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Biology Final-A > biology_final-a_20201120193249 > Flashcards

biology_final-a_20201120193249 Flashcards

1
Q

U1: What things are needed to be classified as living?

A

a. some sort of metabolic processes to carry out internal activities.b. some sort of instructions, such as DNA.c. the ability to grow and reproduce.

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2
Q

U1: What two things are needed to grow and prosper as a lineage?

A

1.) Ability to grow and reproduce2.) Ability to evolve.

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3
Q

U1: What is the difference between a hypothesis and a theory?

A

Hypo- An idea back with some scientific reasoning that needs further testing.Theory- “fact” supported with scientific evidence.

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4
Q

U1: What is the difference between the independent and dependent variable?

A

The independent variable dictates the result of the dependent variable.

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5
Q

U1: Who were the founders of natural selection?

A

Charles Darwin and Alfred Wallace

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6
Q

U1: What was Bishop Willam Paley’s theory?

A

(watch maker) Organisms are complex and well-adapted because they were made by God

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7
Q

U1: Who was the founder of Catastrophism and what does it state?

A

Georges Cuvier: God plus action’s plus catastrophic events have lead the earth to the way it is.

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8
Q

U1: What does the fossil record suggest?Which Theory challenges the fossil record?

A

Multiple layers of fossilized species show that they are increasingly similar.Catastrophism.

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9
Q

U1: What is Charles Lyell known for?

A

Uniformitarianism/Gradualism: slow and gradual changes to the earth is the reason the earth is the way it is.

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10
Q

U1: What and Who developed Lamarckian evolution?

A

Jean Baptist Lamarck, believed that organisms could spontaneously adapt and evolve to fit the needs of the environment,

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11
Q

U1: What was Thomas Malthus theory?

A

Populations tend to increase over timeIncreases in food production cannot keep pace with growth

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12
Q

U1: What is required for evolution of natural selection to take place?

A

a. Individuals must vary in their phenotypes.b. Differences in phenotypes must have a genetic basis.c. Differences in phenotypes must have consequences for fitness.

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13
Q

U1: An increase in an organisms fitness is directly proportional to its ability’s…?

A

Reproduce.

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14
Q

U1: Explain the differences between hard and soft selection:

A

Hard= the desirable traits live 100% of the timeSoft= Higher likelihood of the desirable traits living but not a grantee.

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15
Q

U1: What is Evolution?

A

Change in a species genetic frequencies.

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16
Q

U1: What is Natural Selection?

A

A mechanism of evolution resulting from individuals with different traits showing differential fitness.

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17
Q

U1: What is an adaptation?

A

An increase in fitness due to evolution, or A trait that improves the fitness of an individual

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18
Q

U1: Genotype vs Phenotype?

A

Genetic makeup vs. Physical traits as a result of the genetic make up.

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19
Q

U1: Single Locus vs. Multi Locus?

A

1 gene controls the value of a trait vs. multiple genes influencing a trait.

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20
Q

U1: At what level does evolution occur at, population or individual?

A

populations.

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21
Q

U1: What is phenotypic selection?

A

Process resulting in the specific traits increasing fitness levels.

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22
Q

U1: t/f Variation is a result of mutation?

A

True.

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23
Q

U1: t/f evolution can anticipate the needs of the species.

A

False, it cannot.

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24
Q

U1: what are the differences between macro and micro evolution?

A

Macro- major evolutionary changes that occur over long periods of time.Micro-small scale evolutionary changes (within a single population).

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25
Q

U1: What are the four means by which evolution can occur through?

A

Genetic driftGene flowMutationNatural selection

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26
Q

U1: comparative vs. experimental approach?

A

Comparative- Compare populations or species from naturally-differing environmentsExperimental-Actively manipulate the populations or environments to create differences

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27
Q

U1: What is a common garden experiment?

A

Bring population samples into lab and raise in the same conditions

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28
Q

U1: What is Rifampin?

A

Binds to RNA polymerase and interferes with transcription-Bacteriostatic antibiotic.

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29
Q

U1: What being a is the trends of a graph showing arifampin treatment period and the last 14 weeks being rifampin-free

A

steady for 6 weeks and then a gradually decline.

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30
Q

U1: what is the ropB gene?

A

If mutation occurs on this gene the cell is resistant to Rifampin.

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31
Q

U1: What is a transitional form?

A

forms of species in-between the initial and current.

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32
Q

U1: What forms of evidence show transitional forms?

A

•The fossil record•Comparative studies of extant species

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33
Q

U1: t/f Are related species found closer in proximity, and if so why?

A

T•Global distribution patterns•Island biogeography

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34
Q

U1: What is Wallace’s line?

A

Separates region where marsupials dominate from regions where placentals dominate.

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35
Q

U1: What are Homologous Traits?

A

similar structures that evolved from a common ancestor.

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36
Q

U1: What are Vestigial Structures?

A

A structure that lacks any function but shows evidence of a common ancestor.

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37
Q

U1: What is Mendelian Inheritance?

A

Each gene has two copies, in each individual, on homologous chromosomes. Each homologous chromosome can have a different allele

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38
Q

U1: Describe the Hardy-Weinberg Equations:

A

p+q=1

p^2+2pq+q^2

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39
Q

U1: What are the assumptions associated with Hardy-Weinberg?

A 
No natural selection occurring 
No genetic drift occurring
No gene flow occurring
No new mutations
Mating is random
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40
Q

U1: Why is Inbreeding bad?

A

It increases the frequency of individuals with homozygous deleterious alleles in the population.

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41
Q

U1: Disruptive selection?

A

Favors both ends of distribution

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42
Q

U1: Balancing selection?

A

Favors less-common form

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43
Q

U1: Directional selection?

A

Favors one end of distribution

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44
Q

U1: Stabilizing selection?

A

Favors intermediate values

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45
Q

U1: What limits evolutionary response to natural selection?

A

Genetic- Limited genetic variation
Chemical -The rate and nature of biochemical processes
Physical-The physical characteristics of biological materials
Historical- So new traits must evolve from old ones

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46
Q

U1: Why is genetic inbreeding bad?

A

increase of deleterious genes.

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47
Q

U1: Increasing adaptation in one way may reduce it in another, Trade-offs may involve:

A

Morphological characters
Physiological characters
Biochemical characters
Energy allocation

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48
Q

U1: what is Assortative mating?

A

Mate chosen based on similarity or dissimilarity to self

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49
Q

U1: what is Inbreeding?

A

Mate chosen based on close familial relationship

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50
Q

U1: what is sexual selection?

A

Particular traits are more generally more attractive to mates.

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51
Q

U1: what are the sub categories of natural selection?

A

Sexual selection,

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52
Q

U1: what is sexual dimorphism?

A

Differences in phenotype of sexes. (usually large and displayful)

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53
Q

U1: what is the fundamental asymmetry of sex?

A

NAME?

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54
Q

U1: what is intersexual selection?

A

Females may choose mates on the basis of physical characteristics. These may signal male genetic quality resources or parental care provided by males.

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55
Q

U1: what is an example of female sexual selection?

A

Traits that improve performance, or a display of an ability (nest/den building and hunting).

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56
Q

U1: what is intrasexual selection?

A

Male vs. Male competition, resulting in the winner being able to mate with the female.

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57
Q

U1: what are the means of evolution?Describe the four.

A

Natural selection: Most favorable traits for the conditions are selected for.
Gene flow: Alters allele frequency & tend to reduces genetic variability
Gene drift: Alters allele frequency & tends to increase genetic variability
Mutation: Increases genetic variability

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58
Q

U1: what is the average for mutations per individual?

A

1

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59
Q

U1: what are four important points regarding mutations?

A

Most mutations with an effect on fitness are deleterious
A small number are beneficial
Some mutations are neutral
Mutations are random, not directed

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60
Q

U1: what is the bottle neck effect?

A

Populations that temporarily drop in size are likely to experience drift.

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61
Q

U1: what is founder’s effect?

A

Drift can also occur when a small group founds a new population Known as founder effect.

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62
Q

U1: Gene flow results from movement of alleles from blank to blank population.

A

source to sink

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63
Q

U1: what are the major approaches to identifying species, and what do they do?

A

Morphological species-Based on phenotype of individuals.Biological species- All individuals that can potentially interbreed to produce fertile offspring.Phylogenetic species- Groups with sufficient separation on the phylogenetic tree are considered species.

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64
Q

U1: who is the Father of binomial taxonomy?

A

Carl Linnaeus (1707-1778)Linnean taxonomy

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65
Q

U1: what is convergent evolution?

A

Two distantly related species that converged independently, but have similar body plans.

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66
Q

U1: what two mechanism’s can speciation occur under?-Describe the two of them.

A

Allopatric- Speciation through physical separation of populations
Sympatric- Speciation through genetic divergence within a population

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67
Q

U1: by what can allopatric speciation occur through?

A

Dispersal/Colonization- separated movement of individuals to new location Vicariance event: Appearance of physical barrier

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68
Q

U1: how does sympatric speciation occur? Describe both ways:

A
  • Disruptive selection- Low fitness of intermediate phenotypes leads to two sub-groups within a population
  • Polyploid mutants- possible reproductive isolation is typical, due to an incompatible number of gametes
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69
Q

U1: what is fusion?

A

Two species diverged, but little evolution took place so when these groups reproduced your left with the original species.

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70
Q

U1: what are the possible out comes of hybridization?

A

•Formation of persistent hybrid zone•Formation of new species through hybridization•Reinforcement of trend towards speciation

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71
Q

U1: describe a stable hybrid zone:what is made necessary for this to occur?

A

-Two separate species mate in an area to create a new species. Thus giving you an additional species.-Hybrids have as high or higher fitness than parents in some locations,

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72
Q

U1: what is reinforcement?

A

when two species produce a hybrid species that is less fit than both parent species.

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73
Q

U1: what is a phylogeny?

A

indicates the evolutionary relationship among different groups

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74
Q

U1: what is the difference between monophyletic paraphyletic and synapomorphy groups?

A

Mono- consists of all the species sharing a single ancestral population
Para- is missing some species
Synapomorphy-(“uniting form”) is a shared, derived character

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75
Q

U1: what is a homology?

A

If groups share a trait that is the same due to common ancestry.

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76
Q

U1: what is a homoplasy?

A

If groups share a trait that is not due to common ancestry

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77
Q

U1: what is adaptive radiation?what causes adaptive radiation?

A

-Rapid and extensive diversification of an evolutionary group.-Open ecological niches & Key adaptation

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78
Q

U1: what is mass extinction?what is mass extinction caused by?

A

NAME?

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79
Q

U1: major instances occurred from what?

A

Cambrian explosion

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80
Q

U1: what was the result of the Cambrian explosion?

A

•External and internal skeletons•Cephalization•Major sensory structures•Locomotory appendages

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81
Q

U1: describe the following from the Cambrian explosion: Doushantuo fossils Ediacaran fossils Burgess Shale fossils

A

Doushantuo fossils- From ancient deposits, displaying embryos.
Ediacaran fossils- Australian deposits, showing more organized structure
Burgess Shale fossils- Canadian deposits showing complex structures and most major animal groups present.

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82
Q

U1: what was the Permian-Triassic Extinction?what was likely the cause and how do we know this ?

A

-“Mother of mass extinctions”96% of marine species. All eurypterids (sea scorpions), trilobites .70% of terrestrial species-Vulcanism/ Impact event/Massive climate change

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83
Q

U1: what was The Cretaceous-Tertiary Extinction?

A

Massive asteroid impact ~65mya = Loss of 75% of terrestrial and marine species in complex pattern.

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84
Q

U1: how do we know The Cretaceous-Tertiary extinction was likely a result of a large asteroid shower?

A

Iridium is present at high concentration inrocks formed 65 million years ago

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85
Q

U1: During what eon/era did the birds first appear?

A

Menzoic

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86
Q

U1: t/f is this in the correct sequential order: Precambrian, Mesozoic, Paleozoic ?

A

false, Precambrian, Paleozoic, Mesozoic

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87
Q

U1: describe the genotypes of the Hb (sub s) and Hb (sub a) .

A

NAME?

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88
Q

U2: What do organisms need to be able to do?

A

Intake, process(excrete), reproduce, move, coordinate and control .

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89
Q

U2: What is diffusion?

A

Substances in solution tend to move down their concentration gradient

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90
Q

U2: What is Osmosis?

A

the movement of water down its concentration gradient

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91
Q

U2: Define the following terms: Osmolarity, Hyperosmotic, Hypoosmotic, Isosmotic.

A

Osmolarity-is determined by the combined concentration of all solutes in a solution. Hyperosmotic- means that a solution has a higher concentration than another.Hypoosmotic- means that a solution has a lower concentration than another.Isosmotic-means two solutions have the same osmolarity

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92
Q

U2: What is the result of the following cell states: Hyperosmotic, Hypoosmotic, Isosmotic.

A

Hyperosmotic: Net flow of water out of cell; cell shrinksHypoosmotic: Net flow of water into cell; cell swells or even burstsIsosmotic: No net flow fluctuation

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93
Q

U2: What is water potential and what is it determined by?What do these have in common?

A

NAME?

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94
Q

U2: what are these linked with: Matrix, solute, pressure (potentials)?

A

Matrix Potential- cohesion and adhesion
Solute Potential-Osmotic pressure
Pressure Potential- Hydrostatic pressure

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95
Q

U2: Fick’s Law can be used to predict rates of diffusion except in cases with particles that are ?

A

Charged

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96
Q

U2: Describe the Phospholipid bilayer:

A

Hydrophilic and lipophobic head and Hydrophobic and lipophilic tail

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97
Q

U2: What is anther word for the use channel proteins?

A

Permeation

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98
Q

U2: What is anther word for diffusion facilitated Carrier Protein.)

A

Facilitated Diffusion.

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99
Q

U2: Uniport vs. Antiport

A

Uni- active transport transport in one direction

anti- moves in two directions and uses an electrochemical gradient.

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100
Q

U2: What is secondary active transport?

A

When a ion moves back into the cell via a symporter and the created electrochemical gradient.

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101
Q

U2: What does primary active transport require?

A

Atp via an Atp pump

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102
Q

U2: What moves through a phospholipid bilayer easiest?

A

small and chargeless molecules move through the easiest.

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103
Q

U2: t/f channel proteins move particles against their electrochemical gradient?

A

F, carrier proteins

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104
Q

U2: Who is the Father of modern animal physiology?

A

Claude Bernard

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105
Q

U2: What does ECF consist of?

A

Blood and interstitial fluid

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106
Q

U2: What are the geometric consequences of getting bigger?

A

NAME?

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107
Q

U2: How to calculate volume and SA

A

-SA: 6 x Length squared-

V: L cubic

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108
Q

U2: What does increased surface complexity lead to?

A

Increased area for diffusion.

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109
Q

U2: What do plant cells contain?

A

Cell wall, vacuoles and chloroplast.

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110
Q

U2: What is the plant cell wall composed of?

A

Mostly cellulose

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111
Q

U2: What is the difference between the primary and secondary cell wall?

A

Primary- Young and growing, it is composed of pectin.Secondary- rigid and old cells, it is composed of lignin

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112
Q

U2: What is the layer located in between the primary and secondary cell wall?

A

Lamella.

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113
Q

U2: What are the openings in primary wall cells?

A

NAME?

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114
Q

U2: What does the central vacuole?

A

Contains ( Enzymes, salts, pigments, alkaloids, other chemicals) used to create turgor pressure.

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115
Q

U2: roots vs shoots

A

roots- Below ground, they serve to uptake water and nutrients as well as anchor the plant.shoots- Above ground (stems, leaves, flowers) , they serve to harvest light, exchange gas, make sugars, and reproduce.

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116
Q

U2: Describe the function of lateral roots, root hairs, root cap:

A

Lateral roots- branch off to increase root reachRoot hairs- absorb water/nutrientsRoot cap-protects growing tip

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117
Q

U2: what is the purpose of pneumatophores?

A

provide gas exchange

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118
Q

U2: What is the leaf?

A

Sunlight harvesting organ

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119
Q

U2: What process does building a plant body require?

A

Growth Differentiation: cells assume a particular identity and function.

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120
Q

U2: Where do new cells arrive?

A

Meristems

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121
Q

U2: new meristematic cells are (blank)

A

Totipotent

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122
Q

U2: Apical vs Lateral meristems:

A
  • produce primary tissues and root tips (length){RAM} {Sam}

- Produce secondary tissues (width){vascular and cork cambium}

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123
Q

U2: How do cells expand?

A

-loosen’s up-Generates turgor pressure

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124
Q

U2: How do cells generate turgor pressure?

A
  1. transport solute into vacuoles2. water moves in via osmosis
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125
Q

U2: What is intermediate growth?

A

Plant can continue to grow new tissue.

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126
Q

U2: What are three types plant tissues?

A

dermal- Epidermis of the plantVascular-
xylem (water conduction) and phloem (food conduction)ground-
Bulk of plant, designated for storage.

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127
Q

U2: What is the purpose of cuticle?

A

Prevent water loss and pathogen entry

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128
Q

U2: What do the stomata do and what do they have?

A

Pours that allow gas exchange, and they have guard cells.

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129
Q

U2: What do the guard cells do?

A

use turgor pressure to open and close stomata.

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130
Q

U2: What do trichomes do?

A

Hair-like projections to protect and defend.

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131
Q

U2: What are the major types of ground tissue?

A

Parenchyma-Collenchyma-Sclerenchyma-

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132
Q

U2: What are the two types of conducting cells in xylem and what do they do?

A

Tracheid’s- found in all vascular plants

Vessel elements- in angiosperms and gnetophytes only.

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133
Q

U2: What are the two types of conducting cells in phloem and what do they do?

A

Sieve tube elements- transport vessels

Companion cells- metabolic support for STE’s

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134
Q

U2: what does secondary growth do?

A

Produces wood and length.

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135
Q

U2: in growth which vascular tissue comes first?

A

NAME?

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136
Q

U2: How does water move through xylem of the plant?

A

Via capillary action and transpiration.

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137
Q

U2: What shows the lowest water potential when a plant is undergoing transpiration?

A

The leaves

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138
Q

U2: How high can transpiration can lift water up?

A

100 meters

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139
Q

U2: What is transpiration?

A

Evaporation from mesophyll surfaces in leaves.

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140
Q

U2: Why does water movement occur?

A
  1. Transpiration lowers water potential2. Cohesion-tension pulls water up xylem3. Water is taken up by roots
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141
Q

U2: What does increased sunlight do to transpiration and stomata?

A

increased transpiration rates and increased stomata openings.

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142
Q

U2: How is water loss reduced by?

A

NAME?

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143
Q

U2: What is translocation?

A

Movement of sugars by bulk flow in sap.

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144
Q

U2: What is phloem loading?

A
  1. move sugars in the phloem2. generate high water potential in phloem
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145
Q

U2: What is phloem unloading?

A
  1. Move sugars out of phloem 2. Generate low water potential in phloem
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146
Q

U2: what is the source of plants biological materials?

A

Co2

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147
Q

U2: inorganic vs organic soil.

A

Inorganic: rocksOrganic: (humus) consisting of dead organismal tissue and animal waste.

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148
Q

U2: What is topsoil?

A

Crucial for healthy and stable plant community.

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149
Q

U2: what is the zone of maturation?

A

the site where new root hairs absorb the most nutrient uptake.

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150
Q

U2: What and why does nitrogen fixation occur?

A

NAME?

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151
Q

U2: What is symbiotic bacteria?

A

Bacteria like ( Rhizobia and legumes) that has a mutualistic relationship with plants.

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152
Q

U2: What are nodules?

A

Infected root tissues that bacteria grow into.

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153
Q

U2: What do clay heavy soils hold?

A

Lots of nutrients

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154
Q

U2: What allows for nutrient uptake in plants?

A

Proton pumps create an electrochemical gradient, drawing in nutrients.

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155
Q

U2: what is transduction in plants?

A

Receptor cells convert sensory information into chemical messages.

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156
Q

U2: What are the hormones involved with Growth, Growth ending, stress respones:

A

GP: Auxin, GibberellinsGE: ethyleneSR: abscisic acid

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157
Q

U2: What tropism?

A

Reaction of growth in response to tropism

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158
Q

U2: What is morphogenesis:

A

None directional growth response to a stimulus.

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159
Q

U2:Phototrophism, Thigmotropism, Gravitropsim:

A

NAME?

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160
Q

U2: Thigmomorphogenesis:

A

change in shape due to mechanical perturbation.

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161
Q

U2: What is the Krummholz effect?

A

Growing in a direction to response to a wind.

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162
Q

U2: Nastic movements?

A

A non directional response

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163
Q

U2: Thigmonastic:

A

Movement is a response to touch

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164
Q

U2: Nyctinasty:

A

Movements based on time of day

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165
Q

U2: What is the coleoptile?

A

The first part of the shoot to emerge in a monocot seedling. Where the light is sensed.

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166
Q

U2: How does the coleoptile communicate its message to the rest of the plant?

A

Via water soluble chemical.

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167
Q

U2: Why is there a greater growth on the shady side of plants?

A

Increased auxin on that side via lateral transport.

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168
Q

U2: What is the difference between hypersensitive response and systemic acquired resistance:

A

Hypersensitive: Localized defense acting against pathogens, and is triggered by Hr. Systemic acquired response: Whole plant defense activated via MeSA.

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169
Q

U2: What is the herbivore resistance in plants?

A

NAME?

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170
Q

U2: What are volatile chemical messengers?

A

Gasses released by plants alerting them that there is potential danger nearby.

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171
Q

U2: how is light detected in plants?

A

phototrophins, or PHOT1 and PHOT2 receptors

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172
Q

U2: How do plants perceive gravity?

A

amyloplasts

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173
Q

U2: Plants that are fully parasitic often lack (blank)?

A

well-developed leaves.

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174
Q

U2: what do statoliths do?

A

control the distribution of auxin

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175
Q

U2: What do dry roots release?

A

Abscisic acid (promotes stomatal closing)

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176
Q

U2: What is the alternation of generations?

A

In plants both haploid and diploid stages occur in multicellular forms.

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177
Q

U2: Describe the process of sporophyte to sporophyte.

A

Sporophyte (2n) - spores (n) - Gametophyte (n) - gametes (n via mitosis) - zygote - sporophyte.

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178
Q

U2: name a sporophyte and gametophyte dominated life cycle.

A

Spor- flowering plantGameto- moss

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179
Q

U2: sexual vs asexual reproduction:

A

Sexual: sporo dominated and alternation of generationsAsexual: clonal copies of parents.

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180
Q

U2: How do flowers sexually reproduce?

A

angiosperms

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181
Q

U2: describe the function of the following: Sepals, petals,

A

Sepal- Outer-most modified leaves.Petals- Used to draw in pollinators

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182
Q

U2: What is and what does the stamen consist of?

A

NAME?

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183
Q

U2:What is and what does the carpels consist of?

A

Stigma: Receives pollenStyle: Elevate stigmaOvary: Contains ovules

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184
Q

U2: What do the carpels fuse together to make?

A

The pistil

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185
Q

U2: Describe pollen development?

A

Microsporocytes(2n) - Microspores - Pollen

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186
Q

U2: in angiosperms what does the ovule become?

A

fruit

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187
Q

U2: What is scarification?

A

The physical abuse required to germinate.

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188
Q

U2: Bee pollinated?

A

Bright colors (not red)

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189
Q

U2: Fly pollinated?

A

dark and foul in oder

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190
Q

U2: Moth pollinated

A

Opens at night and usually white

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191
Q

U2: hummingbird pollinated?

A

Long floral tube, usually red orange or yellow

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192
Q

U2: wind pollinated?

A

Pollen is lightweight and not sticky

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193
Q

Who thermoregulates?

A

Mammals and birds.

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194
Q

What are the 6 heat transfers discussed in class that can result in a gain or loss of heat?

A

Conduction, convection, radiation

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195
Q

Conduction? (example of thermoregulation)

A

Transfer of Ke through physical contant.

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196
Q

Convection? (example of thermoregulation)

A

Transfer of Ke through fluid flow

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197
Q

Radiation? (example of thermoregulation)

A

Transfer of Ke through electromagnetic radiation.

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198
Q

How can heat be lost? (example of thermoregulation)

A

Evaporation

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199
Q

How can heat be gained? (example of thermoregulation)

A

Metabolism

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200
Q

Metabolism?

A

biochemical processes that are carried out; resulting in heat as a biproduct.

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201
Q

What is Fick’s equation for heat transfer?

A

F=Ka(T1-T2/D)

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202
Q

What is physiological regulation? (who uses this?)

A

Actively regulating your internal state based on external conditions. (mammals and birds)

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203
Q

Advantages/disadvantages of physiological regulation?

A

Can tolerate a wider variety of conditions, better active range in crazy conditions ://: Energetically expensive, must have evolved regulatory system.

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204
Q

What is Environmental conformation?

A

You staying within environmental norms. Ex: your internal temp is the same as the outside.

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205
Q

Advantages/Disadvantages to Environmental conformation?

A

More energy affordable ://: not as well suited for a particular environment.

206
Q

What is behavioral regulation?

A

Using environmental heat to keep your internal state warm.

207
Q

Advantages/Disadvantages to behavioral regulation?

A

Lower energy cost, can regulate body temp at certain times of the day ://: ability to thermoregulate depends on environmental conditions.

208
Q

What are the two types of major heat sources in animals?

A

Endotherms + Ectotherms.

209
Q

What is the difference between Endotherms + Ectotherms?

A

Ecto-don’t produce adequate body heat. (uses environment)Endo- Does (regulates themselves)

210
Q

How much more energy do mammals use then reptiles?

A

Roughly ten times.

211
Q

what’s the difference between Homeotherms + Heterotherms

A

Homo-have fairly constant body temperatureHetero- does not

212
Q

What are adaptations to increase efflux?

A

Reduce Sa, increase fat(insulation), trap still air (fur or feathers)

213
Q

What are methods for decreasing temperature differential?

A

torpor or hibernation to reduce overall body temperature• Use countercurrent exchange-to reduce heat of blood in extremities

214
Q

What is osmoregulation?

A

The regulation of the concentration of ECF and ICF

215
Q

What things does osmoregulation control?

A

Total water content (ecf), Overall osmolarity (ecf), concentration of specific solutes, ions, and nitrogenous waste (ecf).

216
Q

T/F: if the regulation of ecf and icf is good so will the regulation within the cell?

A

TRUE

217
Q

Excretion?

A

Unwanted substances removed from the ecf

218
Q

Secretion?

A

anything leaving the ecf

219
Q

Absorption?

A

moving substances in ecf.

220
Q

Reabsorption?

A

anything returning to the ecf

221
Q

Filtration?

A

forcing solution through a biological sieve

222
Q

What are the end products of protein metabolism?

A

Nitrogenous waste.

223
Q

whats the most efficient nitrogenous waste?

A

Ammonia- High solubuilty and toxcitiy: low energy loss.

224
Q

what instances require animals to osmoregulate?

A

differing concentration then their external conditions

225
Q

what’s an osmoconformer?

A

an organism (shark) who is isosmotic with the Environment (sea).

226
Q

Shark:

A

most primative case study, NaCl influx at gills, use rectal gland to get rid of NaCl, no active consumption of water

227
Q

Marine fish vs freshwater fish:

A

Ff: Challenged by ion efflux and water influx, pee a lot a lot and dont drink/// Mf: challenged by ion influx and water efflux, small amounts of pee, drink water.

228
Q

Terrestrials osmoregulation struggles are?

A

water loss, sufficient ions, elimination of nitrogenous waste.

229
Q

secretion vs filtration system:

A

secretion gets rid of the components all together, while filtration collects the unnecessary things.

230
Q

in terrestrials where is keratin found and what is it’s purpose.

A

Keratin is found in the epidermal layers, and reduces the levels of evaporation.

231
Q

can kidneys produce hyperosmotic waste?

A

yes

232
Q

What is the main waste product in humans?

A

Urea

233
Q

Nephron layers: Outer? Inner

A

Cortex, Medulla.

234
Q

Whats the concentration of the ecf in the cortex vs medulla.

A

300 mOsm vs 1400 mOsm

235
Q

Decrease in water in the body does what to ADH?

A

Increases in: ADH, density of aquaporins, water reabsoption, urine concentration

236
Q

Increase in water in the does what to ADH?

A

Decreases ADH, density of aquaporins, water reabsorption, urine concentration

237
Q

What does the mammalian kidney do?

A

regulates ecf volume indirectly by directly adjusting urine volume. Also, helps in osmoregulation .

238
Q

The mammalian kidney is a blank?

A

Filtration reabsorption system.

239
Q

The dry the conditions the blank the medulla, the blank concentrated your urine is. why is your urine this way?

A

Deeper, more. To help aid in water retention (mice.)

240
Q

Insects have a blank membrane composed of blank.

A

highly, wax and chitin, aiding in water retention

241
Q

insects limit the air through them to prevent..

A

evaporation

242
Q

What are Malpighian tubules? (insects)

A

tubes that extract water from the feces and urine.

243
Q

How does a filtration based reabsorption system work.

A

water and small amounts of solutes leave the ecf via bulk flow and useful substances are then reabsorbed into the ecf.

244
Q

What’s an example of a filtration based reabsorption system?

A

Mammalian kidney.

245
Q

Describe the transition of blood to urine.

A

blood flow runs in a tubule right next to the nephron. Blood is filtered in the glomerulus. Filtered blood moves to the bowmen’s capsule. The filtered substance moves to the proximal tubule. The filtered product moves to the loop of Henele. The filtered product moves to the distal tubule. The final step is into the collection duct.

246
Q

what happens at the proximal tubule.

A

Ions are secreted and reabsorbed.

247
Q

what happens through the first half of The Loop of Henele?

A

the concentration increases as the filtered substances comes through. This drives water out of the loop via osmosis-aquaporins.

248
Q

what happens through the second half of The Loop of Henele?

A

concentration starts to decrease and ions are drivein out via channel proteins.

249
Q

What happens at the distal tubule?

A

As the substance continues to move up the loop of henele, the concentration starts to decrease to its normal levels. This drives out ions via carrier proteins.

250
Q

What happens at the collecting duct.

A

controls the final concentration of urine.

251
Q

All these processes above are creating:

A

Primary urine.

252
Q

describe the flow of gas exchange in terrestrials.

A

air from environment enters-this goes through the respiratory surfaces- O2 moves through the circulation system via the blood- O2 enters the mitochondria- biproduct of cellular respiration, CO2 is released- CO2 travels through the circulatory system- CO2 is released at the ventilatory surfaces.

253
Q

How are gases move in and out of the respiratory surfaces including the mitochondria?

A

diffusion.

254
Q

How does circulatory system and the outside environment move products?

A

Bulk flow.

255
Q

t/f bulk flow is the pressure driving force?

A

T

256
Q

what things improve blood flow?

A

high pressure differential, low viscosity, increased diameter of tubules.

257
Q

what is the equation of partial pressure.

A

NAME?

258
Q

what drives diffusion.

A

differences is in torr.

259
Q

Partial pressure of a dissolved gas is affected by its?

A

solubility.

260
Q

Partial pressure of a gas bound to a carrier is influenced by?

A

carrier affinity

261
Q

characteristics of water for respiration:

A

Low O₂ content – less than 8 ml dissolved O₂ / liter water•Lower in seawater and with increasing temperature•High density and viscosity•Smaller coefficient for diffusion•High specific heat

262
Q

characteristics of air for respiration:

A

High O₂ content – over 200 ml O₂ / liter air at sea level•Low density and viscosity – takes little energy to move•Greater coefficient for diffusion – faster diffusion, all else equal•Low specific heat – doesn’t absorb or offload much heat•Normally desiccating – causes water loss

263
Q

In simple gills ventilation is ?

A

passive

264
Q

complex gills:

A

Greatly increased surface area•Active, pumping ventilation providing one-way flow•Counter-current exchange between water and blood

265
Q

most terrestrials have blank respiratory systems ?

A

invaginated

266
Q

what does an active pumps do?

A

Moves water over gills to get maximal O2 absorption from the water.

267
Q

describe counter current exchange:

A

blood and water flow moves in opposite directions

268
Q

how do complex gills differ from simple gills?

A

increased SA, active pumps, counter current exchange,

269
Q

what has trachea and how do they work?

A

Series of tubes (tracheae) that carry gases directly to and from tissues. Found in insects, myriapods and some arachnids

270
Q

Spiracles?

A

(opening of tracheae) can be closed to reduce water loss

271
Q

How do vertebrates use negative pressure ventilation systems?

A

ith an expansion of the thoracic cavity generating a drop in pressure

272
Q

How do amphibians use negative pressure ventilation systems?

A

with an expansion of the thoracic cavity generating a drop in pressure

273
Q

t/f most vertebrates use tidal flow systems while Avian use flow-through system?

A

T

274
Q

Series of branching tubes:

A

Trachea → bronchi → bronchioles → alveoli

275
Q

when we inhale our diaphragm moves?

A

down

276
Q

Avian gas exchange occurs at?

A

Gas exchange occurs at parabronchi

277
Q

what does a true circulatory system consist of?

A

•Blood vessels •One or more hearts to generate hydrostatic pressure •Blood (or hemolymph) that moves through vessels

278
Q

Circulating blood can serve to:

A

Move respiratory gases•Move nutrients and wastes•Distribute hormones and immune-system cells•Distribute heat•Provide hydrostatic pressure

279
Q

Open vs. Closed circulatory system:

A

Vessels empty into sinus// Blood stays in vessels throughout transit

280
Q

Chambered pumps:

A

seen in humans, have a 1 way valve system, and can deal with a greater amount of pressure.

281
Q

Peristaltic pumps:

A

Part of blood vessels. Limited to lower pressures.

282
Q

Left side of the heart:

A

bigger and pumps blood to the body (systematically)

283
Q

Right side of the heart:

A

Pumps to the pulmonary system:

284
Q

The mammalian heart has _ atria and _ ventricles

A

2,2

285
Q

Atrioventricular (AV) valves:

A

allow blood from atria to ventricles

286
Q

Semilunar (SL) valves:

A

allow blood from ventricles to arteries

287
Q

The contraction of the heart is known as?

A

Systolic

288
Q

The relaxed stage of the heart is?

A

diastole

289
Q

sinoatrial node does what?

A

Acts as the pacemaker of the heart, using electrical signals to start constractions.

290
Q

describe blood flow through the heart?

A

Blood enters the atrium form a vein- when enough pressure builds the av valve opens- blood flows through to the ventricle- once the pressure in ventricle is greater than the atrium the av closes- the Sl valve opens- blood is ejected from the artieres.

291
Q

a contraction would move blood from?

A

the atrium to the ventricle.

292
Q

Blood leaves lungs and enters tissues with?

A

104 torr and PCO₂ ≈ 40 torr

293
Q

Blood leaves tissues and enters lungs with ?

A

PO₂ ≈ 40 torr and PCO₂ ≈ 46 torr

294
Q

Hemoglobin and hemocyanin are?

A

O2 carries.

295
Q

t/f Each hemoglobin molecule can carry up to four O₂ molecules and are found in the rbc’s.

A

T

296
Q

Most CO₂ that enters the blood is converted into:

A

bicarbonate

297
Q

do to the reaction to form bicarbonate, The ECF becomes?

A

more acidic as CO2 levels increase.

298
Q

how do we decrease CO2 levels?

A

increase ventilation.

299
Q

When does O2 influence ventilation?

A

If P-O2 drops below 60 torr

300
Q

The relationship between PO₂ and the amount of O₂ bound to Hb is…

A

nonlinear

301
Q

When does O2 load on the hemaglobin?

A

at the lungs.

302
Q

when does O2 unload off the hemaglobin?

A

At the tissue.

303
Q

what feedback loops does the cns work in?

A

Negative feedback loops

304
Q

What does the nervous system consist of?

A

Neurons and Glial cells.

305
Q

what does the cns consist of?

A

Brain, Brain stem, Spinal cord

306
Q

What are the divisions of Pns:

A

Afferent and Efferent.

307
Q

What is the difference between the afferent and efferent division of the PNS?

A

afferent carriers information to the CNSefferent carriers signals to the effectors

308
Q

Somatic nervous system vs. Autonomic nervous system

A

Autonomic- Smooth muscles (involuntary actions)Somatic- skeletal muscles (voluntary actions)

309
Q

sympathetic vs parasympathetic nervous syestems?

A

Para-rest and digestsym- fight or flight

310
Q

describe the neuron and its pieces?

A

reciving dendrite: receives ap from neighboring dendrite.Soma: cell body and surrounds the nucleusnucleus: houses dna and information to make proteinsaxon: carriers the apaxon terminal: where neurotransmitters are released.

311
Q

action potential moves from (blank) to (blank).

A

Presynaptic neuron to postsynaptic neuron.

312
Q

what are the three general types of neurons?

A

Sensory(afferent)-no “upstream” neural connectionMotor(efferent)-“downstream” connection to non-neural effectorsinterneuron- connect only to other neurons

313
Q

(t/f) All cells have membrane potentials (Vm)

A

t

314
Q

what causes membrane potential?

A

unequal movement of ions across the membrane.

315
Q

the resting potential inside the cell is postive?

A

false it’s negative

316
Q

What determines the membrane potential?

A

K⁺ and Na⁺

317
Q

what are the differences in concentration of the ICF and ECF?

A

ICF: High K⁺ and low Na⁺ ECF: High Na⁺ and low K⁺

318
Q

Greater net efflux than influx of ⊕ ions negative VmGreater net influx than efflux of ⊕ ions positive Vmt/f

A

T

319
Q

Permeability of membrane to each ion depends on presence of ?

A

channel proteins

320
Q

what causes an ap to occur?

A

if membrane potential rises above threshold potential

321
Q

depolarization phase vs. repolarization phase.

A

de: increase in membrane potentialre: decreases in membrane potential

322
Q

voltage gated channels are caused by?

A

changes in Vm

323
Q

What’s the difference between Na and K VG?

A

Na- opens quickly after the vm exceeds the threshold and closes after a short delay.K- channels open slowly when Vm exceeds threshold. They close again when Vm drops below threshold.

324
Q

How do ap’s affect other adjacent areas?

A

Region near initial AP is brought above threshold voltageVG Na⁺ channels activatedAP occurs in this new regionThis new AP brings another region above threshold

325
Q

The Domino affect of ap’s is referred to as?

A

propagation.

326
Q

propagation can only be a forward affecter because?

A

refractory period.

327
Q

what is the junction where differing neurons communicate?

A

synapse.

328
Q

How is information transmitted between neurons?

A

Neurotransmitters.

329
Q

Nt’s can either blank or blank

A

excite or inhibit.

330
Q

where are neurotransmitter’s stored?

A

synaptic vesicles

331
Q

How are Nt’s released?

A

Ca protein channels opening, which signals the synaptic vesicles to move down to the main cell membrane and bind to the receptors .

332
Q

t/f receptors can be ion channels or can activate separate charges.

A

t

333
Q

what channels open and close for excitatory NT’s?

A

Na open and K closes

334
Q

what channels open and close for inhibitory NT’s

A

K opens and Na closes.

335
Q

The membrane potential in the postsynaptic neuron is called?

A

postsynaptic potential

336
Q

Depolarizing events in the postsynaptic neuron are called?

A

excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs)

337
Q

Hyperpolarizing events in the postsynaptic neuron are called?

A

inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (IPSPs)

338
Q

Ap’s only cause EPSP’s?

A

False, they can cause EPSP’s and IPSP’s, which if happen near one anther in time and location sum together.

339
Q

neuronal integration:

A

the summation of the presynaptic nueron being transferred to the post synaptic nueron.

340
Q

Frequency of APs in postsynaptic neuron =

A

pain index

341
Q

What are the two signals in the of the endocrine system?

A

Neural signals and hormones

342
Q

The Nervous systems messages are typically…?

A

Faster and to a specific target.

343
Q

Hormonal messages are typically…?

A

Slower and more broadly targeted

344
Q

What are the classes of Chemical signals?

A

Neurotransmitters: Released by nuerons and travle a short distance.Autocrine agents: cells that releases the effector chemicalParacrine agents: diffusion to reach neighboring cells.

345
Q

Neurohormones vs. Hormones?

A

both travel in the blood stream. nuero is released by NT’s and hormones are released by glands.

346
Q

What are the major endocrine glands?

A

Hypothalamus / Posterior pituitary, Anterior pituitary, Thyroid gland, Parathyroid gland, Adrenal gland Pancreas, Gonads

347
Q

Endocrine vs. Exocrine?

A

endo- releases hormonesExo- releases fluids, like sweat, milk, saliva

348
Q

What does the anterior pituitary gland serve for?

A

Produces hormones that control many systems, including the release of other hormones.Controlled by hormones released by the hypothalamus (neurohormones).Metabolism, reproduction, growth.

349
Q

What does the hypothalamus consist of?

A

hypothalamic, anterior and posterior pituitary gland.

350
Q

what does the posterior pituitary gland do?

A

Its hormones are neurohormonesADH – controls water reabsorption in collecting ductsOxytocin – promotes contractions during labor and milk “letdown”

351
Q

What are acute responses?

A

sudden danger, resulting in fight or flight.driven by epinephrine.

352
Q

What is the result of long term stress?

A

Increased cortisol, assisting in sustained increases in activity and alertness.

353
Q

What is the order of actions carried out by long term stress?

A

Hypothalamus(^crh)- Anterior pituitary(^acth)-adrenal gland (cortisol^).

354
Q

What is the order of actions carried out by acute stress?

A

Perception of dangerCNS(directs to sns)-Adrenal gland (epinephrine)

355
Q

What can thyroid hormones serve to do?

A

Metabolic rate (rate of energy use by cells)CNS development and activityProtein synthesisGrowthIn amphibians promote metamorphosis.

356
Q

Describe the thyroid axis in mammals?

A

decreased body temp- hypothalamus response(TRH) release-Anterior pituitary (TSH)- Thyroid gland (thyroid hormone)

357
Q

Levels of “downstream” hormones have blank effect on upstream hormones

A

Negative

358
Q

Hyporesponsiveness ?

A

too few hormone receptors

359
Q

what is leptin?

A

helps control the body’s energy stores:•Leptin is produced by fats cells – more fat stores leads to higher leptin levels•Influences appetite and metabolic rate•In most vertebrates, helps maintain “normal” fat reserves

360
Q

T/F fat storages, fat cells and leptin are inversely related?

A

False, they are directly related.

361
Q

increase in leptin does what to appetite and metabolism.

A

decrease appetite and increase metabolism.

362
Q

metamorphosis in insects involves two hormones:

A

•Juvenile hormone (JH)•Ecdysone (from “ecdysis”, or molting)

363
Q

How do most animals reproduce?

A

sexually: Haploid gametes fuse to form diploid offspring

364
Q

What are the mechanisms of Asexual reproduction?

A

•Budding / fission / breakage•Parthenogenesis (development from single egg)

365
Q

T/F in asexual reproduction Offspring are clones of parent?

A

T

366
Q

How do gametes form?

A

haploid cells that animals form by meiosis of diploid cells

367
Q

How many cells do Males produce from each diploid spermatogonium?

A

4

368
Q

Females produce only (blank #) egg (ovum) from each diploid oogonium during oogenesis.

A

1

369
Q

External fertilization:

A

occurs only in aquatic/wet environments

370
Q

Spawning:

A

involves selective, localized fertilization – e.g., frogs

371
Q

Broadcast fertilization:

A

involves non-selective, population-wide simultaneous release of gametes – e.g., sea urchins

372
Q

T/F :Internal fertilization occurs in both terrestrial and aquatic environments

A

T

373
Q

spermatophore?

A

Collection of sperm that a female can sit on and become pregnant.

374
Q

Cloaca?

A

which acts as the common cavity where the digestive, urinary, and reproductive systems

375
Q

Oviparous?

A

external development of offspring.

376
Q

Viviparous?

A

development is internal and the embryo

377
Q

Ovoviviparous?

A

development is internal but within a yolk-filled egg

378
Q

Males produce mainly?

A

Testosterone

379
Q

Females produce mainly?

A

Estrogen

380
Q

What are primary male characteristics?

A

genitalia

381
Q

Secondary male characteristics?

A

•Pubic and axillary hair•Beard and general increase in body hair•Increased muscle mass

382
Q

What induces secondary male characteristics?

A

Increased testosterone from puberty

383
Q

Males are constantly producing?

A

Gametes

384
Q

Describe the male pathway during puberty?

A

Hypothalmus(GnRH)-Anterior pituitary(FSH & LH)-Testes-Testosterone (Spermatogenesis)

385
Q

Erection?

A

•Vasodilation of arterioles increases influx of blood•Compression of venules by increased pressure decreases efflux

386
Q

Where semen created?

A

ejaculatory duct immediately prior to ejaculation

387
Q

How does Sperm arrive at the ejaculatory duct?

A

vas deferens

388
Q

Primary female characteristic is?

A

genitalia

389
Q

Secondary female characteristic are?

A

•Pubic and axillary hair•Breast development•Widening of pelvis•Fat deposition around hip area

390
Q

Describe the female pathway during puberty?

A

Hypothalmus(GnRH)-Anterior pituitary(FSH & LH)-Ovaries- estrogen and progestogen production-oogenesis

391
Q

How long is the average menstrual cycle?

A

28 days

392
Q

What is released during ovulation?

A

oocyte

393
Q

How long is the Follicular phase, and what occurs within this phase?

A

1-14, oocyte develops and increases in size as estrogen production increases.

394
Q

When is and how long is ovulation? What happens in ovulation

A

ovulation is 1 day, day 14. Oocyte released from follicle (and ovary)due to spike in luteinizing hormone

395
Q

What day is Luteal phase from? What happens in this phase.

A

15-28. Follicle turns into corpus luteum, which produces estrogen and progesterone

396
Q

If no implantation occurs what happens?

A

corpus luteum degenerates during days 25-28

397
Q

what happens from Days 6-28?

A

Growth and maintenance of uterine lining

398
Q

What happens to the uterine lining during days 6-28?

A

First, endometrium proliferates due to increasing estrogen.After ovulation, endometrium secretes nutrients due to high estrogen and progesterone

399
Q

What happens during days 1-5?

A

Menstruations.

400
Q

T/F, If no implantation, endometrium is shed – menstruation

A

T

401
Q

How many days can the oocyte survive after ovulation?

A

2-Jan

402
Q

How many days can sperm survive, and how many days does it take to reach the oviduct?

A

2-3 days survival, an 1 day to travel to the oviduct.

403
Q

What is the window for fertilization?

A

2-3 days before to 1-2 days after ovulation

404
Q

How long does implantation of a developing embryo take?

A

one week

405
Q

What is the placenta?

A

Advanced structure for the embryo and fetus to exchange nutrients via blood.

406
Q

What makes the placenta prime for diffusion?

A

Increased SA and a thin membrane.

407
Q

What two hormones are required for a successful pregnancy?

A

Increased levels of estrogen and progestogen.

408
Q

What do progestogen and estrogen do to assist with pregnancy?

A

Maintain the endometrial layer•Promote development of uterine muscle•Inhibit contractions of uterus prior to full term•Promote development of breasts

409
Q

What results in the mothers loss of nutrients and hormones at birth?

A

Loss of the placenta.

410
Q

What drives labor.

A

Uterine contractions.

411
Q

What hormone excites uterine contractions?

A

oxytocin (from posterior pituitary)

412
Q

Indigestion?

A

taking in food.

413
Q

Digestion?

A

Breakdown of food into smaller pieces.

414
Q

Absorption?

A

Nutrient absorption and uptake.

415
Q

Elimination:

A

Disposal of waste.

416
Q

What macronutrients are being absorbed?

A

simple and complex(starch) carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins

417
Q

What chemicals break down viable macronutrients?

A

Amylase= carbsLipase= lipidsProteins=pepsin.

418
Q

What is the absorptive state? what activity occurs within the absorptive state?

A

nutrients entering blood from GI tract.•Anabolic as well as catabolic activity•Amino acids used to make proteins•Energy stored

419
Q

Where does the post absorptive state occur?

A

nutrients not entering from GI tract.•Mainly catabolic activity•Energy released from stores

420
Q

Calories within Carbs (stored with water molecules) , Lipids, Proteins?

A

Carbs(stored with water molecules)- 1.5 kcalProteins-4.5 kcalLipids-9 kcal

421
Q

How is most energy stored?

A

as fat, 80,000 – 120,000 kcal in humans

422
Q

Describe the actions within the absorptive state.

A

Large influx of fats and carbs-CNS in turn takes glucose as a source of fuel- glycogen is stored in the liver- Fat and glucose are stored as fats

423
Q

Describe the actions within post absorptive state?

A

1-main source of fuel is fat released from storages.2- Then liver is responsible for glucose (breaks down glycogen)3- Fats are used as fuel

424
Q

What does insulin do:

A

Secreted by the pancreas. promotes absorption.

425
Q

What does glucagon do:

A

Secreted by the pancreas. Promotes post absorptive state.

426
Q

what does an increase in glucose absorption in the GI track do?

A

^blood glucose-Pancreases- ^insulin secretion

427
Q

What does increased insulin lead to?

A

^, glucose use, glucose storage

428
Q

What does decreased insulin lead to?

A

decreased blood glucose- pancreas ( decreased insulin & increased glucagon)-

429
Q

( decreased insulin & increased glucagon) leads to…

A

decreased glucose use and increased release^ fat release

430
Q

What is diabetes mellitus?

A

High blood glucose levels due to lack of normal absorptive response.

431
Q

Type I diabetes:

A

(“juvenile-onset”)

432
Q

Type II diabetes:

A

•Response to insulin is diminished – insulin levels are high•Associated with inactivity and obesity•Utility of insulin injections is limited – lifestyle change is more effective•Normally appears later in life (“adult-onset”)

433
Q

U4: what determines a biome?

A

Temperature and rainfall patterns

434
Q

U4: Describe tropical wet rain forests.

A

Constantly warm and lots of rainfall in various amounts based on the time of year.

435
Q

U4: Subtropical deserts?

A

The temperature is usually high, but it varies.

The rainfall is low.

436
Q

U4: Temperate Grasslands?

A

Moderately warm and varying in temperature.

437
Q

U4: Temperate Forest?

A

Average temperature that is moderately changing. and lower levels of rainfall.

438
Q

U4: Boreal forest?

A

Low temperature the is not consistent.

Low levels of annual precipitation.

439
Q

U4: Arctic Tundra:

A

Very cold temperature that is not stable.

Very low annual rain fall.

440
Q

U4: What is an Estuaries?

A

Mix of salt water and freshwater.

Where rivers meet oceans.

441
Q

U4: What is true of rivers and streams as elevation increases.

A

colder and higher in oxygenation.

442
Q

U4: Wetland?

A

Shallow freshwater habitats with emergent plants.

443
Q

U4: How does latitude affect temperature.

A

They are inversely related. This is because increased latitude leads decreased solar radiation.

444
Q

U4: Differing surface angel’s to the sun as a result of changing season leads to (blank)

A

variability in temperature.

445
Q

U4: Describe the trends of rainfall.

A
  • High at equator
  • Low at 30 deg N and S
  • High at 60 deg N and S
  • Low at poles
446
Q

U4: Describe the Hadley cell.

A

Hadley Cells are the low-latitude overturning circulations that have air rising at the equator and air sinking at roughly 30° latitude. They are responsible for the trade winds in the Tropics and control low-latitude weather patterns.

447
Q

U4: what is the effect of rain shadow on mountain ranges?

A

Strong effects on rainfall and leads to a wet and dry side.

448
Q

U4: What are the key factors of aquatic environments?

A

Light, nutrient, and oxygen availability.

449
Q

U4: What two zones can light be defined by aquatic systems?

A

photic zone (light) and aphotic zone (dark)

450
Q

U4: What does an Upwelling due for coastal regions?

A

Provide high nutrient availability by the movement caused from wind and the earths rotation, which brings in nutrients from the depths to the shore(ish).

451
Q

U4: which animal population is prone to innate behaviors. ( Not a species or genius, but type ;)

A

less intelligent animals

Ex: that dumb ass digger wasps.

452
Q

U4: What is fixed learning behavior?

A

A behavior that is learned early on

453
Q

U4: What is a fixed action pattern?

A

Behavior that is carried out the same way every time.

Ex: that dumb ass digger wasps.

454
Q

U4: Fixed learned behavior?

A

Requires intelligence and a capacity to learn a skill. Ex: humans have the ability’s to speak, but it is a matter of being taught a language.

455
Q

U4: Schooling and its purpose?

A

Traveling in groups to reduce the risk of predation.

456
Q

U4: What is mimicry?

A

Share morphological similarities with an organism that may be dangerous or poisonous.
( Think a bank robber using a fake gun)

457
Q

U4: What is the difference between sexual selection and pre-zygotic isolation.

A

S.S- selecting a sexual partner based on phenotypic traits of foraging/manufacturing skills.
P.Z- Keeps individuals mating within their own species.

458
Q

U4: What is the general rule of the Optimal foraging theory?

A
  • Organisms will evolve foraging strategies that will maximize their species fitness.
  • E.X. think of the prairie dogs with hawk fly-over. The result was Prairie were more active on the side that lacked the fly over unless there was enough food present.
  • Risk vs. Reward
459
Q

U4: What is altruistic behavior?

A

A behavior carried out by an individual that appears to reduce fitness, but may improve the fitness of other organisms within that species.
-Like the alarm call in prairie dogs.

460
Q

U4: What is Kin selection?

A

Kin selection should occur according to Hamilton’s rule, which calculates genetic relatedness:
½ alleles shared with parents and siblings,
¼ alleles shared with grandparents, aunts and uncles, nieces and nephews
⅛ alleles shared with cousins

461
Q

U4: What is reciprocal altruism?

A

Nesting groups consist of two parents plus up to eight other adults
Some adults are unrelated to the parents, but still help feed young and defend the territory of the group

462
Q

U4: What are the two life strategies discussed in class?

A

Live fast and die young.

Slow and steady wins the race.

463
Q

U4: What is fecundity?

A

of offspring a female produces.

464
Q

U4: In regards to the survivorship continuum describe the differences between Type 1, 2, 3?

A

1- young and middle aged individuals have a good chance at survival.
2- There is a linear decline in survival rate as time continues.
3- Young die at a rather intense rate, but if make it past a given age your likely-hood of survival increases gradually.

465
Q

U4: What are the differences between R and K species?

A

R- Associated with unstable or temporary environments. Strategy: produce large number of offspring quickly
K- Associated with stable or “climax” environments. Strategy: delay reproduction and produce small numbers of “expensive” offspring.

466
Q

U4: What is a meta-population?

A

A population of organisms may be broken up among distinct locations.

467
Q

U4: What are extinction rates affected by?

A

Population size
Patch size & quality
Environmental variability

468
Q

U4: What are recolonization rates affected by?

A

Patch size & quality
Distance and population size of other patches
Intervening environment
Species mobility

469
Q

U4: What are the four types of interdependence that communities show?

A

Competition: Different species use the same resources. Result: Lower fitness for both species
Consumption: One species eats, or absorbs nutrients from, another. Predation, herbivory, fungivory, parasitism. Result: Increases consumer’s fitness, decreases consumer’s fitness
Mutualism: Species interactions are mutually beneficial Result: Increased fitness for both species
Commensalism: One species benefits, with no effect on the other. Result: Increased fitness for one species, no change for the other

470
Q

U4: What does a niche overlap lead to?

A

Decrease in each organisms overall fitness.

471
Q

U4: What is the difference between a fundamental niche and a realized niche?

A

Fundamental niche: Niche seen in the absence of competitors

Realized niche: Portion of the niche used given competition

472
Q

U4: What are the exponential and logistic growth equations?

A

Logistic- N0+Rmax(k-No/k)

Exponential- N1= N0+rN0

473
Q

U4: What are density independent factors?

A

Things that vary overtime: seasonal temp changes, drying of ponds, natural disasters,

474
Q

U4: What is the difference between abiotic and biotic factors?

A

Biotic- predator’s, food avlibuilty, diseases, parasites

Abiotic-Environmental/climate things.

475
Q

U4: Overlap of species leads to (blank) and enough of (blank #1) leads to (blank blank)

A

Character displacement.

niche differentiation.

476
Q

U4: What is the difference between Inducible defense and Constitutive defense.

A

Constitutive defense: Always present

Inducible defense: Produced only in response to a consumer

477
Q

U4: What are the potential results of a coevolutionary arms race?

A
  1. Consumers evolve traits that increase their efficiency in “prey capture”
  2. Consumed evolve traits that make them unpalatable or elusive
  3. Selection on consumers for traits that counter the consumed species’ adaptation
  4. Etc.
478
Q

U4: What can communities be affected by?

A
  • Keystone species
  • Disturbance and succession
  • Biogeography
479
Q

U4: What is a disturbance?

A

Event that removes biomass (organisms) from the community

480
Q

U4: What are predictable disturbances referred to as?

A

disturbance regime.

481
Q

U4: Succession?

A

A predictable progression of species replacements in a region

482
Q

U4: What is the differnece between Primary Succession and Secondary Succession?

A

Primary Succession: Succession pattern after a disturbance removes both organisms and soil E.g., glacier, major flood, volcanic eruption, landslide
Secondary Succession: Succession pattern after a disturbance removes some or all of the organism, but not soi lE.g., fire, tree fall

483
Q

U4: pioneer species?

Are the R/H selected?

A

The first species to invade a habit

R selected

484
Q

U4: What are examples of early-mid-late succession communities?

A

weeds-shrubs-tree’s

485
Q

U4: How are Community diversity and latitude related to one-anther?

A

Inversely.

486
Q

U4: Describe the following Latitudinal gradients: Productivity, Temperature, Age and Intermediate disturbance hypothesis’s.

A
  • Productivity hypothesis: ↑ photosynthesis & nutrient availability → ↑ biomass → ↑ niches
  • Temperature hypothesis:↑ mean T & ↓ Δ T → ↓ extinctions and ↑speciation
  • Age hypothesis:↑ time since primary succession → ↑ speciation
  • Intermediate disturbance hypothesis:Generally stable regions with local disturbances allow both r- and K-selected species
487
Q

U4: Theory of island biogeography?

A

Species richness ∝ Rate of immigration − Rate of extinction
For islands, three major factors influence these rates:
•Current species richness
•Island size
•Distance from mainland

488
Q

U4: How are immigration rates and # of species related?

A

Inversely

489
Q

U4: How are extinction rates and number of species related?

A

Directly

490
Q

U4: Describe the Shannon index equation?

A

of species/community = X * Ln = Y * X.

491
Q

U4: Energy moves from what to what?

A

Producers to consumers/decomposers.

492
Q

U4: Organisms that obtain their energy from the same type of source occupy..?

A

The same trophic level.

493
Q

U4: Producers are…

Consumers/decomposers are…

A
  • autotrophs

- heterotrophs

494
Q

U4: What is net primary productivity?

A

Energy invested in growth or offspring

495
Q

U4: As tropic levels increase the amount of available bio mass does what?

A

decreases

496
Q

U4: What is bioaccumulation?

A

Chemicals that are ingested like the PCB’s, DDT, Mercury

497
Q

U4: Describe the water cycle

A

water is evaporated from the ocean -wind- to land (where precipitation occurs)- evaporated and transpired.

498
Q

U4: What are major abiotic carbon sources?

A

•Atmospheric carbon dioxide (CO₂)•Oceanic bicarbonate ion (HCO₃⁻)

499
Q

U4: How is Atmospheric CO₂ fixed and created?

A
  • Photosynthesis

- Metabolism

500
Q

U4: How is Atmospheric CO₂ is also added?

A

by burning fossil and non-fossil fuels

501
Q

U4: What are green house gases?

A

Heat the sun emits and the earth gains as IR radiation

502
Q

U4: Major greenhouse gases?

A

Water
CO2
Methane

503
Q

U4: The average temperature is on the rise as a result of?

A

Green house gases increasing in production

504
Q

U4: In addition to temperature climate change can also effect?

A

Weather patterns

505
Q

U4: What are the effects of climate change?

A

Physical:•Increased temperatures•Changing precipitation patterns•Increased violent weather•Increased sea level•Loss of glaciers and sea ice•Increased acidification of oceans
Biological:•Changes in geographic distributions•Reduced population size•Extinctions

506
Q

Which of these patterns would be seen in a freshwater bony fish?

A

Passive influx of water and efflux of ions

507
Q

In the proximal tubule of the mammalian nephron, we see mainly?

A

active transport of useful solutes across the epithelium, with water following due to osmotic differences.

508
Q

In the collecting ducts of their kidneys, a person in who is over-hydrated should see?

A

relatively little reabsorption of water as the result of low levels of ADH.

509
Q

In most vertebrates (including humans), an overly-high level of thyroid hormones in the blood should result in

A

inhibition of the release of TRH and TSH.

510
Q

The follicle of the ovary is?

A

the structure that helps support the egg while it develops.

511
Q

During the menstrual cycle, levels of estrogen are lowest

A

days 1-7.

512
Q

In the intestines, the digestion of fats involves biles salts, which help overcome the challenge presented by the fact that the fat molecules are..?

A

hydrophobic.

Biology Final-A (4 decks)

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