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Flashcards in BIBLE Cardio Deck (119)
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1
Q

What is a side effect of ACEi and when are they contraindicated?

A

Dry cough

Contraindicated in Renal artery stenosis

2
Q

What is an irregularly irregular pulse associated with?

A

AF

3
Q

Dry cough and hyperkalaemia are associated with which drug?

A

ACEi

4
Q

On an ECG what is associated with tall tented T waves and wide QRS complex?

A

VT

5
Q

What is associated with a saw tooth ECG?

A

Atrial flutter

6
Q

What causes rib-notching on a CXR?

A

Coarctation of the aorta

7
Q

What can be associated with a radial-radial delay?

A

Aortic dissection/coarctation of aorta

8
Q

What is a collapsing pulse caused by?

A

Aortic regurgitation

9
Q

What causes a slow rising pulse?

A

Aortic stenosis

10
Q

Splinter haemorrhages are a sign of what?

A

Infective endocarditis

11
Q

What is associated with descend-decrescendo murmur?

A

Aortic stenosis

12
Q

What are the two organisms causing infective endocarditis?

A

Staph. Aureus (main cause)

Step. Viridans (a haemolytic)

13
Q

What causes a staph aureus infection in infective endocarditis?

A

Prosthetic valves or IV drug users

14
Q

What causes a strep viridans infection in infective endocarditis?

A

Present in the mouth after dental surgery

15
Q

What are the steps in the treatments of acute AF?

A

Treat underlying cause (MI, Pneumonia, PE, HF etc.)

Control ventricular rate

16
Q

What is the 1st line treatment in controlling ventricular rate in AF?

A

Beta blocker or Ca2+ blocker (using both is contraindicated)

17
Q

What is the 2nd line treatment in acute AF?

A

Same as 1st line but add Digoxin or Amiodarone

18
Q

What other treatment is given alongside 1st and 2nd line in acute AF?

A

Anticoagulate with Heparin

Consider cardioversion if acutely ill

19
Q

How is Chronic AF treated differently from acute AF?

A

Anticoagulate with Warfarin (long term therapy compared to verapamil)
Ventricular rate controlled the same

20
Q

What is paroxysmal AF?

A

Short spells of AF that come and go

21
Q

How is paroxysmal AF treated?

A

1st line - Beta-blocker (verapamil in young patients)
2nd Line - Amiodarone
3rd Line - Digoxin

22
Q

What is a complication of AF?

A

STROKE

23
Q

How is the risk of stroke assessed?

A

CHA2DS2 score

High risk give Warfarin!

24
Q

What type of drug is Warfarin?

A

Vitamin K antagonist

Anticoagulant

25
Q

What factors does Warfarin render inactive?

A

II, VII, IX, X

26
Q

What process does factors II, XII, IX and X undergo to become active and what enzyme is involved?

A

Gamma carboxylation

Gamma Carboxylase

27
Q

What does Heparin bind to and how does it prevent coagulation?

A

Anti-thrombin III

Increases its affinity for clotting factors to increase their rate of inactivation

28
Q

What does LMWH inhibit?

A

Xa

29
Q

What is ductus arteriosus?

A

Connection between pulmonary artery and descending aorta in foetal development to bypass the lungs

30
Q

What is indicative of a continuous machine like murmur?

A

Patent Ductus arteriosus

Connection between aorta and pulmonary artery that remains open

31
Q

What is associated with strawberry milkshake coloured blood?

A

Hyperlipidaemia

32
Q

At what dermatome level does Herpes zoster virus occur?

A

T4/T5

33
Q

What is the rate limiting enzyme in cholesterol synthesis?

A

HMG-CoA reductase

34
Q

What is the drug target for cholesterol lowering drugs?

A

HMG-CoA reductase

35
Q

What are statins competitive inhibitors of?

A

HMG-CoA reductase

36
Q

What are side effects of statins?

A

Rhabdomyolysis

Myositis

37
Q

What is associated with central abdominal pain and an expansile pulsatile mass?

A

AAA

38
Q

What investigations are done for AAA?

A

1st line USS

CT more accurate - shows anatomical relationship to renal and visceral vessels

39
Q

What medical management is taken for AAA?

A

Careful control of Hypertension
Stop smoking
Lipid lowering medication
AAA>5.5cm follow up regular USS

40
Q

How can AAA be surgically repaired?

A

Dacron or Gore-Tex graft

41
Q

What non-surgical approach can be taken to repair AAA?

A

Endovascular stent (via femoral or iliac arteries)

42
Q

What alternative approach can be taken for AAA repair?

A

Laparoscopic

43
Q

How is mean arterial blood pressure calculated?

A

Systolic + (2 x Diastolic) / 3

44
Q

What drug classes are used in anti-hypertensive treatment?

A
Diuretics 
Beta-blockers
Calcium channel antagonists 
Vasodilators 
ARB
45
Q

Give examples of diuretics used in anti-hypertensive treatment

A

Thiazide diuretics - mild - Bendrofluazide

Loop diuretics - Stronger - Furosemide

46
Q

What is the mechanism of Diuretics?

A

Promote Na+ and water secretion from the kidneys by inhibiting reabsorption in the loop of henle or distal tubule

47
Q

List some side effects of diuretics

A
Hypokalaemia 
Arrhythmias 
Hyperglycaemia 
Increased uric acid - Gout 
Impotence
48
Q

Give examples of beta-blockers used in anti-hypertensive treatment

A

Cardioselective - Atenolol

Non-selective Propanolol

49
Q

Give examples of calcium channel antagonists used in anti-hypertensive treatment

A

Dihydropyridines - Amlodipine

Rate limiting - Verapamil, diltiazem

50
Q

List some side effects of Calcium channel antagonists

A

Ankle oedema
Hypotension
Dizziness
Amlodipine better as less unwanted effects on cardiac muscle

51
Q

Give examples of vasodilator drugs used in anti-hypertensive treatment

A

Alpha blockers - Prazosin

ACEi - Lisinopril

52
Q

Give an example of an ARB used in anti-hypertensive treatment

A

Losartan

53
Q

How many classes of anti-arrhythmic drugs?

A

4

54
Q

What is the mechanism of ALL class I anti-arrhythmic drugs?

A

Block voltage-gated Na+ channels with preference to the most active ones (tachyarrhythmic areas)

55
Q

Give an example of a Class Ia drug and its mechanism

A

Disopyramide

Moderate rate of dissociation, slow rise of AP, prolonged refractory period

56
Q

Give an example of a class Ib drug and its mechanism

A

Lignocaine

Fast rate of dissociation, prevents premature beats

57
Q

Give an example of a Class Ic drug and its mechanism

A

Flecainide

Slow rate of dissociation, depress conduction

58
Q

Give an example of a class II drug and its mechanism

A

Metaprolol

Beta adrenoceptor as antagonists, decrease rate of depolarization in SA and AV nodes

59
Q

Give an example of a Class III drug and its mechanism

A

Amiodarone Target voltage-activated K+ channels, prolong AP duration, increase refractory period

60
Q

Give an example of a class IV drug and its mechanism

A

Verapamil

Target voltage-activated Ca+ channels, decrease force of contraction

61
Q

What do ALL patients with acute heart failure require?

A

Prophylactic anticoagulation with Heparin

62
Q

What is the investigation for heart failure?

A

B-type natriuretic peptides

63
Q

What is the 1st line drug management for heart failure?

A

ACEi and Beta-blocker

64
Q

What is the 2nd line drug treatment for heart failure?

A

Aldosterone antagonist

Angiotensin II receptor blocker or Hydralazine (vasodilator) in combination with a nitrate

65
Q

If symptoms of heart failure persist what treatment should be considered?

A

Cardiac resynchronization therapy or digoxin

66
Q

What drug treatment should be given for fluid overload in heart failure?

A

Diuretics

67
Q

When does acute HF normally occur?

A

Secondary to abnormal cardiac function

68
Q

How is acute HF diagnosed?

A

12 ECG
CXR
Bloods
Transthoracic echo to confirm diagnosis and possibly identify the cause

69
Q

What is the initial therapy for acute heart failure?

A

Oxygen
Diuretics (Furosemide)
Vasodilator therapy (GTN infusion)

70
Q

What support can be added if an additional response is needed in acute heat failure?

A

Inotropic support (dobutamine, phosphodiesterase inhibitors)

71
Q

What is given if the BP is low in HF?

A

Noradrenaline

72
Q

What is the drug treatment for clinical endocarditis, awaiting culture results with no suspicion of staph?

A

Penicillin + Gentamicin

73
Q

What endocarditis is associated with IV drug users, recent intravascular devices or cardiac surgery)?

A

Staphylococcal endocarditis

74
Q

How is a suspected staphylococcal endocarditis (IV drug user, recent intravascular devices or cardiac surgery) treated?

A

Vancomycin + Gentamicin

75
Q

How is Streptococcal endocarditis treated?

A

Penicillin + Gentamicin

76
Q

How is Enterococcal endocarditis treated?

A

Ampicillin/Amoxicillin + Gentamicin

77
Q

How is Staphylococcal endocarditis treated?

A

Vancomycin OR Flucloxacillin OR Benzylpenicillin + Gentamicin

78
Q

What effect does the parasympathetic nervous system have on the heart?

A

Negative chronotropic effect via the vagus nerve - Decreases heart rate (main innervation at rest too keep HR low)

79
Q

What is the receptor and target for the parasympathetic nervous system?

A

Acetylcholine Muscarinic M2 receptors in the SA node

80
Q

What effect does the parasympathetic nervous system have on the heart?

A

Negative inotropic

Reduces slope of pacemaker potential

81
Q

What is the target an receptor for the sympathetic nervous system?

A

Noradrenaline

B1 receptors

82
Q

What effect does the sympathetic nervous system have on the heart?

A

Increase the slope of the pacemaker potential
Increase rate of conduction through AV node
increase rate of myocardial relaxation

83
Q

What supplies the SA node?

A

Right Coronary Artery

84
Q

What causes the first heart sound and when does it occur?

A
Mitral + Tricuspid valve closure 
Phase 3 (isometric ventricular contraction)
85
Q

What causes the second heart sound and when does it occur?

A
Aortic + Pulmonary valve closure 
Phase 4 (ventricular ejection)
86
Q

What are the side effects of spironolactone?

A

Gynaecomastia and hyperkalaemia

87
Q

What is contained in the tetralogy of fallot?

A

Ventricular septal defect
Overriding aorta
Pulmonary stenosis
Right ventricular hypertrophy

88
Q

What is contained in the anterior branches of the thoracic aorta?

A
Bronchial 
Oesophageal 
Mediastinal 
Pericardial &
Phrenic Arteries
89
Q

What is a counter regulatory mechanism to the RAAS system?

A

ANP

90
Q

When is ANP released?

A

In response to atrial distension/hypervolemia

91
Q

What does ANP do?

A

Acts as a vasodilator and decreases renin release

92
Q

Where is the carotid sinus found?

A

Proximal part of internal carotid artery

93
Q

What is the carotid sinus innervated by?

A

Glossopharyngeal nerve

94
Q

What is the role of the carotid sinus?

A

Detects stretching of the walls for BP changes

Monitors blood gas and pH

95
Q

What is the 3rd heart sound and when can it be heard?

A

Passive filling of ventricle (phase 1)
Early diastole
Physiological or HF in elderly

96
Q

What is the 4th heart sound and when can it be heard?

A

Late diastole
Active filling of stiff ventricle by atrial contraction
Pathological (usually LV hypertrophy)

97
Q

What causes normal splitting of the 2nd heart sound?

A

Inspiration (closing of the aortic and pulmonary valves)

98
Q

Give examples of orally given anticoagulants

A

Warfarin
Dabigatran
Rivaroxaban

99
Q

What type of tachycardia is broad complex?

A

Ventricular

100
Q

What type of tachycardia is Narrow complex?

A

Atrial

101
Q

How is sinus tachycardia treated?

A

Rate control with Beta-blocker

102
Q

How is stable VT treated?

A

Amiodarone

103
Q

How is unstable VT with a pulse treated?

A

Cardioversion

Anti-arrhythmic medication - Amiodarone

104
Q

How is acute VT treated?

A

Adenosine OR Calcium antagonist OR Beta-blocker

105
Q

How is Torsades de pointes treated?

A

magnesium sulphate
isoprenaline
Temporary or permanent pacing

106
Q

How is catecholaminergic polymorphic VT treated?

A

Beta-blocker then implantable defib

107
Q

What rhythms are shockable?

A

VF and pulseless VT

108
Q

What is atropine an antagonist of and when is it used?

A

Competitive antagonist of muscarinic ACh receptors (M1, M2, M3) blocks parasympathetic
Reverses bradycardia following MI

109
Q

Where is the azygous vein found?

A

Right side of the thoracic vertebra

110
Q

What causes a slate grey rash side effect?

A

Amiodarone

111
Q

Antiemetic given for gastroparesis and following an MI?

A

Metoclopramide

112
Q

What is used for immediate symptomatic relief of stable angina?

A

GTN Spray

113
Q

What dug is used in long term therapy for stable angina?

A

Isosorbide mononitrate

114
Q

What other drugs can be used in the treatment of stable angina?

A

Ivabradine
Nicorandil
Ranolazine
Statin, aspirin, ACEi

115
Q

What is the treatment of an MI (STEMI)?

A
MONA+C 
Diamorphine + Anti-emetic (Metoclopramide)
Oxygen 
Nitrates 
Aspirin
Clopidogrel 
Immediate PCI
116
Q

When should thrombolysis (streptokinase) be administered?

A

If PCI is not possible within 120 mins

117
Q

What drug therapy is given after acute care has been administered in an MI?

A
BADS
Beta-blocker (12 months)
ACEi (life long)
Dual anti-platelet therapy (Aspirin (lifelong) and clopidogrel (4 weeks post MI)
Statin (life long)
118
Q

What life style factors should be changed post MI?

A

Stop smoking
Healthier diet - less salt, reduce cholesterol
Exercise 20-30 mins a day

119
Q

What is the treatment for an NSTEMI or unstable angina?

A

MONA+C
LMWH
PCI/CABG if necessary