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BEO160829 > BEO1060829 Ventilation and RP > Flashcards

BEO1060829 Ventilation and RP Flashcards

1
Q

The laws of _____ of _____ and _____ are applied to ventilation systems: mass flow is the same throughout the system and what goes in (supply) must come out (exhaust).

A

Conservation of Mass and Energy

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2
Q

____ Energy is energy of work.

A

Kinetic

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3
Q

____ Energy is capable of doing work.

A

Potential

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4
Q

_____ of _____ states that the total amount of energy in an isolated system remains constant, although it may change form.

A

Consevation of Energy

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5
Q

_____ (Q) is the quantity of air that passes through a given location per unit of time.

A

Airflow Volume Q = V * A

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6
Q

The airflow entering the hood of a vent system must _____ the airflow volume leaving the vent system.

A

equal

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7
Q

What are the two types of airflow?

A
  1. Natural
  2. Mechanical
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8
Q

_____ ventilation circulates air without assisst of a mechanical device.

A

Natural

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9
Q

_____ ventilation circulates air using a fan or blower.

A

Mechanical

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10
Q

What are the two types of mechanical ventilation?

A
  1. Dilution
  2. Local Exhaust
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11
Q

_____ ventilation, a form of mechanical dilution, increases the proportion of airborne contaminant. An example is A/C

A

Dilution

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12
Q

_____ _____ ventilation, a form of mechnical dilution, removes contaminants from work areas at the source of contaminant generation.

A

Local Exhaust

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13
Q

Inadequate _____ air creates pressure differentials on doors, exits, and windows, and high velocity drafts.

A

make up

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14
Q

Exhaust vent systems require _____ of exhausted air.

A

Replacement

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15
Q

_____ pressure systems “suck” air in.

A

Negative

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16
Q

_____ pressure sytems push air out.

A

Positive

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17
Q

_____ are used to create the pressure necessary to begin and maintain the airflow by creating pressure differences inside vent ducts.

A

Fans

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18
Q

Air always moves from _____ pressure to ____ pressure.

A

Greater to lesser

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19
Q

What are the three types of pressures?

A
  1. Static
  2. Velocity
  3. Total
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20
Q

_____ pressure is the potental energy of a system and is created by the fan when it sucks air from one side of the system, then delivers it to the other.

A

Static

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21
Q

Static Pressure upstream of the fan is _____.

A

Negative

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22
Q

Static Pressure downstream of the fan is _____.

A

Positive

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23
Q

_____ pressure is the kinetic energy of the system and is the pressure exerted by air in motion.

A

Velocity

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24
Q

Velocity pressure is always _____.

A

Positive

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25
Q

Total pressure will be _____ to static pressure.

A

equal

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26
Q

Air losses due to turbulence are called _____ losses.

A

Turbulence

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27
Q

_____ _____ is dynamic loss and occurs at the point at which air entering a duct is squeezed just inside the duct.

A

Vena Contracta

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28
Q

Hoods that are tapered from their openings back to the duct can _____ ____ from the vena contracta.

A

reduce losses

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29
Q

_____ losses come from the rubbing of air molecules along the sides of the duct.

A

Friction

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30
Q

There is _____ velocity pressure in the center of the duct than closer to the sides.

A

stronger

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31
Q

What are 4 major contributors to friction losses in a vent system?

A
  1. Rough duct material
  2. High air velocity
  3. Small duct diameter
  4. Long duct length
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32
Q

Friction losses _____ as air velocity _____. (more friction and turbulence)

A

increase; increase

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33
Q

A small duct with high velocity will experience ____ friction losses that a large duct wth the same velocity.

A

more

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34
Q

All losses in the system, both upstream and downstream from the fan, add up to the _____ _____ _____ in the form of static pressure at the fan.

A

total system resistance

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35
Q

The fan must develop enough _____ _____ to overcome the system resistance and also enough _____ _____ to provide the needed air flow (velocity pressure).

A

static pressure; static pressure

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36
Q

The _____ _____ of the system is what the fan must work against to provide the flow.

A

total resistance

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37
Q

_____ is a major cause of system resistance and is _____ proportional to static pressure. It is _____ proportional to velocity pressure.

A

indirectly ; directly

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38
Q

_____ _____ is the velocity of air across the plane of an inlet or outlet of the system.

A

Face velocity

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39
Q

_____ _____ is the speed of the air in the duct and the transport or conveying velocity.

A

Duct Velocity

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40
Q

_____ _____ is the speed of air at the point in front of the hood that is required to overcome opposing air currents to capture and remove contaminants from the work area.

A

Capture Velocity

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41
Q

_____ _____ is the key parameter of the ability of a vent system to control contaminants and is a measure of the quantity of air flowing through the system and is a measure of a fans capacity.

A

Airflow Volume (Q)

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42
Q

The _____ of an air stream is a one dimensional value.

A

velocity

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43
Q

The _____ is a two dimensional.

A

area

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44
Q

Air density varies with _____ and _____, so you must correct readings to standard temp and pressure.

A

temperature and pressure

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45
Q

Mass flow is the _____ throughout the system.

A

same

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46
Q

The purpose of _____ ventilation is to control airborne contaminants that may pose a threat to health.

A

dilution

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47
Q

Dilution ventilation is not to be used for substances with OEEL less than _____ ppm.

A

100 ppm

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48
Q

Air flow volume is calculated as an _____.

A

Average

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49
Q

A combination of _____ and _____ is preferred for proper air distribution and dilution.

A

supply and exhaust

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50
Q

If you are only able to implement one control, supply or exhaust, you should choose _____.

A

supply

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51
Q

_____ provides a far more directional airflow for better mixing with the contaminant.

A

Supply

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52
Q

The airflow should flow _____ the worker and _____ the source of contaminant generation.

A

past; through

53
Q

_____ pressure keeps contaminants _____ the room.

A

Negatve ; inside

54
Q

The _____ _____ _____ is the lowest concentration in percent at which a substance presents an explosion hazard.

A

Lower Explosive Limit (LEL)

55
Q

Where does the explosion danger lie?

A

Between LEL and UEL concentrations

56
Q

Above the UEL, the concentration becomes _____ _____ to explode.

A

Too rich

57
Q

It is standard practice to keep explosive contentration limits at or below _____.

A

25% of their LELs

58
Q

_____ is the max amount of a certain chemical vapor that air can hold at a given temp.

A

Saturation

59
Q

The TLV of slightly tox materials is _____.

A

>500 ppm

60
Q

The TLV of moderately toxic material is _____.

A

< or = 100 - 500 ppm

61
Q

The TLV of highly toxic material is _____.

A

< 100ppm

62
Q

When two or more hazardous substances are present, their _____ should be given consideration.

A

combined

63
Q

If effects of contaminants are _____, the air quality requred to dilute each component of the mixture to the required safe concentration is calculated and the sum of the air quantities is used as the required dilution ventilation.

A

additive

64
Q

If the effects are _____, the required dilution ventilation for each component of the mixture should be calculated and the HIGHEST cfm should be used as the dilution ventilation rate.

A

Independent

65
Q

What are some advantages to dilution ventilation?

A

* Less expensive * Less maintenance * Effectively controls small amounts * Good for small, dispersed, or mobile sources

66
Q

What are some disadvantages?

A

* Does not completely remove contaminant * Can not handle heavy particles * Requires high volume of make up air * Ineffective for spikes

67
Q

_____ exhaustion is the most efficient and economical type of industrial ventilation.

A

Local

68
Q

_____ relies on mixing contaminants, where as _____ is designed to control a substance at its source so that it never reaches a breathing zone.

A

Dilution; Exhaust

69
Q

Inadequate make up air creates _____ pressure in the room that can limit the amount of air exhausted.

A

negative

70
Q

When there is an operation that needs local exhaust, always consider an _____ first.

A

Enclosure

71
Q

_____ greatly reduce interference from cross drafts so that less air volume is required.

A

Baffles

72
Q

What is the first step in determining the correct air volume required?

A

Identify capture or in-draft velocity requirements.

73
Q

The capture velocity pertains to hoods that DO / DO NOT enclose a process?

A

DO NOT

74
Q

_____ velocity, called the minimum design duct velocity, or simply duct velocity.

A

Transport Velocity

75
Q

The velocity required depends on the _____ of the contaminant.

A

density

76
Q

More velocity increases the system resistance which increases _____ and _____ on the system.

A

wear and tear

77
Q

What are 4 general hood classes?

A
  1. Open
  2. Slot
  3. Canopy
  4. Enclosing
78
Q

_____ hoods do not need capture velocities and therefore require less air flow volumes.

A

Receiving

79
Q

Slotted hoods should have an aspect ratio of _____?

A

0.2 or less

80
Q

The distance from the hood to contaminant can not be more than ……

A

the diameter of a circle hood or diaganol of a rectangle hood.

81
Q

_____ ventilation have generally lower air volumes and the ability to control high toxicity airborne chemicals.

A

Exhaust

82
Q

What is the first step in designing an exhaust system?

A

Identification of estimated flow rates using industrial vent handbook.

83
Q

What considerations must be made when determining the feasibility of an exhaust system?

A

* Evaluate process to determine hazards

* Determine if employees will be exposed to hazards

* Determine if exhaust vent is preferred method of hazard control

84
Q

Where do you install the fan in an exhaust system?

A

Clean side of the the filter / collection device.

85
Q

What are the three types of ventilation surveys?

A
  1. Initial
  2. Baseline
  3. Routine
86
Q

An _____ test is used to evaluate the new/modified systems performance as compared to the key parameters or contract specs.This test occurs BEFORE the system is put into service.

A

initial

87
Q

When performing an initial acceptance test, what type of evalution is performed?

A

Pitot testing

88
Q

The _____ survey is performed after the system has been put into service.

A

baseline

89
Q

What is the purpose of a baseline survey of ventilation systems?

A

* ensure system is capable of controlling a hazard below OEEL

* establish baseline parameters for future routine performance tests

90
Q

The effectiveness of a vent system is confirmed through _____ ____.

A

air sampling

91
Q

_____ surveys are performed at a determined frequency to ensure the system CONTINUES to operate properly.

A

Routine Survey

92
Q

What type of test is used in a routine survey?

A

Static Pressure Test

93
Q

The results of a static pressure test must be within _____ of the baseline value.

A

10%

94
Q

For a Pitot Traverse measurement, the points must be at least _____ duct diameters downstream and _____ diameters upstream of any disturbance.

A

7.5; 2.0

95
Q

The results of a pitot traverse measurement must be within ____ of one another. If not, must use a third point.

A

10%

96
Q

The ultimate test of a vent system’s effectiveness is _____ _____.

A

Air Sampling

97
Q

Is it possible for a vent system to exhaust air at a volume less than design parameter, yet still control the contaminant of concern?

A

YES

98
Q

What is the most common cause of deficient vent systems?

A

Inadequate fresh air supply to system

99
Q

_____ is caused by industrial emissions, auto exhaust, bioaerosols, etc…

A

Infiltration

100
Q

The most important factor to any IAQ survey are _____ and _____.

A

Education and Communication

101
Q

What are the ideal IAQ ranges?

A

CO2 = 1000ppm

Relatve Humidity = 40 - 60%

Temp = 68 to 76F

102
Q

What is the most common reason for unacceptable IAQ?

A

Insuffient Fresh Air

103
Q

Where can you find the questionnaire/eval, mandatory questions, for a medical eval of RP?

A

29 CFR 1910.134

104
Q

Who determines the workers ability to use a respirator based on med evaluations?

A

PLHCP

105
Q

What do BE look for when performing a RP evaluation?

A

* Maintenance and storage practices

* Work practices

106
Q

The _____ _____ must develop a written RP plan based on BE evaluation and recommendations and have it approved by BE _____.

A

workplace supervisor annually

107
Q

What are the three types of particulate filters?

A
  1. N - not resistant to oil
  2. R - resistant to oil
  3. P - resistant to oil / oil proof
108
Q

Sedimentation Capture filters rely on gravity and are capable of filtering particles at _____.

A

> 3 micrometers

109
Q

Diffusion Capture filters are capable of filtering particles of _______.

A

<0.1 micrometers

110
Q

_____ cartridges are capable of filtering acid and organic vapors, are yellow, and use adsorption or chemisorption.

A

Chemical

111
Q

When is SCBA used?

A

IDLH

O2 deficient atmosphere

112
Q

_____-_____ air is important to a system because it is capable of eliminating pressure differentials.

A

Make - Up Air

113
Q

Where mold is a an IAQ concern, what is the most common symptom?

A

Allergic Reactions

114
Q

When dealing with HVAC systems, what are the two most common sources of airflow and/or circulation issues?

A

“stale air” caused by occupent tampering and/or an unbalanced system

115
Q

Who is the primary developer of the cartridge change out schedules?

A

BE

116
Q

What are the limitations of particulate filters?

A
  1. Breathing Rate
  2. Temp
  3. Humidity
  4. Contaminant concentration
  5. Removal capacity of purifying element
117
Q

What are the types and colors of chemical cartridges?

A
  • Black = Organic Vapors
  • White = Acid Gases
  • Green = Ammonia Gas
  • Yellow = Acid and Organic Vapors
118
Q

_____ removes organic vapors by adherence to the surface of activated carbon and will be released if heated.

A

Adsorpton

119
Q

_____ impregnated activated carbon removes specific gas / vapor molecules by the formation of bonds between molecules. Stronger than adsorption and will not release them if heated.

A

Chemisorption

120
Q

What are the 4 items that must be inspected on respiration protection devices?

A
  1. Check function
  2. Tightness of connections
  3. Condition of parts
  4. Elasticity of straps
121
Q

When respirator devices are issued to more than one employee, how often should they be cleaned and disinfected?

A

They should be cleaned and disinfected after every use, prior to use by the next individual.

122
Q

Grade D breathing are for SCBA must meet the following 5 criteria:

A
  1. 19.5 - 23.5% O2
  2. <5 mg/m3 Condensed Hydrocarbons
  3. <10 ppm CO
  4. <1000 ppm CO2
  5. Lack of Odor
123
Q

What are 5 criteria for selection of respiratory protection?

A
  1. Oxygen content
  2. Physical properties of contaminant
  3. Airborne concentrations
  4. OEELs
  5. Exposure routes and Physiological effects
124
Q

When evaluating worker activity to determine respiratory protection, what areas must be considered?

A
  • Length of time exposed to hazard
  • Work rate - light, medium, heavy work
  • Work movements
125
Q

The _____ _____ _____ is the level of respiratory protection that a properly functioning respirator or class of respirators is expected to provide to users.

A

Assigned Protection Factor (APF)

126
Q

_____ _____ _____ is the maximum atmospheric concentration of a hazardous substance from which an employee can be expected to be protected when wearing a respirator.

A

Maximum Use Concentration

127
Q

AF Form _____ is the respirator selection worksheet used to evaluate and determine the proper respirator protection.

A

AF Form 2773

128
Q
A

BEO160829 (11 decks)

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