fear

125
Q

Two process theory

A

That fears are acquired and maintained through an interactive process of pedant and classical conditioning

126
Q

Early behaviourists

A

Didn’t believe thinking payed a role in learning

127
Q

Who was the advocate of radical behaviourism

A

BF skinner

128
Q

S O R model of learning

A

S- stimulus, O-organisms, R-response

Response depends on what this tumulus means to the animal

129
Q

Latent learning

A

Learning that is not directly observable
-knowledge is acquired and can be used later when needed

-blodgett and Tolman

130
Q

Blodgett

A

Latent learning

131
Q

Cognitive maps

A

Mental representations of spatial layouts

Eg-tolmans maze learning experiments

132
Q

Tolmans maze learning experiments

A

Rats could select a novel path after being trained in similar environment
-learning provides knowledge and expectation of what leads to what

133
Q

Observational learning

A

Learning that occurs by observing the behaviour of a model
-special for of latent learning
-direct reinforcement is not needed

134
Q

Observational learning is

A

Highly adaptive

135
Q

Observational learning and aggression

A

-children who watch an aggressive model yell at a doll imitated the behaviour latter
-more likely to escalate aggressive behaviour (hitting)

136
Q

Banduras bobo doll experiment: modelling of aggression

A
137
Q

Media violence and aggression

A

Correlation between exposure to media violence and inc aggression
-third variable problem

138
Q

Observational learning and mirror neurons

A

-cells in the prefrontal cortex become activated by specific motions
-perform AND observe the action
-very selective
Found in monkeys originally

139
Q

Insight learning

A

Kohler said some animals may learn via insight the sudden understanding of the solution to the problem

140
Q

Biology and learning

A

Biological preparedness
-premiered to learn behaviours related to survival
-contrary to natural tendencies

141
Q

Conditioned taste aversions

A

-learned
-classically conditioned related to illness or disgust
-differ from normal classical conditioning

142
Q

How does CTA differ from normal classical conditioning

A

-can be learning in single trail
-there can be long delays between CS and UCS
-very specific

143
Q

Preparedness

A

Innate tendency for an organism to more easily learn certain types of behaviours or associate certain types of events with each other

144
Q

Instinctive drift

A

Tendency of animals to return to innate behaviours following repeated reinforcement

145
Q

Sleep assisted learning

A

Idea that you can learn new material while you sleep
-audio book when asleep

Sleep can help with learning but not in this way

146
Q

Accelerated learning

A

Supposedly allow people to learn new information extremely rapidly
-expect to learn quickly
-vizualize information
-classic music
-breathing in regular rhythm

147
Q

Discovery learning

A

When students are given experimental material and asked to figure out the scientific principles on their own
-ball and ladder, now figure out gravity

148
Q

Direct instruction

A

More effective and efficient

149
Q

Paradox of memory

A

Some memories are amazing, but terrible in others
-memory illusions are common

150
Q

How is memory malleable

A

Memories are constructed from small fragments of information

151
Q

Hyperthymestic syndrome

A

People can often recall every detail of every day in perfect clarity y
-blessing and a curse

152
Q

Sensory memory

A

Brief storage system for perceptual information before it passes onto short term memory
-lasts a second
-iconic (visual) vs echoic (auditory) memory

153
Q

Photographic memory

A

Eidetic imagery is extremely rare
-hold a visual image in their mind and describe it perfectly
-due to unusually long iconic sensory memory

154
Q

Short term memory/STM

A

Retains limited amount of information for limited duration
-working memory (info we currently think about)

155
Q

Duration of STM

A

No greater than 20 seconds without control processes

156
Q

Control processes

A

Are things we can do to keep refreshing information in STM so it doesn’t degrade

157
Q

Memory loss in STM can come from two sources

A

Decay- loss of STM info due to time
Interference- new and old info create conflict that causes information to be lost

158
Q

Two types of interference

A

Proactive- old info causes problems for learning about new inter reference
Retroactive- new learning causes problems for earlier learning

159
Q

Millers magic number

A

Capacity of short term memory is 7 plus or minus 2 items

Average adults have digit span of 5 and nine

160
Q

Increasing STM capacity by

A

Chunking
-group items into larger bits

161
Q

Increasing duration

A

Rehearsal
-maintenance: simply repeating info back in its original form, effortless
-elaborative: things we need to remember by linking them together in a meaningful way, effort ful

162
Q

Levels of processing /LOP

A

That the more meaningfully we engage in material the better we remember it
-range from shallow to deep

163
Q

Long term memory/ LTM

A

Relatively enduring retention of information stored regarding our facts, experiences and skills

164
Q

LTM vs STM

A

LTM: larger capacity, longer duration, errors are generally based on mistakes related to meaning

STM: generally acoustic, mixing up information based on a similar sounding item

165
Q

Serial position effect

A

Refers to the U shaped relationship between a words position in a list, and its probability of recall

166
Q

Explicit LTM can be

A

Semantic or episodic

167
Q

Implicit LTM can be

A

Non declarative
-procedural
-priming
-conditioning
-habitation

168
Q

Explicit memory

A

Memory we are able to recall intentionally
-requires effort
-easy to verbalized

169
Q

Semantic memory

A

Knowledge about facts and our world

170
Q

Episodic memory

A

Our recollection of events in our lives

171
Q

Implicit memory

A

Memory that we do not recall intentionally and cannot verbalized when asked

172
Q

Priming

A

Ability to identify a stimulus more easily or more quickly when we have encountered it before

173
Q

Procedural memory

A

Memory for motor skills and habits

174
Q

Priming examples

A

Stem completion task: fill in the blank however you want

175
Q

Encoding

A

Translating information into a neural code so that it can be stored for later use

176
Q

Storage

A

The process by which information is maintained over time

177
Q

Retrieval

A

The recall or reconstruction of information from long term memory for use

178
Q

Method of loci

A

Memory strategy which relies on using visual mental imagery of places and putting to be remembered items in visualized space

179
Q

Peg word method

A

Strategy used to remember lists
-involved memorizing a list of items that rhyme and associating new to be remembered items with the items on the peg board

180
Q

Schema

A

Organized knowledge structure or mental model that we have stored in memory
-interpreting new situations
-reduce amount of information

181
Q

Retrieval

A

Process of getting information from our long term memory and bringing it to conscious awareness

182
Q

Relearning: ebbinghaus

A

Learning something for a second time takes less time than the first due to saved memory

183
Q

Law of distributed vs massed practice

A

Learning material over many short bursts leads to much more effective retrieval than learning in one long session

184
Q

Tip of the tongue phenomena

A

Experience of knowing we know something but cannot get the details out at the right time
-error of retrieving not encoding

185
Q

Encoding specificity

A

Phenomena where we are more likely to remember info when their is a match between conditions at study (encoding) and test (retrieval)

186
Q

Context dependent learning

A

Context dependent condition also works with auditory noise

187
Q

State dependent learning

A

Matching internal state at study and test enhances recall
-similar to how matching context between study and test enhances recall

188
Q

Engram

A

Physical trace of each memory in the brain

189
Q

Long term potentiation

A

Gradual strengthening of the connections among neurons from repetitive stimulation
-hippocampal neurons, amygdala and neocortex

190
Q

LTP demonstrates that

A

An engram does not exist
-memories are diffusely stored

191
Q

Where is memory stored

A

-hippocampus does not store memories itself, its activated to help develop neural connections in prefrontal cortex and other areas

Hippocampus —> encoding
Prefrontal cortex—> storage

192
Q

Generalized amnesia

A

Loosing all memory of their past life
-very rare
-slow recovery if at all

193
Q

Retrograde amnesia

A

Loss of information that happened in the past

194
Q

Anterograde amnesia

A

Inability to form new long term memories
-forward acting
-most common

195
Q

Most impactful for emotional memories

A

-amygdala
-hippocampus a

196
Q

Amygdala and hippocampus in memory

A

A- emotions associated with fearful events
H- recall events themselves

197
Q

Alzheimer’s disease

A

Results in memory and language loss
-cortical tissue loss in associated areas

198
Q

Infantile amnesia

A

Inability of adults to retrieve accurate memories before 2-3 years of age

-since H is only partially developed in infants

199
Q

False memories

A

Memories that are not always accurate

200
Q

flashbulb memories

A

Emotional memory that is extraordinarily vivid and detailed

201
Q

Source monitoring confusion

A

Lack of clarity about origin or a memory

202
Q

Crptomnesia

A

Failure to recognize that our ideas originated with someone else

203
Q

Misinformation effect

A

Creation of fictitious memories by proving misleading information about an event after it takes place

204
Q

Implanted memories

A

More likely to work if info is plausible and contains some truths

205
Q

Eyewitness testimony

A

Far from accurate, less likely to be accurate:
-bias or races
-talk to other witnesses
-stress

206
Q

How to combat problems with eyewitness testimony

A

Use cognitive interviewing—> procedure to interview witness that is based on what is known about memory retrieval and errors

207
Q

Discrete emotion theory

A

-small set of primary emotions rooted in biology
-emotional variety = mixing primary emotions
-emotions are shaped/adapted, associated with motor function

208
Q

Discrete emotion theory argues that emotion precedes

A

Thought

209
Q

Seven primary emotions

A

-happiness
-disgust
-fear
-sadness
-surprise
-contempt
-anger

210
Q

Secondary emotions

A

Mixture of primary emotions
-hatred (disgust and anger)
-jealousy (anger and sadness)

211
Q

Display rules

A

Societal guidelines for how and when to express emotion
-cultures differ in this

212
Q

James lange theory

A

Emotions result from interpretations of bodily reactions to stimuli
-afraid bc we are running away

213
Q

Cannon bard theory

A

Emotion provoking event leads simultaneously to an emotional and bodily reaction
-runaway and feel fear at same time

214
Q

Somatic maker theory

A

Use our gut reactions to gauge how we should act
-automatic

215
Q

Two factor theory

A

-emotions are the explanations we make of our arousal or alertness

216
Q

Discrete emotions theory probably correct in

A

Emotional reactions are shaped through evolution

217
Q

Cognitive theories probably correct that

A

Thinking influences our emotions

218
Q

Two factor theory probably correct that

A

Physiological arousal plays a key role in the intensity of our emotional reactions

219
Q

Subliminal exposure

A

Exposures below the level of awareness
-positive or negative cues to influence mood

220
Q

Mere exposure effect

A

Repeated exposure to a stimulus makes us more likely to feel positively towards it

221
Q

Facial feedback hypothesis

A

Likely to feel emotions that correspond to facial expressions
-unconscious
-due to classical conditioning

222
Q

Nonverbal leakage

A

Gives away a persons emotions, even when they are tying to hide it
-squeezed fist, tapping foot

223
Q

Illustrators

A

Gestures that highlight speech

224
Q

Manipulators

A

Gestures where one body part touches another body part

225
Q

Emblems

A

Gestures that convey conventional meanings recognized by a culture

226
Q

Proxemics

A

Study of personal space

227
Q

Public space

A

12 feet or more

228
Q

Social space

A

4-12 feet

229
Q

Personal space

A

1.5-4

230
Q

Intimate space

A

0-1.5

231
Q

When people lie
Illustrators —>
Emblems/manipulators —>

A

-decrease

-increase

232
Q

polygraph tests

A

-measure autonomic activity
-arousal = guilt
-very high false positive rate

233
Q

Pinocchio response

A

Perfect physiological or behaviour indicator of lying

234
Q

Guilty knowledge test

A

Test for concealed knowledge of items from the crime scene using questionnaires nad physiological measures

235
Q

Brain scanning techniques

A

Look at brain wave changes when lying

236
Q

truth serum

A

Barbiturates such as sodium Pentothal
-relaxes people

237
Q

Integrity tests

A

Questionnaires that assess workers tendency to steal or cheat

238
Q

Broaden and build theory

A

Happiness predisposes us to think more openly, allowing us to see the big picture we might have otherwise overlooked
-happiness=longer life

239
Q

Myths of happiness

A

-happiness depends on what happens to us
-money makes us happy
-happiness declines in old age
-North Americans are happiest

240
Q

Things associated with higher levels of happiness

A

-marriage
-friendships
-college or university
-religion
-exercise
-gratitude and giving

241
Q

Most powerful motivators

A

Food and sex

242
Q

Drive reduction theory

A

That certain drives motivate us to act in ways that minimize aversive states
-hunger, thirst, sexual frustration

-maintain homeostasis

243
Q

Yorkers Dodson law

A

Relation between arousal and performance
-better at simple tasks if we have higher arousal
-better at complex tasks if we have lower arousal

244
Q

Approach approach conflcit

A
245
Q

Avoidance avoidance conflcit

A
246
Q

Approach avoidance conflict

A
247
Q

Double approach avoidance conflcit

A
248
Q

Incentive theories

A

Propose that we are often motivated by positive goals

249
Q

Primary versus secondary needs

A

Primary —> biological necessities

Secondary —> psychological desires

250
Q

Maslows hierarchy of needs from bottom (higher need) to top

A
  1. Physiological
  2. safety
  3. Belongingness and love
  4. Esteem
  5. Cognitive
  6. Aesthetic
  7. Self actualization
251
Q

Lateral hypothalamus

A

Plays a role in intiating eating

252
Q

Ventromedial hyppthalamus

A

Seems to indicate when to stop eating

253
Q

Ghrelin

A

Hormone produced in stomach that communicates to increase hunger

254
Q

Cholecystakinin

A

Counteracts the effects of gherlin and decreases hunger

255
Q

Glucostatic theory

A

Early theory of hunger that stated it was low levels of blood glucose that causes hunger

256
Q

Lepton

A

Hormone that signals hyppthamus and brain stem to reduce appetite and increase the amount of energy used

257
Q

The set point

A

Genetically programmed value that establishes the range of body fat and muscle mass to maintain
-biological predisposition to weight?

258
Q

Unit bias

A

We tend to think of units of things as the optimal amount
-one bowl of soup is enough

259
Q

Internal external theory

A

Some people are motivated to eat more by external cues than internal cues
-explain obesity

260
Q

Bulimia nervosa

A

Individuals engage in recurrent binge eating, followed by efforts to minimize weight gain by purging

261
Q

Anaorexia nervosa

A

Individuals become emanciated in their relentless pursuit of thinness

262
Q

Libido

A

Sexual desire
-influenced by genes, biological, social/cultural factors

263
Q

High serotonin linked with

A

Lower sexual desire

264
Q

Low serotonin linked with

A

Higher sexual desire

265
Q

Sexual response cycle

A

-excitement
-plateau
-climax
-resolution

266
Q

As people age sexual

A

Activities —> decrease
Satisfaction —> does not

267
Q

Proximity

A

When near becomes dear

268
Q

Similarity

A

Like attracts like

269
Q

Reciprocity

A

All give and no take, does not a good relationship make

270
Q

Physical attraction

A

Like it or not we do judge books by their covers

271
Q

Passionate love

A

Marked by powerful, overwhelming longing for ones partner

272
Q

Companionate love

A

Marked by a sense of deep friendship and fondness of ones partner

273
Q

Sternbergs triangular theory of love

A

Description of the different types of love
-intimacy : closeness to a person
-passion : feeling enamoured with the person
-commitment : desire to be wit the person

274
Q

Liking

A

Intimacy

275
Q

Romantic love

A

Passion and intimacy

276
Q

Companionate love

A

Intimacy and commitment

277
Q

Infatuation

A

Passion

278
Q

Fatuous love

A

Passion and commitment

279
Q

Empty love

A

Commitment

280
Q

Consummate love

A

Intimacy, passion, commitment

Psych 104 (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions