Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MCAT > Biology > Flashcards

Biology Flashcards

1
Q

What makes primary structure of proteins?

A

peptide bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What holds secondary structure of proteins?

A

folded chains (beta sheets and alpha helix) made of hydrogen bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What holds tertiary structure of proteins?

A

3D folded, hydrogen bonds, ionic bonds, dipole, dispersion, and disulfide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What holds quarternary structure of proteins?

A

multiple peptide subunits held by disulfide bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which amino acids are important in alpha helix?

A

Proline and glycine- they destabilize alpha helix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Targets of phosphorylation

A

serine, threonine, tyrosine (Have OH nucleophile)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which amino acids can mimic phosphate groups

A

asparatic and glutamic acid (bulky, negative)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is a salt bridge?

types of bonds?

A

base and acid interact with hydrogen bonds and electrostatic interactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Apoprotein vs. haloprotein

A

apoprotein is without prosthetic group, haloprotein has prosthetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Isoelectric effect

A

pH when net charge on protein is zero, high pKa= high pH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Isoelectric focusing

A

separates protein based on difference in charge. They migrate until pH=pI (until neutral), uses a pH gradient, (-) cathode, and (+) anode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How does SDS work

A

denatures and gives uniform charge to seperate proteins by mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How does Native Page work

A

Separates proteins based on size and charge … retains structure (no denaturing)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How is BME used in SDS page?

A

Breaks down disulfide bonds, is a reducing agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Myosin

A

thick filament, muscle contraction. Uses ATP to crawl along actin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Kinesin

A

Aids movement of chromosomes and vesicles - intracellular transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Dynein

A

movement of cilia and flagella in microtubules - intracellular transport and motility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What types of cells are pluripotent vs. multipotent

A

embryonic is pleuripotent, adult is multipotent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What crosses membrane?

A

Small, non-polar molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What makes a phospholipid

A

phosphate head, glycerol backbone, and fatty acid tail

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is hydrostatic pressure

A

pressure of liquid on container, reflects volume in a space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is osmotic pressure?

A

Pressure required to prevent movement across semi-permeable membrane. Shows protein content of blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Symport

A

couple energy to move in same direction (one down gradient, other against)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Secondary active transport

A

indirectly uses energy to move

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Intercalated discs

A

In cardiac muscle, permits passage of ions between cells- allows rapid spread of action potential during contractions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Desosomes

A

connections between cells that ions/water can flow between. In the skin or intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Gap junctions

A

Tunnels between cells, allows ions/water to flow. Common in cells that use electrical coupling (cardiac, neurons)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Enzyme linked receptor

A

receptor tyrosine kinase, triggered by signals from the enviornment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Receptor tyrosine kinase

A

phosphorylates, acts as a dimer that crosslinks when ligand binds. Cross link activates other side. Regulates signal transduction and gene transcription

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Smooth ER

A

lipid production, detoxifies, metabolizes carbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Rough ER

A

protein production; exports out of cell and some modification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Golgi Apparatus

A

sorts, packages, protein modification, exports

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Peroxisome

A

lipid destruction, contains oxidative enzymes, isolate peroxide and break it down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Lysosome

A

protein destruction, acidic enviornment for enzymes (protects cells- won’t work in cytoplasm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Eukaryote vs. prokaryote

A

eukaroyotes compartmentalize, have membrane bound organelles, mitosis, nucleus. Prokaryotes divide by binary fission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Nucleolus

A

has DNA that makes rRNA. Ribosomes move through pore to cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Mitochondira

A

make ATP, outer membrane with lipid bilayer and inner membrane with cristae… inter membrane is between outer and inner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Reactions and locations of cellular respiration

A

glycolysis: 6C to 2 3C pyruvate (cytoplasm), PDH complex (pyruavte to acetyl-CoA in matrix), Krebs uses acetyl coA to make NADH, FADH2 in matrix, and ETC which uses electron carrier to make ATP in the inner membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Microtubules

A

mitotic spindle, cilia, and flagella. has 9+2 arrangement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Intermediate filaments

A

permanent, has many proteins. Aids structural support, and resists stress/ compression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Microfilaments

A

in cytoplasm, made of actin. Aids movement and cell division. Can lengthen and shorten to move cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

4 parts of cell theory

A

cell is the basic unit, cells come from pre-existing cells, all living things are composed of cells, cells have DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Protists

A

eukaryote, unicellular, have nucleus and exist in moist enviornment, Not plant/fungus/animal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Archaea

A

prokaryotes, extreme enviornments (heat, salt, gas) -different cell wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Bacteria

A

capsule, cell wall, membrane, flagella, nucleoid, pilli. NO NUCLEUS, circular dsDNA, some have plasmid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

gram positive bacteria

A

purple, has membrane and thick peptidoglycan, capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

gram negative bacteria

A

red, has inner membrane, outer membrane, thin peptidoglycan, lipopolysaccharide, capsule- More layers so purple washed off due to thin peptidoglycan and high fatty acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Bacilli

A

Rod

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Viruses

A

capsid (protein coat), and either ssDNA or RNA - no organelles, small, need host

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

bacteriorphage

A

viruses that infect bacteria, inject phage and use receptors or fuse with membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

lytic

A

take over cells machinery to make copies, form functional viruses and then lyse cell to release- FAST but kills host

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

lysogenic

A

sneaks in, combine with hosts genetic information. Repressed, then replicates with bacteria. Provirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

retrovirus

A

enveloped, use reverse trancriptase to converse RNA to DNA to integrate into host genome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

viroid

A

ss Circular RNA, infects plants. Self cleaves to reproduce

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

prions

A

infectious proteins, no genetic material- usually beta sheet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Mitosis checkpoints

A

G1/S and G2/M

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

G1 of mitosis

A

makes organelles, proteins, cyclines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

G2 of mitosis

A

makes microtubules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Zona pellucida

A

outside of egg cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What derives from endoderm

A

GI, lungs, liver, pancreas, stomach, SI, LI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What derives from mesoderm

A

skin, muscles, bone, kidney, bladder, ovaries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What derives from ectoderm

A

outer skin, sweat glands, hair, NS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

stem cells

A

self renew, can differentiate into specialized cells if embryonic, somatic SC are used for repair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

pluripotent stem cells

A

can differentiate into several types of cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

epithelial stem cells

A

can only form epithelial cells (utipotent)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

hematopoietic stem cells

A

gives rise to many types of cell but in one family (multipotent)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Asymmetric replication of stem cells

A

form mother cell (identical) and daughter cell which is differentiated and becomes more specialized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Symmetric replication of stem cells

A

form two identical cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

induced pluripotent stem cells

A

revert back into pluripotent and can replace damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Paracrine signalling

A

nearby (neurotransmitter, histamine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Endocrine signalling

A

signal to large group using blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Autocrine signalling

A

signal to site on the same cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Juxtacrine signalling

A

signals nearbycells that are in direct contact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Hayflick limit

A

how many times a cell can divide before senescence (about 60)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Capases role in apoptosis

A

activates by cytochrome C, break down proteins after aspartate in apoptosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

gray matter

A

neurons somas, deep in spine, outer of brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

white matter

A

myelinated axons, deep in brain, outer of spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

cerebellum

A

coordinates movement, position, motor plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

brain stem

A

midbrain, pons, medulla, reticular formation - neurons, autonomic, control, cognition, emotion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Corpus callosum

A

travel between hemispheres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Basal ganglia

A

motor function, cognition, emotion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Thalamus

A

sensory, higher brain function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

hypothalamus

A

controls pituatary gland, endocrine, higher functioning, makes ADH and oxytocin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Cerebral Cortex

A

gyri, sulci, fissures, frontal, parietal, temporal … has sensory, motor, and association areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Broca vs. Wernicke

A

Broca is speech production, Wernickes is word meaning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

CT scan

A

X ray to image brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

MRI

A

radio waves and magnetic field causes atoms to align and signal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

EEG

A

electro activity of brain via electrodes- shows engagement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

MEG

A

electrical currents in the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

fMRI

A

functional MRI, shows active structures, firing means more oxygenated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

PET scan

A

CAT + MRI, inject glucose, and shows active areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Autonomic NS

A

unconcious, efferent neurons control smooth, cardiac, muscle, and gland cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Dendrites

A

how information comes in, then goes to axon as graded potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Afferent neurons

A

sensory, periphery to CNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Efferent neurons

A

motor or autonomic, away from CNS to periphery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Astrocytes

A

glial cells of CNS, make scars, homeostasis, BBB, clean synapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

microglia

A

glial cells of CNS, secrete cytotoxic cells (phagocytosis) and antigen presentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

ependymal cells

A

glial cells of CNS, barrier between cerebrospinal and interstitial fluid. Helps move fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Oligodendrocytes

A

glial cells of CNS, create myelin sheath and aid exchange between cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Schwann cells

A

glial cells of PNS from neural crest, support nerve cells and create myelin- only one axon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Depolarization

A

excitatory, move towards threshold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

hyperpolarization

A

increases charge separation, more negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What creates resting potential

A

Na/K pump, leak channels, ions. Ions are attracted to + outside or - inside. chemical forces move towards lower concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Na K pump

A

2 K in, 3 Na out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Saltatory conduction

A

jumping from node to node, no smooth conduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What conducts action potential fastest

A

larger diameters (less resistance), more myelin (reduced capacitance- less ions to change potential)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

methods to remove neurotransmitters

A

diffusion, degrade via enzymes, reuptake channels, astrocytes (pump out and break down)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

How sarcolemma works with action potential

A

Action potential depolarizes sarcolemma, casuses SR to release Ca and bind troponin to make myosin move

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Smooth muscle

A

hollow organs, blood vessels, involuntary, slow, 1 nuclei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Cardiac muscle

A

involuntary, branched, 1-2 nuclei, striated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Skeletal muscle

A

voluntary, fast, straight, many nuclei, striated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Type 1 muscle fibers

A

more mitochonria, red, slow contraction and conduction, aerobic, longer contraction, stronger, store triglycerides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Type 2 muscle fibers

A

white, fast contraction and conduction, anaerobic, short contraction, easily fatigued, ATP and creatine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Autonomic NS hormones

A

sympathetic (epi, norepi) and parasympathetic (ach)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Types of bone marrow

A

red bone barrow -hematopoeisis, yellow bone marrow- fat storage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

trabecula

A

spongy bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

lacunae

A

space for bone cells, exchange nutrients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

osteons

A

compact bone, cocentric layers of lamellae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

osteoblasts

A

synthesis of collagen, proteins, form osteocytes and bone- grow and heal (less ca/ phosphate in blood)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

osteoclasts

A

in lacunae, break down, works with phosphatase (MORE CA/PHOSPHATE IN BLOOD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

What maintains bone

A

PTH, calcitrol (D) increase Ca/P in blood and decrease in bone, and calcitonin decreases Ca/P in blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Cartilage

A

form condrocytes, collagen, and elastin. Not innervated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Hyaline

A

Cartilage that reduces friction and absorbs shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

elastic Cartilage

A

shape, support

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Fibrous cartilage

A

joints, rigidity, absorb shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Tendons

A

muscle to bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

ligaments

A

bone to bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

pituatary gland

A

master gland, direct stimulation to other glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

thyroid

A

regulated by pituatary, regulates metabolism through T3 and T4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Parathyroid

A

regulates blood calcium and PTH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

adrenal medulla

A

inner, makes catecholamines (epi/nor epi) - adrenaline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

adrenal cortex

A

outer, makes steroids (cortisol and aldosterone which regulate blood volume)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Anterior pituitary

A

communicates with hypothalamus using hypophyseal portal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Hormones secreted by hypothalamus that signal pituatary

A

GnRH, CRH, TRH, GHRH, prolactin IF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

What does GnRH release cause

A

release of FSH and LH from AP, which moves to gonads

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

What does prolactin IF do

A

Release from hypothalamus stimulates no prolactin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

tropic hormones

A

FLAT- FSH, LH, ACTH, TSH- these stimulate glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Direct hormones

A

PEG- prolactin, endorphins, GH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Posterior pituitary

A

stimulates using nerves to cause release of hormones that are made in hypothalmus - ADH and oxytocin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Protein hormones

A

receptors are in or on cell surface, secondary messengers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Steroid hormones

A

from lipids, receptors in cell. Primary messengers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

tyrosine derivatives

A

thyroid, catecholamines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

insulin

A

increase glucose storage, comes from Beta cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

glycolysis

A

irreversible, glucose to ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

glycogenesis

A

formation of glycogen, reversible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

lipogenesis

A

making lipids/ fatty acids. Irreversible, long term storage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

glucagon

A

release glucose from storage, from alpha cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

gluconeogenesis

A

use amino acids to make glucose, reversible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

glucogenolysis

A

break down glycogen, reversible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Ketogenesis

A

use fatty acids to make ketone bodies- starvation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

islet of langergans

A

in pancreas. Alpha and beta cells make glucagon and insulin. Activated by calcium receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

type 1 diabetes

A

pancreas does not produce insulin properly, glucose cannot enter cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

type 2 diabetes

A

insulin receptors do not work, glucose cannot enter cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

leptin

A

satiety hormone from hypothalamus, stimulated by insulin release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

IVC

A

blood into heart from the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Aorta

A

pumps blood out of the heart to body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

3 layers of heart

A

endocardium, myocardium (contracts), pericardium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Pathway of blood

A

SVC/IVC to RA to RV to lungs and pulmonary system to LA to LV to aortic valve and aorta to body then back to SVC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Atrioventricular valves

A

tethered to walls, - triscupid (Between RA and RV), and mitral (between LA and LV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

What affects blood flow

A

length, radius, resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

chordae tendonae

A

keep the valve from flipping backwards, keeps blood moving in one direction- works with papillary muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

Interventricular septum

A

between ventricles, issues at membranous cause VSD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

How deos the heart get blood and oxygen

A

coronary vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

How does the lungs get oxygenated blood

A

bronchial vessles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

Do RBC use oxygenated blood?

A

No, they have no mitochondira so they do not use oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

Systole

A

force of blood exiting the heart and going into the arteries during contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

Diastolic

A

heart is relaxed, filling with blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

layers of blood vessel

A

tunica intima (basement membrane of endothelial cells), media (smooth muscle), and externa (collagen)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

pulmonary artery vs. veins

A

pulmonary artery carries deoxygenated blood to lungs, pulmonary veins carries oxygenated blood to LA from lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

artery

A

blood away from heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

vein

A

blood towards the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

pulmonary artery

A

deoxygenated blood to lungs

173
Q

pulmonary vein

A

oxygenated blood from lungs to heart

174
Q

What makes up plasma

A

water, proteins (albumin, antibody, fibrinogen), hormones, electrolytes, nutrients

175
Q

What makes up blood

A

Plasma, WBC, platelets, RBC, HGB

176
Q

hematocrit

A

volume of RBC/ total volume

177
Q

aveolus

A

where oxygen interfaces with blood vessels

178
Q

What aids blood clots

A

collagen, platelets, fibrin, and thrombin. Tissue factors tell when to clot

179
Q

antithrombin

A

plasmin degrades clot

180
Q

thrombin

A

facilitates fibrinogen into fibrin for blood clots

181
Q

What stimulates RBC production

A

erythropoeitin, released by kidney when oxygen is low

182
Q

Bohr effect

A

CO2 and hydrogen affects the affinity of HGB for oxygen

183
Q

Haldane effect

A

O2 affects the affinity of HGB for CO2 and hydrogen

184
Q

Universal donor vs. acceptor

A

donor is O, acceptor is AB

185
Q

Role of spleen

A

recognizes old RBC and degrades them using monocytes

186
Q

What are pluripotent hematopoietic cells

A

Can make any type of blood cell (myeloid or lymphoid)

187
Q

Myeloid

A

forms RBC, mega karyocytes, monocytes, neurtophils, basophils, eosinophils, and mast cells

188
Q

Mega karyocytes

A

make platelets

189
Q

monocytes

A

form macrophage

190
Q

mast cells

A

function in allergic reactions, make histamine

191
Q

lymphoid cells

A

form lymphocytes (B and T cells) and NK cells

192
Q

Which muscles contract during inhalation

A

external intercostal, and diaphragm - which flattens for expansion

193
Q

Elastin

A

surrounds alveoli to allow for expansion when breathing

194
Q

What receptors are used in the respiratory center

A

central chemoreceptors (CO2/pH), peripheral chemoreceptors (O2, CO2, pH), mechanoreceptors (pressure)

195
Q

respiratory center

A

uses motor nerves to control diaphragm, intercostal muscles, abdominal, and accessory muscles

196
Q

MHC-2

A

senses infections, activate helper T cells by presenting antigens at surface of cell (uses peices that were phagocytized)

197
Q

phagocytes

A

neurophils (fast), macrophage, dendritic cells

198
Q

Dendritic cells

A

antigen presenting cells, have MHC-2

199
Q

Cells of specific immunity

A

B and T cells

200
Q

B lymphocytes

A

Hummoral response, make antibodies and present on surface to mark for destruction. Bind specific antigens to be activated

201
Q

How are self responding immune responses prevented

A

B cells removes self responding antibodies from the surface so that they only respond to foreign. Kill cells that self react

202
Q

What do B lymphocytes become

A

memory or effector cells

203
Q

T lymphocytes

A

Cell mediated, helper or cytotoxic T cells

204
Q

Helper T cells

A

bind certain antigen presenting cells, (from MHC-2) activates, and proliferates to become effector or memory T cells

205
Q

Effector helper T cells

A

release cytokines and gets cell ready for immune response. Activates B cells.

206
Q

Cytotoxic T cells

A

kills other cells that are infiltrated. MHC 1, differentiates into memory and effector

207
Q

MHC-1

A

on all nucleated cells in the body, MHC presents problems in cells to cytotoxic to kill

208
Q

CD4+

A

binds MHC-1, mostly helper T

209
Q

CD8+

A

binds MHC-2, cytotoxic

210
Q

Clonal selection

A

preparing B and T cells to fight. Cells wait in lymph nodes form something to react. Select out for whats needed for response and clone

211
Q

Non specific immune response

A

phagocytes, WBC, leukocytes, inflammatory, barriers

212
Q

small intestine

A

hydrolysis and absorption

213
Q

large intestine

A

absorption (water, ions, vitamins)

214
Q

lingual lipase

A

breaks down triglycerides in mouth into free fatty acids

215
Q

alpha amylase

A

breaks down carbs to smaller carbs

216
Q

Cells of stomach

A

parietal cells, cheif cells, mucous cells

217
Q

Parietal cells

A

releases HCl

218
Q

cheif cells

A

secrete pepsinogen to degrade proteins

219
Q

mucous cells

A

secrete mucous to coat stomahc

220
Q

duodenum

A

recieves chyme, digests. has villi and bile from the liver/GB to emusify fat

221
Q

pancreas enzymes

A

trypsinogen, chymotrypsin, amylase, lipase, enteropeptidase

222
Q

enteropeptidase

A

makes active forms of enzymes (trypsin, chymotrypsin)

223
Q

brush boarder enzymes

A

peptidase, lactase, nucleosides

224
Q

nucleoside

A

sugar and base - no phosphate

225
Q

Jejunum

A

most absorption, bile to GI tract

226
Q

ileum

A

absorption, bile/fat absorbed and moves to liver to repeat - connects to cecum

227
Q

liver

A

metabolism, storage of nutrients (carbs, fats), moves proteins to blood, detoxifies, makes bile

228
Q

How does the liver get products from the blood?

A

portal vein, hepatic artery, hepatic vein, common hepatic duct, hepatic triad

229
Q

portal vein

A

gives liver nutrient rich blood

230
Q

hepatic artery

A

gives liver oxygen rich blood

231
Q

hepatic vein

A

nutrient and oxygen poor blood leaves liver and goes to heart

232
Q

common hepatic duct

A

allows bile to leave the liver and move to cystic duct to gallbladder

233
Q

hepatic triad

A

portal bein, hepatic artery, common hepatic duct

234
Q

bile

A

pigments, salts- help emulsify fat to micelles. Stored in Gallbladder

235
Q

CCK

A

causes gallbladder to contract and release bile. uses common bile duct to move to small intestine.

236
Q

Pancreas

A

releases enzymes to duodenum, amylase and lipase, proteolytic enzymes, hormones

237
Q

How is the stomach neutralized

A

pancreas releases Bicarb to neutralize the HCl

238
Q

Proleolytic enzymes

A

trypsinogen (activated by enteropeptidase), and chymotrypsin (Activated by trypsin)

239
Q

Delta islet cells

A

in pancreas, release somatostatin- stops active hormones

240
Q

large intestine structure

A

cecum to ascending, transverse, descending, and sigmoid colon. Asb

241
Q

Large intestine sphincters

A

external is skeletal, internal is smooth muscle

242
Q

What controls GI

A

Enteric NS, hormones (gastrin), secretin

243
Q

Gastrin

A

released from stomach and stimulates digestive juices (HCl, pepsinogen) to release. Decreases when pH is low.

244
Q

Secretin

A

released when acidic chyme moves to duodenum. Stimulates pancreas to release bicarb, and fat in chyme causes CCK from SI

245
Q

CCK in the stomach

A

moves to pancreas to release lipase. And contraction/ bile release and slowing down stomach motility

246
Q

Epidermis layers

A

epitheleal tissue. Has basale, spinosum, granulosum, lucidum, and corneum.

247
Q

Basale

A

Deepest layer of skin, has keratinocytes, melanocytes, rapid division

248
Q

Spinosum

A

desosomes, langerhans (immune)

249
Q

Granulosum

A

granules, and lamellar body (makes lipids)

250
Q

lucidum

A

dead keratinocytes, clear

251
Q

Corneum

A

top, lipid (water proof), dead

252
Q

Dermis

A

Connective tissue. Has collagen and actin. Papillary and reticular layers

253
Q

Papillary dermis

A

top, thin, loose. Has blood vessels and nerve endings

254
Q

reticular dermis

A

deeper, thicker, denser. Glands, follicles, arrector pilli muscle (goose bumps) COLLAGEN

255
Q

hypodermis

A

bottom, subcutaneous fat (absorbs shock, insulation)

256
Q

Sweat

A

sebum, apex secretion (protein, lipids, steroids), watery

257
Q

meissners receptor

A

mechanoreceptor, light touch, in papillary, non hairy

258
Q

pacinian receptor

A

layered, deep touch, hypodermis

259
Q

Merkels

A

in between stratum and papillary, sustained light touch

260
Q

Ruffini receptor

A

sustained touch, needs collagen to work- in reticular dermis

261
Q

Hair receptor

A

triggered by deflected hair. Light touch, reticular dermis

262
Q

Nociceptor

A

pain

263
Q

TrpV1 receptor

A

temperature and pain

264
Q

epididymis

A

sperm development (gain mobility) then move to vas deferens and urethra

265
Q

seminal vesicles

A

contributes fluid to semen

266
Q

semen

A

alkaline, semen and seminal fluid, sugar for ATP

267
Q

seminiferous tubules

A

where sperm is made and leaves in testes

268
Q

sertoli cells

A

spem develop

269
Q

stages of sperm

A

spermatogonium, primary spermatocyte, seconday spermatocyte, spermatoza, sperm

270
Q

testosterone

A

binds genes to influence function, made in leydig cells. Convert some to estrogen, other to DHT. regulated by DHT and keeps sperm production going

271
Q

oogenesis

A

oogonia divide to make primary oocyte

272
Q

Secondary oocyte

A

made at puberty - in meiosis, one takes cytoplasm, other is polar body

273
Q

Fertilization

A

sperm fuses with egg in meiosis 2, oocyte makes another polar body and becomes Ovuum, secondary is mestruated out

274
Q

Follicles

A

where primary egg develops, has granulosa cells to secrete hormone. Dominant follice is ovulated

275
Q

primary follucles

A

Pellucida separates granulosa and eggs. gap junctions allow granulosa to nourish egg.

276
Q

Corpus luteum

A

FSH- aids follicle maturation

277
Q

Estrogen and progesterone

A

gets follicles ready for implantation

278
Q

Menopause

A

loose ability to respond to LH/FSH

279
Q

Umbilical artery vs. vein

A

umbilical artery is away from heart, vein is towards

280
Q

Trophoblasts

A

aids diffusion of nutrients between mom and fetus blood cells

281
Q

Estrogen

A

by ovaries, transported via blood and binds to change expression.

282
Q

What causes estrogen release

A

FSH causes ovaries to develop and granulosa releases estrogen

283
Q

Labor

A

progesterone drops so muscles relax. More sensitive to other hormones allows for contraction. Oxytocin from PP causes contraction

284
Q

Lactation

A

via lactiferous ducts, PIF is turned off in hypothalamus so that AP can release prolactin.

285
Q

Suckling

A

hypothalamus stimulates release of oxytocin. More sucking causes more oxytocin release and more milk release

286
Q

lyase

A

breaks bond without using water

287
Q

What breaks down enzyme complex

A

Heat affects non covalent interactions (such as active site), or alter pH

288
Q

founder effect

A

move to new population, less variation and more drift

289
Q

Bottleneck effect

A

most of population is killed by stress

290
Q

Coevolution

A

two species evolve alongside eachother and exert pressures on eachother

291
Q

Gene flow

A

alterations in composition of gene pool due to migration

292
Q

genetic drift

A

changes in frequency of gene pool due to chance

293
Q

catabolism vs. anabolism

A

catabolism is breaking down, anabolism is forming

294
Q

albumin

A

allows fatty acids to travel in the blood stream

295
Q

hormone sensitive lipase

A

breaks down fat when levels of glucagon or insulin change

296
Q

immunohistochemistry

A

uses antibodies to check for tissue markers - identify antigens using antibody binding

297
Q

Cellular respiration

A

Glycolysis (anaerobic), Krebs (aerobic), ETC

298
Q

when to use gluconeogenesis

A

when fasting- need to pump glucose into blood

299
Q

functions of NADPH

A

cholesterol and fatty acidy synthesis, protect from ROS

300
Q

Where does translation occur

A

cytoplasm

301
Q

Deoxy ribose

A

no 2’ oxygen

302
Q

Topoisomerase

A

unwinds DNA and prevents supercoiling

303
Q

Helicase

A

unwinds and breaks hydrogen bonds

304
Q

Eukaryotic vs. prokaryotic ribosomal subunits

A

Euk have 60 and 40s, 80s total. Pro have 50s and 30s, 70s total

305
Q

DNA polymerase 1

A

removes primer at the end of replication, exonuclease

306
Q

DNA polymerase 3

A

proofreads, exonuclease

307
Q

Mismatch repair

A

recognize, cut, econuclease removes nucleotide, DNA pol inserts the correct nucleotide and the ligase seals

308
Q

Nucleotide excision repair

A

endonuclease removes dimers/ structural errors (Does not need to be at the end), polymerase brings in new nucleotide, ligase seals

309
Q

How do bacteria distinguish parent strand

A

methylated is correct strand (parent)

310
Q

activator

A

enhance reaction between promoter and RNA polymerase

311
Q

Repressor

A

binds operator, inducer can cause repressor to detach from operator

312
Q

Silencer

A

repressor binds, RNA polymerase cannot bind promoter

313
Q

Splicesome

A

cleaves introns so that they stay in the nucleus using a hair pin

314
Q

snRPS

A

splicesome for introns in the mRNA, process pre RNA in the nucleus, regulates transcription factors and telomeres

315
Q

non conservative mutation

A

loss of function (sickle cell, glu to val)

316
Q

Missense mutation

A

changes amino acid

317
Q

Nonsense mutation

A

premature stop codon

318
Q

Conservative mutation

A

same type of amino acid

319
Q

silent mutation

A

different codon that codes for the same amino acid

320
Q

penetrance

A

fraction with a genotype that express a phenotype

321
Q

constant vs. variable expressivity

A

constant is expressed in the same way each time, variable has different phenotypes with same genotype

322
Q

How do antibiotics work

A

they reduce enzymes of bacteria and increase activation energy of bacteria

323
Q

Mg cofactor with DNA polymerase

A

works with DNA polymerase to bind negative DNA, bind at asparatate. Any changes in pH affect Mgs ability to bind (aspartate is negative at neutral pH)

324
Q

Synapsis

A

pairing of homologous chromosomes

325
Q

Endosymbiotic theory

A

mitochondria and chloroplasts were independent and joined together to become eukaryotic cell. Both help eachother

326
Q

Why are mitochrondrial disorders passed through the mother?

A

mitochondria replicated independent from the rest of the cell, and are passed from the mothers egg

327
Q

retroviruses

A

enveloped SS RNA with 3 proteins, use reverse transcriptase and exit nucleus like normal RNA to form proteins

328
Q

integrase

A

works with reverse transcriptase to remove 3’ ends to form sticky ends and integrate DNA to host for cirus

329
Q

Total lung capacity

A

max volume when one inhales completely

330
Q

Residual volume

A

minimum volume of air left in the lungs after one exhales completely

331
Q

Vital capacity

A

difference between minimum and max volume of air (TLC-RV)

332
Q

Tidal volume

A

amount of air inhaled or exhaled in a normal breathe

333
Q

Expiratory reserve volume

A

Amount of air the can be forcibly exhaled after a normal breathe

334
Q

Inspriratory reserve volume

A

Amount of air the can be forcibly inhaled after a normal breathe

335
Q

What regulates respiratory?

A

Medulla. Chemoreceptors respond to blood CO2 and O2 and cerebrum (voluntary)

336
Q

Functions of lymphatic system

A

Removes interstitial fluid from tissues into lymph, absorbs and transports fats from the intestine, helps mature lymphocytes, brings molecules that leak into the interstitial system back into the blood

337
Q

Vasa recta

A

in kidney, gives oxygen

338
Q

Kidney

A

Filters blood and makes urine, has 2 capillary beds: vasa recta, peritubular capillaries

339
Q

Peritubular capillaries

A

collect nutrients for the kidneys to filter

340
Q

Renal artery

A

helps kidney take in blood

341
Q

Kidney filtration

A

filters waste and saves whats important - at glomerulus

342
Q

Kidney collection

A

Collect and put out urine

343
Q

Kidney homeostasis

A

pH, bp, osmolarity, waste

344
Q

Nephron

A

Filtration, collection. Has outer (renal cortex) and inner (renal medulla)

345
Q

Renal calyx

A

collects urine in kidney, collects into renal pelvis, and exits through ureter to bladder

346
Q

Renal hila

A

two vessels leave kidney (artery, vein, ureter)

347
Q

Bowmans capsule

A

collects fluid from the glomerulus that is filtered from the blood.

348
Q

Bowmans space

A

where amino acids, glucose, ions leak from glomerulus to bowmans capsule. Has endothelial cells, podocytes, epitheleal cells

349
Q

Proximal convuluted tubule

A

reabsorbs amino acids, ions, glucose, and water from the glomerulus

350
Q

descending LOH

A

reabsorbs water

351
Q

Ascending LOH

A

reabsorbs ions

352
Q

How does the kidney use counter current multiplication

A

The medulla actively absorbs - is salty. Causes the descending LOH to passively absorb water

353
Q

Distal convulted tubulue

A

loops back from LOH to glomerulus, reabsorbs ions and nutrients

354
Q

Why can the LOH reabsorb urea

A

Absorbed by medulla to help drive water reabsorbtion by altering osmolarity

355
Q

Collecting duct

A

collects anything leftover in nephron, reabsorbs water and urine

356
Q

How does reabsorbed product reenter blood in kidneys

A

efferent arterioles collects and returns the reabsorbed nutrients to the blood and body, uses renal vein

357
Q

What lines the bladder

A

transitional epitheleal, allows for expansion

358
Q

Pathway of urine

A

renal calyces to renal pelvis to ureter to bladder to urethra

359
Q

Internal urethral sphincter

A

smooth muscle (involuntary) - makes sure bladder does not leak

360
Q

External urethral sphincter

A

voluntary control to urinate

361
Q

What triggers renin release

A

low BP, sympathetic responses, low salt in DCT via macula densa cells

362
Q

What secretes angiotensinogen

A

liver cells

363
Q

Angiotensinogen

A

activated by renin into angiotensin 1

364
Q

angiotensin 2

A

angiotensin 1 forms angiotensin 2 at endothelieal cells via ACE

365
Q

How does acetylation affect transcription

A

Acetyl groups weaken lysines on the histones. Causes less attraction to DNA. Making DNA more accessible to increase trx

366
Q

Transcription Initiation complex

A

RNA polymerase, promoter, TATA binding

367
Q

mRNA

A

template, carries code to cytosol for translation

368
Q

tRNA

A

carries triplet code to amino acid sequence

369
Q

Translation termination

A

stops codon reaches A site and release factors bind. Water adds and frees the polypeptide

370
Q

Hardy Weinberg Criteria

A

shows no change in allelle frequencies over time. No selection of fittest, has random mating, migration does not affect gene pool, large population, mutational equilibrium

371
Q

Non polar alkyl amino acids

A

GAPVLIM

372
Q

Non Polar Aromatic Amino Acids

A

phenylalanine, trp

373
Q

Polar neutral amino acids

A

S, threonine, Asp, glu, cys, tyr

374
Q

polar acidic amino acids

A

aspartic and glutamic acid

375
Q

Polar basic amino acids

A

has nitrogen, his, lys, arg

376
Q

Histidine

A

has pKa close to neutral, can be pronated or depronated

377
Q

Proline

A

secondary alpha amino, disrupts alpha helixs and makes kinks

378
Q

Glycine

A

not chiral, very flexible- disrupts alpha helix

379
Q

Cysteine

A

extracellular= oxidizing and forms disulfide bridges

380
Q

amino group of amino acids

A

proton accept, basic, pKa=9- Nucleophile

381
Q

secondary protein structure

A

alpha helix, beta sheet. Has hydrogen bonds

382
Q

tertiary protiein structure

A

hydrogen bonds, hydrophobic, vanderwalls, disulfide

383
Q

quartenary protein structure

A

hydrogen bonds, hydrophobic, vanderwalls, disulfide- between subunits

384
Q

How does temperature change affect proteins

A

changes folding (2,3,4)

385
Q

How does acidic affect proteins

A

changes ionic bonds (3,4)

386
Q

How do chemicals affect proteins

A

changes hydrogen bonds (all)

387
Q

How does enzyme affect proteins

A

between amino acids (1)

388
Q

prophase

A

condense, membrane dissolves, begin to migrate

389
Q

metaphase

A

membrane is gone, begin to line up, cetromeres are opposite with microtubules

390
Q

anaphase

A

microtubules pull (at kinetochore), 4 chromatids

391
Q

telophase

A

unwinds, furrows, membrane forms

392
Q

PCR

A

makes many copies of DNA using taq polymerase

393
Q

terpenes

A

lipids, 5 carbon isoprene, helps make steroids

394
Q

Z line

A

sacromere, anchors actin, shortens in contraction

395
Q

A band

A

Myosin and actin, no change in contraction

396
Q

I band

A

just actin, moves, gets smaller in contraction

397
Q

titin

A

elastic, attatches myosin to Z line

398
Q

PTH

A

secreted when blood calcium is low, stimulates osteoclasts to absorb more bone

399
Q

atypical genotypes

A

close together on loci, may be inherited as pair. No crossing over

400
Q

Fecundity

A

selected for, potential to bear children

401
Q

Calcitonin

A

secreted when blood calcium is high, decreases osteoclasts, decreases blood calcium

402
Q

Allosteric

A

reversible, non covalent

403
Q

DNA methylation

A

silences DNA, adds methyl to cytosine and adenine to tightly coil DNA and inactivate

404
Q

CpG islands

A

high Cytosine and guanine in the promoter regions, high methylation and deactylation are inactive

405
Q

Alternative splicing

A

one gene can code for multiple proteins when spliced differently

406
Q

Mitosis

A

uses divisions to mulitply, makes identical cells, BODY cells

407
Q

Meiosis

A

contributes to genetic variety, makes gametes. Is a reduction division (46 to 23 chromosomes)

408
Q

interphase

A

growth, replication, cell processes (still have 46 chromosomes but each has a pair… now have 92 chromatids)

409
Q

crossing over

A

in prophase 1, when homologous chromosomes are lined up and transfer/ exchange genetic information

410
Q

recombinant chromosomes

A

contributes to variety as a result of crossing over

411
Q

Metaphase Meiosis 1

A

chromosomes line up as 2 pairs in the middle. Each pair moves to one side

412
Q

prophase meiosis 1

A

homologous pairs, crossing over

413
Q

Products of meiosis part 2

A

4 cells

414
Q

Chromosome # before and after mitosis

A

46 paired, 92 chromatids before and 46 chromosomes, 46 chromatids per daughter after (each pair splits)

415
Q

Chromosome # before and after meiosis 1

A

46, 92 (like in interphase) to 23 chromosomes, 46 chromatids (each pair set splits)

416
Q

Chromosome # before and after meiosis 2

A

23 chromosomes, 23 chromatids (each single) in 4 cells

417
Q

diploid

A

2n, 2 SETS of chromosomes

418
Q

evolutionary game theory

A

competitive or cooperative strategy to maximize reproductive success and maximize fitness

419
Q

spermatids

A

formed after meiosis 2

420
Q

What is mRNA complementary to

A

anti coding

421
Q

How do rods work to process light?

A

turn off when light is present and causes cascade by turning on

422
Q

rhodopsin

A

in rod, has retinal

423
Q

retinal

A

light causes shape change (cis/bent to trans/straight), triggers rhodopsin to change shape

424
Q

transducin

A

shape change of rhodopsin causes transducin to break away and alpha subunit binds phosphodiesterase

425
Q

phosphodiesterase in phototransduction

A

converts cGMP to GMP

426
Q

GMP in phototransduction

A

GMP causes sodium chanells to close, hyperpolarization, and rods to turn off

427
Q

bipolar cells

A

rods off allows center bipolar cells to turn on, and signal optic nerve

428
Q

Hershey Chase experiement

A

pellet incorporated DNA, surfactant had external

MCAT (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions