Bio Flashcards

(91 cards)

1
Q

What is the main focus of Wundt’s introspection?

A

Systematic experimental attempt to study the mind

Wundt’s introspection aimed to break down conscious awareness into thoughts, images, and sensations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the definition of phenotype?

A

The way genes manifest in physical characteristics

Phenotype is influenced by genetic and environmental factors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What approach did Watson create and what was its main belief?

A

Behaviourism; it believes only observable behavior can be studied scientifically

Watson rejected introspection as unscientific.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the primary focus of the cognitive approach?

A

Investigating internal mental processes

The cognitive approach uses analogies and testing to understand the mind.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What does the learning approach suggest about human behavior?

A

All behavior is learned; we are born as a ‘tabula rasa’

This view emphasizes the role of environmental factors in shaping behavior.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is classical conditioning according to Pavlov?

A

Learning through association of a neutral stimulus with an unconditioned stimulus

This results in a conditioned stimulus leading to a conditioned response.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is operant conditioning as defined by Skinner?

A

Behavior is shaped and maintained through consequences

It involves positive reinforcement, negative reinforcement, and punishment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is vicarious reinforcement in social learning theory?

A

Imitation occurs if the observed behavior is rewarded

Bandura emphasized the importance of observing others’ behaviors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the four mediational processes in Bandura’s theory?

A
  • Attention
  • Retention
  • Reproduction
  • Motivation

These processes influence whether an individual will imitate behavior.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is a schema?

A

Packages of information developed through experiences

Schemas help organize knowledge and guide behavior.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How does the information processing approach view cognitive processes?

A

As a sequence of stages

This approach is based on computer models of cognition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is cognitive neuroscience?

A

Study of brain structures and their relation to mental processes

It uses techniques like fMRI and PET scans to observe brain activity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What happens when Broca’s area is damaged?

A

It leads to speech impairment

Broca’s area is located in the frontal lobe and is crucial for language production.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are mind-mapping techniques also known as?

A

‘Brain-fingerprinting’

These techniques may assist in enhancing eyewitness testimony (EWT) accuracy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Fill in the blank: The biological approach emphasizes the role of ______ in behavior.

A

neurotransmitters

This approach examines how biological factors influence psychological processes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

True or False: The cognitive approach studies mental processes directly.

A

False

The cognitive approach studies mental processes indirectly through inferences from behavior.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the basis of thoughts, feelings, and motions according to biological psychology?

A

They have a physical basis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is neurochemistry?

A

Actions of chemicals in the brain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are neurotransmitters?

A

Brain chemicals released from synaptic vesicles across the synapse.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the genetic basis of mental disorders linked to?

A

An imbalance of neurotransmitters.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What do twin studies investigate in terms of mental disorders?

A

Concordance rates.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the expected concordance rate for monozygotic twins?

A

100%.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the expected concordance rate for dizygotic twins?

A

50%.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Define genotype.

A

Their actual genetic make-up.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Define phenotype.
The way genes are expressed through physical, behavioural or emotional characteristics.
26
What did Darwin propose about genetically determined behaviour?
It enhances survival through natural selection.
27
What are the two main functions of the nervous system?
* Collect information * Process and respond to information
28
What are the two main parts of the nervous system?
* Central nervous system (CNS) * Peripheral nervous system (PNS)
29
What does the CNS consist of?
* Brain * Spinal cord
30
What is the role of the brain in the CNS?
Centre of all conscious awareness.
31
What is the role of the spinal cord?
Passes messages along the body.
32
What are the two divisions of the peripheral nervous system?
* Autonomic (vital functions, fight/flight) * Somatic (muscle movement)
33
What hormone does the thyroid gland produce?
Thyroxine.
34
What does thyroxine control?
Heart rate.
35
What is the role of the pituitary gland?
Master gland that controls the production of other hormones.
36
What activates the fight/flight response?
Hypothalamus activates the pituitary gland.
37
What does the adrenal medulla release during a fight/flight response?
Adrenaline.
38
What physiological changes occur due to adrenaline release?
Changes that prepare the body for fight or flight.
39
What system comes back into play after a threat has passed?
Parasympathetic nervous system.
40
What is a neuron?
Nerve cells that process and transmit messages through electrical and chemical signals.
41
What do sensory neurons do?
Carry messages from PNS to the CNS.
42
What characterizes relay neurons?
Connect sensory neurons to motor and other relay neurons; short axons and short dendrites.
43
What do motor neurons connect?
CNS to effectors such as muscles.
44
What is synaptic transmission?
Process in which neurons communicate with each other by sending chemical messages.
45
What are the two types of neurotransmitters?
* Excitatory (increases positive charge) * Inhibitory (increases negative charge)
46
What is summation in terms of synaptic transmission?
If the net effect on the postsynaptic neuron is inhibitory, the neuron is less likely to fire.
47
What does MRI detect?
Changes in blood flow ## Footnote MRI works by detecting increased blood flow to active brain areas due to higher oxygen consumption.
48
What is a strength of MRI?
High spatial resolution ## Footnote MRI does not rely on radiation, making it safer for patients.
49
What is a weakness of MRI?
Poor temporal resolution ## Footnote MRI cannot provide information about causation.
50
What does EEG measure?
Brain activity via electrodes ## Footnote EEG represents brainwave patterns generated by thousands of neurons.
51
What is a strength of EEG?
High temporal resolution ## Footnote EEG is non-invasive, allowing for repeated measurements.
52
What is a weakness of EEG?
Low spatial resolution ## Footnote EEG can be uncomfortable for patients.
53
What does EVP stand for?
Event-Related Potentials ## Footnote EVPs are types of brainwaves triggered by specific events.
54
What is a strength of EVP?
Non-invasive ## Footnote EVPs are cheaper than other brain activity measurement methods.
55
What is a weakness of EVP?
Low spatial resolution ## Footnote It is not always possible to filter out unrelated brain activity.
56
What is post-mortem analysis?
Analysis of the brain following death ## Footnote It has high spatial resolution and has been vital in understanding brain structure.
57
What is a weakness of post-mortem analysis?
Lack of causation ## Footnote Ethical issues also arise from studying deceased individuals.
58
What is neural plasticity?
The ability of the brain to change and adapt its structure and processes ## Footnote This occurs as a result of experience and new learning.
59
What did Maguire's study find?
More volume of grey matter in the posterior hippocampus ## Footnote This was compared to a matched control group.
60
What is functional recovery?
The brain's ability to compensate for damaged areas ## Footnote Healthy brain areas may take over functions of damaged regions.
61
What is the first step to functional recovery?
Recruitment of homologous areas ## Footnote This involves areas similar on the opposite side of the brain.
62
What follows the recruitment of homologous areas in functional recovery?
Axonal sprouting ## Footnote This is the growth of new nerve pathways.
63
What is the last step in functional recovery?
Reformation of blood vessels ## Footnote This facilitates the growth of new neural pathways.
64
What did Taijiri et al. (2013) find regarding stem cells?
Stem cells provided to rats after brain trauma developed neuron-like cells ## Footnote This occurred in the area of injury.
65
What are the main lobes of the brain?
* Frontal * Parietal * Temporal * Occipital ## Footnote Each lobe has distinct functions related to higher order processing, sensory perception, and more.
66
What is the role of the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN)?
Governs biological rhythms ## Footnote It plays a key role in the sleep/wake cycle.
67
What do endogenous pacemakers refer to?
Internal mechanisms that regulate biological rhythms ## Footnote They include structures like the SCN.
68
What is the function of Broca's area?
Speech production ## Footnote Broca's area is located in the left hemisphere.
69
What is the function of Wernicke's area?
Language comprehension ## Footnote Wernicke's area is also located in the left hemisphere.
70
What did Phineas Gage's case demonstrate?
Localization of brain function ## Footnote Gage's injury provided insights into the role of the frontal lobe.
71
What was the outcome of Dougher et al. (2002) study on OCD patients?
30% met criteria for successful response post-surgery ## Footnote 14% showed partial response after cingulotomy.
72
What did Lashley (1950) find in his maze study with rats?
No area was more important for learning than another ## Footnote This challenged the idea of strict localization of function.
73
What does lateralisation refer to?
Each hemisphere of the brain is responsible for different functions ## Footnote For instance, Broca's and Wernicke's areas are in the left hemisphere.
74
What did Sperry's research on split-brain patients reveal?
Information presented to the right visual field can be verbally reported ## Footnote Information presented to the left cannot be verbally reported but can be identified by touch.
75
What did Gazzaniga (Luck et al. 1989) find regarding split-brain participants?
They performed better on certain tasks than connected controls ## Footnote They were faster at identifying the odd one out in arrays.
76
What did Jared Nielsen et al. (2013) discover about brain hemisphere usage?
Certain tasks utilize specific hemispheres ## Footnote There was no evidence of a dominant side influencing personality.
77
What is the primary function of the pineal gland?
Regulates sleep/wake cycles ## Footnote It produces melatonin in response to light information received from the SCN.
78
What is the role of exogenous zeitgebers?
External factors in the environment that influence biological rhythms ## Footnote Examples include light and social cues that affect the sleep/wake cycle.
79
What is the primary endogenous pacemaker for the sleep/wake cycle?
Suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) ## Footnote The SCN governs biological rhythms by receiving light information directly from Basal Ganglion Cells.
80
What chemical does the pineal gland produce during the night?
Melatonin ## Footnote Melatonin induces sleep and is inhibited during periods of wakefulness.
81
What was the key finding of Aschoff and Wever (1976)?
Circadian rhythms of participants in a bunker were between 24 and 25 hours ## Footnote All but one participant displayed a typical circadian rhythm despite lack of natural light.
82
What did Campbell and Murphy (1998) demonstrate about light?
Light may be detected by skin receptor sites ## Footnote They showed that light exposure can affect the sleep/wake cycle even when not seen by the eyes.
83
What was a significant finding from Laughton Miles et al. (1977)?
A blind man had an abnormal circadian rhythm of 24.9 hours ## Footnote His sleep/wake cycle could not be adjusted despite social cues.
84
Define ultradian rhythms.
Rhythms completed in less than 24 hours ## Footnote An example is the sleep cycle, which lasts about 90 minutes.
85
What are the stages of the sleep cycle?
Stages 1-5: * Stage 1: Light sleep (theta and alpha waves) * Stage 2: Sleep spindles (light sleep) * Stage 3: Deep sleep (delta waves) * Stage 4: Deep sleep * Stage 5: REM sleep (dreaming, body paralyzed, brain awake) ## Footnote The sleep cycle typically occurs 5 times a night.
86
What did Dement and Kleitman find in their study?
Brain waves follow a cyclic pattern of activation ## Footnote REM sleep occurs during high levels of brain activity.
87
Define infradian rhythms.
Rhythms that are completed longer than 24 hours ## Footnote Examples include the menstrual cycle and seasonal affective disorder.
88
What are the phases of the menstrual cycle?
1. Menstruation (3-7 days) 2. Follicular phase (14 days) 3. Ovulation (24 hours) 4. Luteal phase (14 days) ## Footnote Hormonal changes affect mood and physical symptoms.
89
What did Stern and McClintock (1998) find about menstrual synchrony?
68% of women experienced changes to their cycle due to pheromones ## Footnote The study involved 29 women with irregular periods and looked at exogenous zeitgebers.
90
What are confounding variables in the context of menstrual synchrony studies?
Factors that may affect changes in the menstrual cycle ## Footnote Examples include stress, diet, and exercise.
91
What did Reinberg (1967) conclude from his study in a cave?
The lack of light shortened a woman's menstrual cycle from 28 days to 25.7 days ## Footnote This suggests that exogenous zeitgebers can significantly affect endogenous pacemakers.