Biochemistry Flashcards

(47 cards)

1
Q

Dihydroorate dehydrogenase is involved in addition of _______ to _______ and blocked by _________

A

Dihydroorate dehydrogenase is involved in addition of Aspartate to Carbamoyl phosphate and blocked by Leflunomide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What converts dUMP to dTMP and what inhibits this enzyme?

A

Thymidylate synthase

Inhibited by 5-FU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the function of HGPRT?

A

Purine salvage - converts hypoxanthine to IMP and guanine to GMP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What happens with a deficiency of HGPRT?

A

Lesch-Nyhan syndrome - results in excess uric acid production and de novo purine synthesis

Hyperuricemia
Gout
Pissed off (self mutilation)
Retardation
dysTonia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What amino acids are necessary for purine synthesis?

A

Glycine
Aspartate
Glutamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which amino acids are encoded by only 1 codon?

A

Methionine (AUG) and tryptophan (UGG)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Origin of replication is single in ______ but multiple in ________

A

Origin of replication is single in prokaryotes but multiple in eukaryotes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the difference between DNA polymerase I and III?

A

III: Leading strand and lagging strand; 5’ to 3’ synthesis and 3’-5’ proofreading
I: Degrades RNA primer and replaces it with DNA - excises RNA primer with 5’-3’ exonuclease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Duchenne Muscular dystrophy is due to a _______ mutation

Sickle cell disease is due to a ________ mutation

A

Duchenne Muscular dystrophy is due to a frameshift mutation

Sickle cell disease is due to a missense mutation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

RNA polymerase I makes _RNA
RNA polymerase II makes _RNA
RNA polymerase III makes _RNA

Which is inhibited by amanita phalloides?

A

1: rRNA
II: mRNA - Inhibited by Amanita Phalloides
III: tRNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is responsible for quality control after mRNA is transported out of the nucleus?

A

P-bodies - contain exonucleases, decapping enzymes, and microRNAs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Antibodies to snRNPs are highly specific for ___

A

SLE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the function of the following parts of tRNA
T-arm:
D-arm:
3’CCA end:

A

T-arm: necessary for tRNA ribosome binding
D-arm: Necessary for tRNA recognition by correct aminoacyl tRNA synethetase
3’CCA end: Amino acid acceptor site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What catalyzes the binding of amino acid to tRNA?

What happens if it is malfunctioning?

A

Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase

A mischarged tRNA reads usual codon but inserts wrong amino acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the functions of ATP and GTP in protein synthesis?

A

ATP - tRNA activation

GTP - tRNA gripping and going places - translocation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

RER is for protein secretion and addition of _______ to many proteins

Where is RER abundant?

A

N-linked oligosaccharide

RER is abundant in mucus-secreting goblet cells of the small intestine and antibody-secreting plasma cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

SER is the site of steroid synthesis and ________ of _______

Where is it found?

A

Detoxification of drugs and proteins

Liver hepatocytes and steroid hormone producing cells of adrenal cortex and gonads are rich in SER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
What is the function of the following Golgi associated proteins...
Signal recognition particle (SRP):
COPI:
COPII:
Clathrin:
A

Signal recognition particle (SRP): traffics proteins from ribosome to RER
COPI: Golgi to Golgi (retrograde) and Golgi to ER
COPII: Golgie eto Golgi (anterograde) and ER to Golgi
Clathrin: trans-Golgi to lysosomes or plasma membrane to endosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What parts of collagen synthesis occur inside fibroblasts?

A

1) Synthesis (Gly-X-Y)
2) Hydroxylation of proline and lysine residues
3) Glycosylation of pro-alpha chain hydroxylysine residues and formation of pro-collagen (hydrogen and disulfide bonds)
4) Exocytosis

20
Q

What parts of collagen synthesis occur outside of fibroblasts?

A

5) Cleavage of disulfide-rich terminal regions of procollagen transforming it into insoluble tropocollagen
6) Reinforcement of staggered tropocollagen molecules by covalent lysine-hydroxylysine cross-linkage to make collagen fibrils

21
Q

Osteogenesis imperfecta is due to a defect in which stage of collagen synthesis?

A

Formation of triple helix

22
Q

Menkes disease is due to impaired absorption and transport of _______

23
Q

What is pleiotropy?

A

One gene contributes to multiple phenotypic effects

24
Q

What is heteroplasmy?

A

Presence of both normal and mutated mitochondrial DNA resulting in variable expression in mitochondrial inherited disease

25
Uniparental disomy: Which type indicates a meiosis I error? Which type indicates a meiosis II error?
Uniparental disomy - offspring receives 2 copies of a chromosome from 1 parent and no copies from the other parent Heterodisomy/heterozygous indicates a meiosis I error Isodisomy/homozygous indicates a meiosis II error
26
In Hardy-Weinberg population genetics, the frequency of an x-linked recessive disorder in males = __ and in females = __
``` Males = q Females = q^2 ```
27
What is imprinting?
At some loci, only one allele is active; the other is inactive (methylation) - if the active allele is deleted there is disease
28
Prader-Willi and Angelmann syndrome are due to mutation or deletion of genes on chromosome __
15
29
What are the features of Prader-Willi syndrome
``` Hyperphagia Obesity Intellectual dysability Hypogonadism Hypotonia ```
30
What are the clinical features of Angelman syndrome?
Inappropriate laughter Seizures Ataxia Severe intellectual disability
31
What are the features of hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia (AKA Osler-Weber-Rendu syndrome)?
``` Inherited disorder of blood vessels Telangiectasia Recurrent epistaxis Arteriovenous malformation GI bleeding Hematuria ```
32
What is the normal function of the chloride channel affected by cystic fibrosis?
Secretes Cl- in the lungs and GI tract and reabsorbs Cl- in sweat glands
33
What is the consequence of increased intracellular Cl- in cystic fibrosis?
Compensatory increase in Na+ reabsorption via epithelial Na+ cells leading to increased H2O reabsorption leading to abnormally thick mucus secreted into lungs and GI tract *Also increased Na+ reabsorption causes more negative transepithelial potential difference
34
A CTG trinucleotide repeat expansion in the DMPK gene causes __________ which involves an abnormal expression of ________ _________ ________
A CTG trinucleotide repeat expansion in the DMPK gene causes Myotonic Type I which involves an abnormal expression of Myotonin protein kinase
35
Fragile X syndrome is due to defect affecting the methylation and expression of the _____ gene What are the findings?
FMR1 Fragile X - eXtra large testes, jaw and ears
36
Cri-du-chat syndrome is a congenital microdeletion of the short arm of chromosome __
5
37
Williams syndrome is a congenital microdeletion of the long arm of chromosome __ which includes the ________ gene
7; elastin
38
Vitamin A prevents _________ _________ and is used to treat measles and ___ subtype M3
Vitamin A prevents squamous metaplasia and is used to treat measles and AML subtype M3
39
What TCA cycle reaction requires FAD as a cofactor?
Succinate dehydrogenase reaction
40
How does niacin treat dyslipidemia
Lowers levels of VLDL and raises levels of HDL
41
Facial flushing in Vitamin B3 deficiency is induced by ________
Prostaglandin
42
What liver products are an example of transamination reactions (which require vitamin B6)?
ALT and AST
43
What neurotransmitters require vitamin B6 for synthesis?
Serotonin, Epinephrine, Norepinephrine, Dopamine, and GABA
44
What is the function of Vitamin B9 (folate)? | What happens with B9 deficiency?
Function: Converted to THF and serves as coenzyme for 1-carbon transfer/methylation reactions Deficiency: Macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia; hypersegmented neutrophils; glossitis
45
What are the consequences of the increased NADH/NAD ratio in ethanol metabolism?
Pyruvate to lactate (lactic acidosis) Oxaloacetate to malate (prevents gluconeogenesis) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate to glycerol-3-phosphate (which combines with fatty acids to make triglycerides leading to hepatosteatosis)
46
Disulfiram inhibits acetaldehyde dehydrogenase | _________ inhibits alcohol dehydrogenase
Fomepizole (for methanol or ethylene glycol poisioning)
47
Name the following types of bacterial genetics... Ability to take up naked DNA (from cell lysis) from environment: Segment of DNA (transposon) jumps from one location to another: Lytic phage infects bacterium→ DNA packaged in viral capsid → gene transfer:
Ability to take up naked DNA (from cell lysis) from environment: Transformation Segment of DNA (transposon) jumps from one location to another: Transposition Lytic phage infects bacterium→ DNA packaged in viral capsid → gene transfer: Transduction