bio lab final Flashcards
1
Q
10 meters = _____ millimeters = ____ micrometers
A
10,000 ; 10,000,000
2
Q
50 kilograms = ____ grams = ____ micrograms
A
50,000 ; 50,000,000
3
Q
when measuring the volume of liquid in a beaker, measure at the bottom of the ___
A
meniscus
4
Q
the ____ is how close all of your measurements are
A
precision
5
Q
the ____ is the middle value of a group of measurements
A
median
6
Q
the ___ is the arithmetic average
A
mean
7
Q
the ___ is the difference between the smallest and largest value
A
range
8
Q
the ___ is how closely your measurements agree with the true measurement
A
accuracy
9
Q
select the basic metric unit for volume
A) liter
B) gallon
C) meter
D) kilogram
A
a) liter
10
Q
what is the prefix for 10^-6?
A) deci
B) micro
C) nano
D) centi
A
b) micro
11
Q
convert 8.4 grams to milligrams
A
8400 milligrams
12
Q
which is a metric unit for length?
A)nanogram
B)kilometer
C)deciliter
D)inch
A
b) kilometer
13
Q
what is the mean of ( 3, 4, 5, 6, 5, 7)?
A
5
14
Q
what is the median of ( 3, 4, 5, 6, 5, 7)?
A
5
15
Q
what is the range of ( 3, 4, 5, 6, 5, 7)?
A
4
16
Q
the size of FOV is ____ related to magnification of the microscope, as the magnification increases the FOV ___
A
inversely ; decreases
17
Q
_____ refers to the enlargement of size
A
magnification
18
Q
______ is the ability to see details
A
resolution
19
Q
___ holds the different objective lenses in place
A
nosepiece
20
Q
total magnification of a microscope with a 4x objective lense and 10x ocular lense is ___
A
40x
21
Q
which magnification gives greatest working distance?
a) 4x
b)10x
C) 40x
d)100x
A
a) 4x
22
Q
distance between the specimen and the objective lense is the _____
A
working distance
23
Q
_____ helps focus light onto the specimen
a) condenser
b)light switch
c)objective lens
d) fine focus knob
A
a) condenser
24
Q
the function of the diaphragm on the microscope is to ____
a)hold objective lens
b)focus the image
c)adjust amount of light
d)adjust wavelength of light
A
c)adjust amount of light
25
an organism exhibits positive ____ when it moves towards light
phototaxis
26
amoeba move via foot-like projections called ____
pseudopods
27
the pigment ____ gives red algae their red color
phycoerythrin
28
_____ are a diverse group of single celled eukaryotic organisms
protists
29
_____ is an autotrophic colonial protist
volvox
30
chlamydomonas use ____ for locomotion
flagella
31
Paramecium have two types of nuclei called ____ and ____
micronucleus and macronucleus
32
what structures are essential for phototaxis in euglena?
flagella and stigma
33
conjugation in paramecia involves
meiosis and mitosis
34
what is a green multicellular algae?
spirogyra
35
what is a holdfast in algae?
root-like structure
36
carrageenan may be found in ____
red algae
37
scientific investigation begins with_____
observation
38
the outcome being measured in an experiment is the ____
dependent variable
39
amoeba reproduce by
binary fission
40
in scientific investigations the factor you manipulate is the____
independent variable
41
moss gametophytes have multicellular sex organs that produce _____ via mitosis. ____ are the male sex organs, while ___ are female sex organs
gametes ; antheridia ; archegonia
42
what are the two main generations in alterations of generations?
gametophyte ; sporophytes
43
moss requires ___ for pollination, while pine trees needs ____
water ; pollen
44
ferns are ____ in that one type of spores are produced
homosporous
45
what is the dominant stage in the fern life cycle?
sporophyte
46
what produces eggs in ferns?
archegonia
47
what plant bears sori?
fern
48
lands alternate between _____ stage and ___ stage
diploid sporophyte ; haploid gametophytes
49
what is a homosporous plant?
a)moss
b)maple
c)pine
d)strawberry
a)
50
spores are ____
haploid
51
antheridia are ____
male gametangia
52
name two things that apply to moss life cycle....
homospory ; oogamy
53
the dominant stage in moss is _____ while the dominant stage in ferns is ____
1n ; 2n
54
in ferns spores are produced in ___
sori
55
the gametophyte in ferns are ____ and ___
independent ; heart-shaped
56
fronds refer to ____ and rhizomes refer to ___ in ferns
leaves ; stems
57
a diploid cell may undergo mitosis and cytokinesis to form ____
two diploid cells
58
in land plants spores are produced by ___
meiosis
59
in land plants gametes are produced by ___
mitosis
60
what are the three layers in the pericarp?
exocarp ; endocarp; and mesocarp
61
____ was used to stain ___ in corn grains
iodine ; starch
62
gymnosperms bear naked seeds on ____
cones
63
monocots usually have flowers in multiples of ___, while dicots have flower multiples of ___
3 ; 4/5
64
an embryo develops from ___
fertilized egg
65
peach is a ___ fruit
simple
66
the dominant generation for a maple tree is the ____
sporophyte
67
an ovule can be found in ____ or a ____
mega strobilus ; carpel
68
which process is unique to angiosperms?
double fertilization
69
strawberries are an ____ fruit
accessory
70
the ploidies of mega/micro spores are ___
1n/1n
71
pollination in gymnosperms is mainly ____
wind
72
____ is an aggregate fruit
raspberry
73
pineapple is an example of _____ fruit
multiple
74
the leaf veins of tulips are ____
parallel
75
cnidaria generally have a sexually reproducing _____, or an asexually reproducing ____
medusa ; polyp
76
cnidaria have two germ layers and are ____
diploblastic
77
cnidarians have specialized feeding cells called ___
cnidocytes
78
obelia is a ___ hydrozoan with multiple polyps
colonial
79
the large opening where water exits the sponge is the ____
osculum
80
cnidarians are ____
radially symmetrical
81
what is the typical life cycle of Obelia?
alternating between polyp and medusa, with a dominant polyp
82
scyphozoans with tentacles hanging down are in the ____ form
medusa
83
the Portuguese man of war is a ____
hydrozoan
84
Earthworms have two types of muscles called _____ muscles and _____ muscles
circular ; longitudinal
85
earthworms intestine has an in-fold called ____
typhlosole
86
_____ studied in this lab are acoelomates
planaria
87
squids and octopuses have _______ to change color
chromatophores
88
the molluscan shell is secreted by the ____
mantle
89
all arthropods share an outer covering, _____ that supports _____ appendages, and segmented bodies
exoskeleton ; jointed
90
a hexapod has 3 body regions, ____, ____, and ____
head ; thorax; abdomen
91
planaria are ____
triploblastic
92
Planaria's auricles are loaded with ____
chemoreceptors
93
planaria exhibits ____
bilateral symmetry
94
Planaria uses tubular structure called ____ to suck in food
pharynx
95
name three specialized segments in the earthworm...
prostomium ; clitellum ; pygidium
96
are flatworms and flukes acoelomates?
yup
97
what feature of the squid is not important for its predatory lifestyle?
external shell
98
chitons use ____ to scrape algae from rocks to feed themselves
radula
99
what body feature is directly involved in reproduction?
swimmerets
100
carapace in crustaceans covers the ____ and ___
head ; thorax
101
spiders are ____
chelicerates
102
_____, _____, _____ are examples of acoelomates studied in this lab
planaria ; fluke ; tapeworm
103
a bony fish has _____ that detect vibrations
lateral lines
104
a shark has _____ vertebrae
cartilaginous
105
a perch has ____ that helps regulate buoyancy
swim bladder
106
a lamprey uses ___ for support
notochord
107
bony fish have ____ to cover their gills
operculum
108
what organism was the first to become fully terrestrial?
reptiles
109
conditioned reflex is a type of ____ learning
associative
110
habituation is a type of _____ learning
non-associative
111
taxis is a _____ response to a stimulus
directional
112
kenesis is a ____ response to a stimulus
non-directional
113
the increase in the turns of pillbugs in the dry environment is an example of:
kinesis
114
what does not require learning?
taxis
115
the decreased response to a stimulus is....
habituation
116
animal's movement towards light is ......
positive phototaxis
117
which of the following is an example of associative learning?
conditioned reflex
118
spider web spinning is an ____ behaivor
innate
119
the most common kind of color blindness is _____
red-green
120
the fluid in the small cavity in the anterior of the eyes is the ______
aqueous humor
121
an oval-shaped pigmented area near the retina is called ______
macula
122
which area of the retina has the most highly concentrated cones?
fovea
123
the outermost layer of the eyeball is called the....
sclera
124
What is the sensory relay center of the brain?
thalamus
125
______ are responsible for our vision at night
rods
126
_____ are responsible for our color vision
cones
127
the posterior cavity of eyeballs has _____ humor
vitreous
128
the blind spot has _____
blood vessels
129
this structure connects the left+right hemispheres of the brain
corpus callosum
130
____ carries blood away from the heart
arteries
131
arteries are generally ____ muscular and ___ elastic than veins of equivalent sizes
more ; more
132
three layers of tissue in the heart:
epicardium ; myocardium ; endocardium
133
cardiovascular system in sharks has __ circuit(s)
one
134
what is the most muscular chamber of the heart?
left ventricle
135
gas exchange happens in the ____
capillaries
136
cardiac muscles receive nutrients from the ____
coronary arteries
137
resting heart ratees of humans is generally in the range of ____
60-100 bpm
138
in sharks, oxygen poor blood is carried by veins back to the atrium via a thin-walled sac called____
sinus venosus
139
animals are ______
heterotrophic
140
chemical digestion relies on ____ enzymes
hydrolytic
141
food is moved through the digestive system via ______
peristalsis
142
the wall of mammalian gastrointestinal tract consists of four layers, ____, _____, _____, ____
mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, adventitia
143
the human stomach has many folds called ____
rugae
144
bile is produced in the _____
liver
145
in humans most of the digestion takes place in the ____
duodnem
146
the submucosa is enriched with _____
blood vessels, and lymph vessels
147
the mammalian small intestine has the following sections....
duodenum, jejunum, ileum
148
Which of the following is the correct metric unit to measure the volume of a liquid in biological experiments?
A) Kilogram (kg)
B) Liter
C) Meter
D) Celsius (°C)
B) Liter
149
How many milliliters (mL) are in 2.5 liters (L)?
A) 250 mL
B) 25 mL
C) 2500 mL
D) 0.25 mL
C) 2500 mL
150
Given the dataset: 2, 4, 6, 8, 10. What is the median of this dataset?
A) 4
B) 5
C) 6
D) 7
C) 6
151
If a dataset has values of 2, 4, 6, 8, and 10, what is the range of the data?
A) 2
B) 4
C) 8
D) 10
C) 8
152
What is the difference between precision and accuracy in biological measurements?
A) Precision refers to how close measurements are to the true value, while accuracy refers to how consistent repeated measurements are.
B) Precision refers to how consistent repeated measurements are, while accuracy refers to how close measurements are to the true value.
C) Precision and accuracy mean the same thing.
D) Precision refers to the number of decimal places in a measurement, while accuracy refers to how close measurements are to the true value.
B) Precision refers to how consistent repeated measurements are, while accuracy refers to how close measurements are to the true value.
153
Which of the following microscope components is responsible for adjusting the light intensity on a compound microscope?
A) Ocular lens
B) Iris diaphragm
C) Coarse focus adjustment
D) Condenser
B) Iris diaphragm
154
What is the primary function of the condenser in a compound microscope?
A) To adjust the brightness of the image
B) To concentrate light onto the specimen
C) To change the magnification of the specimen
D) To focus the image on the ocular lens
B) To concentrate light onto the specimen
155
If the specimen is moved to the right or left under a compound microscope, how does the image appear to move?
A) The image moves up
B) The image moves down
C) The image moves right
D) The image moves in the opposite direction (left or right) of the specimen's movement
D) The image moves in the opposite direction (left or right) of the specimen's movement
156
What happens to the brightness of the image when switching from a lower-power objective to a higher-power objective on a compound microscope?
A) The brightness increases
B) The brightness decreases
C) The brightness stays the same
D) The brightness fluctuates randomly
B) The brightness decreases
157
Which of the following provides a larger field of view under a compound microscope?
A) 4X objective
B) 40X objective
C) Both provide the same field of view
D) Neither provides a field of view
A) 4X objective
158
What role do protists play in the environment?
A) They are important decomposers in ecosystems.
B) They are a major source of oxygen production in oceans.
C) They can cause diseases in humans, such as malaria.
D) All of the above
D) All of the above
159
Which of the following protists have a stigma, and what is its function?
A) Amoeba; helps in capturing food
B) Paramecium; aids in movement
C) Euglena; helps in detecting light for phototaxis
D) Spirogyra; assists in conjugation
C) Euglena; helps in detecting light for phototaxis
160
What occurs during conjugation in Spirogyra?
A) Two cells divide to form new cells.
B) Two cells exchange genetic material to increase genetic diversity.
C) One cell splits into multiple smaller cells.
D) One cell engulfs another to form a larger cell.
B) Two cells exchange genetic material to increase genetic diversity.
161
Why do protists like Amoeba and Paramecium accumulate excess water, and how do they remove it?
A) They absorb water for movement; they expel it through the contractile vacuole.
B) They store water for photosynthesis; they expel it through diffusion.
C) They accumulate water for reproduction; they expel it through osmosis.
D) They absorb water for energy; they expel it through the cell membrane.
A) They absorb water for movement; they expel it through the contractile vacuole.
162
How did Miracle-Gro affect the profile of protists in the lab?
A) It increased the number of protists by providing more nutrients.
B) It caused the protists to become larger in size.
C) It decreased the protist population due to toxicity.
D) It had no effect on the protists.
A) It increased the number of protists by providing more nutrients.
163
Which of the following correctly describes the life cycle of a moss and its adaptation to terrestrial life?
A) The moss life cycle involves the production of seeds, which help it adapt to dry environments.
B) The moss has a dominant gametophyte stage, which relies on water for fertilization, helping it adapt to moist environments.
C) The moss alternates between diploid and haploid sporophyte stages, reducing its dependence on water.
D) The moss life cycle involves a dominant sporophyte stage that can survive in dry conditions.
B) The moss has a dominant gametophyte stage, which relies on water for fertilization, helping it adapt to moist environments.
164
What is the primary difference between pollination and fertilization?
A) Pollination is the transfer of pollen from the male to female reproductive organs, while fertilization is the union of sperm and egg.
B) Pollination occurs inside the ovule, while fertilization occurs outside the ovule.
C) Pollination results in the formation of seeds, while fertilization results in the formation of pollen.
D) Fertilization is the first step in the process of seed formation, while pollination occurs after seed formation.
A) Pollination is the transfer of pollen from the male to female reproductive organs, while fertilization is the union of sperm and egg.
165
What is the primary difference between pollination and fertilization?
A) Pollination is the transfer of pollen from the male to female reproductive organs, while fertilization is the union of sperm and egg.
B) Pollination occurs inside the ovule, while fertilization occurs outside the ovule.
C) Pollination results in the formation of seeds, while fertilization results in the formation of pollen.
D) Fertilization is the first step in the process of seed formation, while pollination occurs after seed formation.
A) Pollination is the transfer of pollen from the male to female reproductive organs, while fertilization is the union of sperm and egg.
166
What is the evolutionary significance of pollen in gymnosperms and angiosperms?
A) Pollen allows for the fertilization of plants in water, supporting aquatic life cycles.
B) Pollen enables fertilization without the need for water, increasing the ability of plants to colonize terrestrial environments.
C) Pollen is responsible for the formation of seeds, allowing for faster reproduction in plants.
D) Pollen helps plants absorb nutrients from the soil, improving growth and reproduction.
B) Pollen enables fertilization without the need for water, increasing the ability of plants to colonize terrestrial environments.
167
Which of the following is an example of a dry fruit?
A) Pea pod (legume)
B) Apple (pome)
C) Orange (citrus)
D) Tomato (berry)
A) Pea pod (legume)
168
Which of the following parts of a flower is responsible for producing pollen?
A) Stigma
B) Ovary
C) Anther
D) Style
C) Anther
169
Which of the following statements correctly distinguishes the polyp form of a cnidarian from the medusa form?
A) The polyp is usually mobile, while the medusa is sessile.
B) The polyp has a cylindrical body and is usually attached to a surface, while the medusa is bell-shaped and free-swimming.
C) The medusa form is found in freshwater species, while the polyp form is found in marine species.
D) The medusa has a prominent gastrovascular cavity, while the polyp lacks this structure.
B) The polyp has a cylindrical body and is usually attached to a surface, while the medusa is bell-shaped and free-swimming.
170
What major evolutionary trend is associated with bilateral symmetry in animals, such as flatworms?
A) Increased mobility and the development of a head region
B) Decreased mobility and the ability to form colonies
C) Ability to capture and digest food externally
D) Formation of radial nerve systems and less directional movement
A) Increased mobility and the development of a head region
171
How do cnidocytes use their nematocysts in food capture and defense?
A) Nematocysts release toxins to paralyze prey and deter predators.
B) Nematocysts secrete digestive enzymes to break down food.
C) Nematocysts eject spines to capture prey, which is then digested externally.
D) Nematocysts create a mucus barrier that traps food particles in the water.
A) Nematocysts release toxins to paralyze prey and deter predators.
172
Which type of symmetry do cnidarians have, and what major evolutionary trend is associated with bilateral symmetry?
A) Cnidarians have radial symmetry, and bilateral symmetry is associated with increased mobility and directional movement.
B) Cnidarians have bilateral symmetry, and radial symmetry is associated with greater mobility.
C) Cnidarians have asymmetry, and bilateral symmetry is associated with radial nerve development.
D) Cnidarians have no symmetry, and bilateral symmetry is related to reproductive efficiency.
A) Cnidarians have radial symmetry, and bilateral symmetry is associated with increased mobility and directional movement.
173
How can you distinguish a feeding polyp from a reproductive polyp in the colonial organism Obelia?
A) Feeding polyps have larger, more muscular tentacles than reproductive polyps.
B) Reproductive polyps have specialized structures for food capture, while feeding polyps do not.
C) Feeding polyps have specialized tentacles for capturing prey, while reproductive polyps focus on producing medusa.
D) Both types of polyps look identical and cannot be distinguished.
C) Feeding polyps have specialized tentacles for capturing prey, while reproductive polyps focus on producing medusa.
174
How does the coelomic cavity of a Planaria compare to that of an earthworm?
A) Planaria have a true coelom, while earthworms have a pseudocoelom.
B) Both Planaria and earthworms have a true coelom.
C) Planaria lack a coelom, while earthworms have a true coelom.
D) Planaria and earthworms both lack a coelom.
C) Planaria lack a coelom, while earthworms have a true coelom.
175
How does the coelomic cavity of a Planaria compare to that of an earthworm?
A) Planaria have a true coelom, while earthworms have a pseudocoelom.
B) Both Planaria and earthworms have a true coelom.
C) Planaria lack a coelom, while earthworms have a true coelom.
D) Planaria and earthworms both lack a coelom.
C) Planaria lack a coelom, while earthworms have a true coelom.
176
Which of the following animals is a coelomate?
A) Tapeworm
B) Fluke
C) Roundworm
D) Earthworm
D) Earthworm
177
Which muscles in an earthworm are responsible for lengthening the segments during movement?
A) Circular muscles
B) Longitudinal muscles
C) Both circular and longitudinal muscles
D) None of the above
A) Circular muscles
178
What are the three main parts of a mollusk’s body plan?
A) Head-foot, mantle, and radula
B) Visceral mass, shell, and foot
C) Circulatory system, gills, and mantle
D) Tentacles, radula, and head
B) Visceral mass, shell, and foot
179
What are the primary functions of the exoskeleton in arthropods?
A) To provide buoyancy and aid in movement
B) To protect internal organs and prevent desiccation
C) To assist in food digestion
D) To serve as a sensory organ
B) To protect internal organs and prevent desiccation
180
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic feature shared by chordates?
A) Notochord
B) Dorsal hollow nerve cord
C) Pharyngeal slits
D) Lungs
D) Lungs
181
Which type of fish can move water over their gills without moving through the water, and what role does the operculum play?
A) Sharks, the operculum helps propel water over the gills.
B) Bony fish, the operculum acts as a cover to move water over the gills without swimming.
C) Rays, the operculum moves water from the mouth to the gills.
D) Cartilaginous fish, the operculum helps push water out of the gills.
B) Bony fish, the operculum acts as a cover to move water over the gills without swimming.
182
Which type of fish can move water over their gills without moving through the water, and what role does the operculum play?
A) Sharks, the operculum helps propel water over the gills.
B) Bony fish, the operculum acts as a cover to move water over the gills without swimming.
C) Rays, the operculum moves water from the mouth to the gills.
D) Cartilaginous fish, the operculum helps push water out of the gills.
B) Bony fish, the operculum acts as a cover to move water over the gills without swimming.
183
How does the buoyancy of an air bladder affect the movement of bony fish in contrast to sharks?
A) Bony fish use their air bladder to maintain buoyancy and swim horizontally, while sharks rely on their liver for buoyancy.
B) Sharks use an air bladder for buoyancy, while bony fish rely on their large fins.
C) Bony fish rely on their gills for buoyancy, while sharks do not need buoyancy control.
D) Sharks use the air bladder to help control vertical movement, while bony fish do not have such an adaptation.
A) Bony fish use their air bladder to maintain buoyancy and swim horizontally, while sharks rely on their liver for buoyancy.
184
Which of the following structures in a perch helps with buoyancy?
A) Lateral line
B) Swim bladder
C) Heart
D) Gills
B) Swim bladder
185
Which of the following is an advantage of being endothermic (having a constant internal body temperature)?
A) It allows animals to be more energy-efficient.
B) Endothermic animals can remain active in a wider range of temperatures.
C) Endothermic animals require less food to maintain body heat.
D) It reduces the need for insulation or protective layers.
B) Endothermic animals can remain active in a wider range of temperatures.
186
Which of the following is the correct definition of taxis?
A) A random movement toward or away from a stimulus.
B) A purposeful, directional movement toward or away from a stimulus.
C) A learned behavior based on environmental experiences.
D) An innate, fixed response to environmental changes.
B) A purposeful, directional movement toward or away from a stimulus.
187
How do pillbugs respond to dry and wet environments, and is this response a tactic or a kinetic response?
A) They move randomly in dry environments and toward moisture in wet environments. This is a kinetic response.
B) They move toward dry environments and away from wet environments. This is a tactic response.
C) They move randomly in both environments, which is a kinetic response.
D) They move toward moisture in wet environments and away from it in dry environments. This is a tactic response.
D) They move toward moisture in wet environments and away from it in dry environments. This is a tactic response.
188
Which of the following structures are present in the head region of a flatworm, and what are their functions?
A) Eyespot for light detection, auricles for sensing chemicals.
B) Eyespot for light detection, pharynx for digestion.
C) Mouth for feeding, auricles for balance.
D) Pharynx for feeding, eyespot for vision.
A) Eyespot for light detection, auricles for sensing chemicals.
189
Does Planaria move toward or away from light?
A) Toward light.
B) Away from light.
C) In a random direction.
D) Planaria do not respond to light.
B) Away from light.
190
How does Planaria accomplish gas exchange, given that they lack specialized gas exchange organs?
A) Through diffusion across the body surface.
B) Using a specialized respiratory system.
C) Through gills located near the pharynx.
D) Through a circulatory system.
A) Through diffusion across the body surface.
191
Which brain structure is primarily responsible for balance and coordination? A. Cerebrum
B. Cerebellum
C. Brainstem
D. Hypothalamus
B. Cerebellum
192
Why is it advantageous that we are not aware of all activities within our nervous system?
A. It allows us to process information faster.
B. It prevents sensory overload and distraction.
C. It improves our reaction time in emergencies.
D. It enhances our conscious decision-making ability.
B. It prevents sensory overload and distraction.
193
Which term describes the area of the retina responsible for sharp central vision? A. Macula
B. Fovea
C. Blind Spot
D. Retina
B. Fovea
194
What does 20/40 vision on a Snellen eye chart indicate?
A. The person sees at 40 feet what a person with normal vision sees at 20 feet.
B. The person sees at 20 feet what a person with normal vision sees at 40 feet.
C. The person has perfect vision at 20 feet.
D. The person is nearsighted.
B. The person sees at 20 feet what a person with normal vision sees at 40 feet.
195
What is the primary purpose of the visual motor experiment?
A. To measure reaction time to visual stimuli.
B. To understand the coordination between vision and motor control.
C. To test visual acuity using a Snellen chart.
D. To identify color blindness and its effects.
B. To understand the coordination between vision and motor control.
196
Which structure carries oxygenated blood from the heart to the rest of the body?
A. Coronary artery
B. Pulmonary artery
C. Aorta
D. Carotid artery
C. Aorta
197
Why is the wall of the left ventricle thicker than the wall of the right ventricle?
A. To store more blood for circulation.
B. To pump blood a shorter distance to the lungs.
C. To generate more force to pump blood through the systemic circulation.
D. To reduce blood pressure during diastole.
C. To generate more force to pump blood through the systemic circulation.
198
What is the purpose of arteries in appendages being buried deeper than veins?
A. To prevent blood pooling in the extremities.
B. To regulate body temperature more efficiently.
C. To protect arteries from external injuries.
D. To increase blood flow during exercise.
C. To protect arteries from external injuries.
199
What is the significance of blood passing through the liver after leaving the digestive system?
A. To regulate body temperature before distribution.
B. To detoxify harmful substances and process nutrients.
C. To oxygenate the blood before it reaches the heart.
D. To deliver nutrients directly to muscle tissue.
B. To detoxify harmful substances and process nutrients.
200
What effect does caffeine have on the heart rate of Daphnia, and why?
A. Decreases heart rate by inhibiting nerve signals.
B. Increases heart rate by stimulating the nervous system.
C. No effect, as Daphnia do not respond to caffeine.
D. Increases heart rate by reducing blood oxygen levels.
B. Increases heart rate by stimulating the nervous system.
201
Which organ is responsible for storing bile produced by the liver?
A. Stomach
B. Duodenum
C. Pancreas
D. Gall bladder
D. Gall bladder
202
How does the digestive system of a shark differ from that of a fetal pig?
A. Sharks have a spiral valve to increase nutrient absorption, while fetal pigs rely on a longer small intestine.
B. Sharks have a stomach for storing bile, while fetal pigs use their liver for this purpose.
C. Sharks have a cecum, while fetal pigs do not.
D. Sharks digest food only in the stomach, while fetal pigs digest food in the intestine.
A. Sharks have a spiral valve to increase nutrient absorption, while fetal pigs rely on a longer small intestine.
203
What is the primary function of the lower esophageal sphincter?
A. To prevent bile from entering the esophagus.
B. To regulate the passage of food from the esophagus to the stomach.
C. To aid in the digestion of carbohydrates.
D. To control the release of stomach contents into the small intestine.
B. To regulate the passage of food from the esophagus to the stomach.
204
What histological characteristic distinguishes the esophagus from the small intestine?
A. The esophagus has villi, while the small intestine does not.
B. The esophagus has stratified squamous epithelium, while the small intestine has simple columnar epithelium.
C. The esophagus has a thicker muscularis externa compared to the small intestine.
D. The esophagus has crypts of Lieberkühn, while the small intestine has none.
B. The esophagus has stratified squamous epithelium, while the small intestine has simple columnar epithelium.
205
What histological characteristic distinguishes the esophagus from the small intestine?
A. The esophagus has villi, while the small intestine does not.
B. The esophagus has stratified squamous epithelium, while the small intestine has simple columnar epithelium.
C. The esophagus has a thicker muscularis externa compared to the small intestine.
D. The esophagus has crypts of Lieberkühn, while the small intestine has none.
B. The esophagus has stratified squamous epithelium, while the small intestine has simple columnar epithelium.
206
Why does food pass through the duodenum immediately after leaving the stomach?
A. To be filtered by the liver before absorption.
B. To neutralize stomach acid and begin nutrient absorption.
C. To mix with bile stored in the pancreas.
D. To be stored temporarily before entering the small intestine.
B. To neutralize stomach acid and begin nutrient absorption.
