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Step 1 High Yield > Musculoskeletal, Skin, And Connective Tissue > Flashcards

Musculoskeletal, Skin, And Connective Tissue Flashcards

(52 cards)

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1
Q

What parts of the body have pain and stiffness in polymyalgia rheumatica?

A

Shoulders and hips

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2
Q

What disorder is associated with polymyalgia rheumatica?

A

Temporal (giant cell) Arteritis

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3
Q

What are the differences in cellular response between…
Polymyositis:
Dermatomyositis:

A

Polymyositis: CD8+ T cell response
Dermatomyositis: CD4+ T cell response

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4
Q

What are the differences in location of inflammation between…
Polymyositis:
Dermatomyositis:

A

Polymyositis: Endomysial inflammation
Dermatomyositis: Perimysial inflammation

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5
Q

What does the acronym RASHORPAIN stand for in SLE?

A 
Rash
Arthritis
Soft tissues/Serositis
Hematologic disorders
Oral/nasopharyngeal ulcers
Renal disease
Photosensitivity (Positive VDRL/RPR)
Antinuclear antibodies
Immunosuppressants
Neurologic disorders (seizures, psychosis)
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6
Q

In Myasthenia gravis there are autoantibodies to…

A

The post synaptic ACh receptor

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7
Q

Myasthenia gravis is associated with what abnormality?

A

Thymoma; thymic hyperplasia

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8
Q

Lambert Eaton myasthenic syndrome is caused by antibodies to…

A

presynaptic calcium channels (leading to decreased ACh release)

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9
Q

What type of cancer is associated with Lambert Eaton myasthenic syndrome?

A

Small cell lung cancer

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10
Q

What type of scleroderma is associated with Scl-70 (DNA topoisomerase I) antibody?

A

Diffuse scleroderma

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11
Q

What is CREST involvement in limited scleroderma?

A 
Calcinosis
Raynaud phenomenon
Esophageal dysmotility
Sclerodactyly (tightening of skin)
Telangiectasia
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12
Q

What antibody is associated with scleroderma (limited)?

A

Anticentromere antibody

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13
Q

What type of hypersensitivity is seen in allergic contact dermatitis?

A

Type IV hypersensitivity

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14
Q

What is the difference between atopic dermatitis and psoriasis in terms of location?

A

Atopic dermatitis - flexor surfaces (face and antecubital fossa)
Psoriasis - extensor surfaces

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15
Q

What changes to the cellular layers of the skin occurs in psoriasis?

A

Increased stratum spinosum

Decreased stratum granulosum

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16
Q

What is the Leser-Trelat sign

A

Associated with seborrheic keratosis - sudden appearance of multiple suborrheic keratoses indicating an underlying malignancy (GI or lymphoid)

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17
Q

What is the order from most superficial to most deep of the following infectious skin diseases?
Impetigo; Cellulitis; Necrotizing fasciitis

A

Impetigo (very superficial) > Cellulitis (dermis and subcutaneous tissues) > Necrotizing fasciitis(deeper tissue injury)

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18
Q

What disease is associated with Lichen Planus?

A

Hepatitis C

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19
Q

What are the 6 Ps of Lichen Planus?

A

Pruritic, Purple, Polygonal Planar Papules, Plaques

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20
Q

Which skin disorder is associated with a christmas tree distribution?

A

Pityriasis rosea (Herald patch)

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21
Q

What tumor marker is associated with melanoma?

22
Q

What mutation is associated with melanoma?

Study These Flashcards
A

Activating mutation in BRAF kinase

23
Q

What cranial nerve and aortic arch derivative is associated with pharyngeal arch 1?

Study These Flashcards
A

Trigeminal nerve (V2 and V3) and Maxillary artery (portion)

24
Q

What cranial nerve and aortic arch derivative is associated with pharyngeal arch 2?

Study These Flashcards
A

Facial nerve and stapedial artery (regresses)

25
What cranial nerve and aortic arch derivative is associated with pharyngeal arch 3?
Glossopharyngeal nerve and common carotid artery + proximal internal carotid artery
26
What cranial nerve and aortic arch derivative is associated with pharyngeal arch 4?
Superior laryngeal branch of vagus and true aortic arch + subclavian arteries
27
What cranial nerve and aortic arch derivative is associated with pharyngeal arch 5?
All obliterated
28
What cranial nerve and aortic arch derivative is associated with pharyngeal arch 6?
Recurrent laryngeal branch of vagus and pulmonary arteries + ductus arteriosus
29
What is the "unhappy triad" associated with lateral force applied to a planted leg
Damage to ACL, MCL, and medial meniscus (attached to MCL)
30
``` Name the functions of the following muscles Supraspinatus: Infraspinatus: Teres minor: Subscapularis: ```
Supraspinatus: abducts arm initially (before deltoid) Infraspinatus: laterally rotates arm; pitching injury Teres minor: adducts and laterally rotates arm Subscapularis: adducts and medially rotates arm
31
Traction or tear of upper trunk: | Traction or tear of lower trunk:
Upper trunk: Erb palsy (C5, C6 roots) | Lower trunk: Klumpke palsy (C8-T1) or Thoracic outlet syndrome (compression of lower trunk AND subclavian vessels)
32
What nerve is injured in the following scenarios... Fractured surgical neck of humerus or anterior dislocation: Crutches or midshaft fracture of humerus: Supracondylar fraction of humerus: Fracture of medial epicondyle of humerus:
Fractured surgical neck of humerus or anterior dislocation: Axillary nerve Crutches or midshaft fracture of humerus: Radial nerve Supracondylar fraction of humerus: Median nerve Fracture of medial epicondyle of humerus: Ulnar nerve
33
What leg nerve is likely injured in the following scenarios? Pelvic surgery: Pelvic fracture: Compression of lateral aspect of leg or fibular neck fracture: Knee trauma, baker cyst, or tarsal tunnel syndrome: Posterior hip dislocation, polio: Posterior hip dislocation:
Pelvic surgery: Obturator (L2-L4) Pelvic fracture: Femoral (L2-L4) Compression of lateral aspect of leg or fibular neck fracture: Common peroneal (L4-S2) Knee trauma, baker cyst, or tarsal tunnel syndrome: Tibial (L4-S3) Posterior hip dislocation, polio: Superior gluteal (L4-S1) Posterior hip dislocation: Inferior gluteal (L5-S2)
34
``` What are the actions of the following nerves? Obturator: Femoral: Common peroneal: Tibial: Superior gluteal: Inferior gluteal: ```
Obturator: Thigh sensation and adduction Femoral: Thigh flexion and leg extension Common peroneal (PED): Everts and dorsiflexes (foot drop if injured) Tibial (TIP): Inverts and plantarflexes (also sensation on dorsum of foot) Superior gluteal: medius and minimus - injury causes trendelenburg gait Inferior gluteal: maximus - injury causes loss of hip extension
35
What nerve and artery are injured with damage to the following structures: Distal humerus/cubital fossa: Popliteal fossa: Posterior to medial malleolus:
Distal humerus/cubital fossa: Median nerve and brachial artery Popliteal fossa: Tibial nerve and popliteal artery Posterior to medial malleolus: Tibial nerve and posterior tibial artery
36
What is released by myosin during the power stroke?
ADP and subsequently, inorganic phosphate
37
Weight training results in hypertrophy of ______ muscle fibers
fast-twitch (type 2 muscle)
38
How does "1 slow red ox" relate to type 1 muscle
Slow twitch; red fibers; increased mitochondria and myoglobin concentration (oxidative phosphorylation)
39
What is membranous ossification?
Woven bone formed directly without cartilage (bones of calvarium and facial bones) that is later remodeled to lamellar bone - not affected in achondroplasia
40
FGFR3 ______-activation decreases chondrocyte proliferation in an ________ ________ inherited condition
FGFR3 over-activation decreases chondrocyte proliferation | Autosomal dominant
41
What disorder is associated with the following descriptions? Subperiosteal thinning: Disorganized lamellar bone structure: Osteoid matrix accumulation around trabeculae: Trabecular thinning with fewer interconnections: Persistence of primary spongiosa in the medullary cavity:
Subperiosteal thinning: Osteitis fibrosa cystica (primary or secondary hyperparathyroidism - fibrous replacement of bone) Disorganized lamellar bone structure: Paget disease of the bone Osteoid matrix accumulation around trabeculae: Osteomalacia Trabecular thinning with fewer interconnections: Osteoporosis Persistence of primary spongiosa in the medullary cavity: Osteopetrosis
42
What mutation is associated with osteopetrosis?
Carbonic anhydrase II (impaired ability of osteoclast to generate acidic environment necessary for bone resorption)
43
Which bone tumors occur in the... Epiphysis: Metaphysis: Diaphysis:
Epiphysis: Giant cell tumor (soap bubble - benign) Metaphysis: Osteosarcoma (codman triangle) Diaphysis: Ewing sarcoma (early metastases); chondrosarcoma (glistening mass withing medullary cavity)
44
Which glycogen storage disease can cause gout?
Von Gierke disease
45
What are the seronegative spondyloarthropathies (HLA-B27)?
``` Psoriatic arthritis (sausage fingers) Ankylosing spondylitis (ankylosis, uveitis, and aortic regurgitation) Inflammatory bowel disease Reactive arthritis (Can't see, pee, or climb a tree) ```
46
What bacteria can cause reactive arthritis?
Shigella, Salmonella, Yersinia, Campylobacter, Chlamydia
47
What happens to ACE levels and vitamin D levels in sarcoidosis?
Both increase
48
Name the following skin lesions: Small, rough, caused by excess sun exposure: Depositions of IgA at tips of dermal papillae: Painless plaques on tongue that cannot be scraped off: Inflammatory lesions of subcutaneous fat:
Small, rough, caused by excess sun exposure: Actinic keratosis Depositions of IgA at tips of dermal papillae: Dermatitis herpetiformis Painless plaques on tongue that cannot be scraped off: Hairy leukoplakia (EBV mediated) Inflammatory lesions of subcutaneous fat: Erythema nodosum
49
What is keratocanthoma?
Variant of squamous cell carcinoma (skin) that grows rapidly and may regress spontaneously over months
50
``` Aspirin dose and function...(NOT AN NSAID) Low dose ( ```
Low dose (
51
What is derived from the 1st branchial pouch?
Mastoid air cells, middle ear cavity, eustachian tubes
52
What is derived from the second branchial pouch? Third pouch? 4th pouch?
2nd: Lining of palantine tonsil 3rd: Thymus, inferior parathyroids 4th: Superior parathyroids

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