final Flashcards

1
Q

U1: What things are needed to be classified as living?

A

a. some sort of metabolic processes to carry out internal activities.
b. some sort of instructions, such as DNA.
c. the ability to grow and reproduce.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

U1: What two things are needed to grow and prosper as a lineage?

A
  1. ) Ability to grow and reproduce

2. ) Ability to evolve.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

U1: What is the difference between a hypothesis and a theory?

A

Hypo- An idea back with some scientific reasoning that needs further testing.
Theory- “fact” supported with scientific evidence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

U1: What is the difference between the independent and dependent variable?

A

The independent variable dictates the result of the dependent variable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

U1: Who were the founders of natural selection?

A

Charles Darwin and Alfred Wallace

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

U1: What was Bishop Willam Paley’s theory?

A

(watch maker) Organisms are complex and well-adapted because they were made by God

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

U1: Who was the founder of Catastrophism and what does it state?

A

Georges Cuvier: God plus action’s plus catastrophic events have lead the earth to the way it is.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

U1: What does the fossil record suggest?

Which Theory challenges the fossil record?

A

Multiple layers of fossilized species show that they are increasingly similar.
Catastrophism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

U1: What is Charles Lyell known for?

A

Uniformitarianism/Gradualism: slow and gradual changes to the earth is the reason the earth is the way it is.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

U1: What and Who developed Lamarckian evolution?

A

Jean Baptist Lamarck, believed that organisms could spontaneously adapt and evolve to fit the needs of the environment,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

U1: What was Thomas Malthus theory?

A

Populations tend to increase over time Increases in food production cannot keep pace with growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

U1: What is required for evolution of natural selection to take place?

A

a. Individuals must vary in their phenotypes.
b. Differences in phenotypes must have a genetic basis.
c. Differences in phenotypes must have consequences for fitness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

U1: An increase in an organisms fitness is directly proportional to its ability’s…?

A

Reproduce.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

U1: Explain the differences between hard and soft selection:

A
Hard= the desirable traits live 100% of the time
Soft= Higher likelihood of the desirable traits living but not a grantee.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

U1: What is Evolution?

A

Change in a species genetic frequencies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

U1: What is Natural Selection?

A

A mechanism of evolution resulting from individuals with different traits showing differential fitness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

U1: What is an adaptation?

A

An increase in fitness due to evolution, or A trait that improves the fitness of an individual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

U1: Genotype vs Phenotype?

A

Genetic makeup vs. Physical traits as a result of the genetic make up.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

U1: Single Locus vs. Multi Locus?

A

1 gene controls the value of a trait vs. multiple genes influencing a trait.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

U1: At what level does evolution occur at, population or individual?

A

populations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

U1: What is phenotypic selection?

A

Process resulting in the specific traits increasing fitness levels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

U1: t/f Variation is a result of mutation?

A

True.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

U1: t/f evolution can anticipate the needs of the species.

A

False, it cannot.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

U1: what are the differences between macro and micro evolution?

A

Macro- major evolutionary changes that occur over long periods of time.
Micro-small scale evolutionary changes (within a single population).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

U1: What are the four means by which evolution can occur through?

A

Genetic drift
Gene flow
Mutation
Natural selection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

U1: comparative vs. experimental approach?

A

Comparative- Compare populations or species from naturally-differing environments
Experimental-Actively manipulate the populations or environments to create differences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

U1: What is a common garden experiment?

A

Bring population samples into lab and raise in the same conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

U1: What is Rifampin?

A

Binds to RNA polymerase and interferes with transcription-Bacteriostatic antibiotic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

U1: What being a is the trends of a graph showing a

rifampin treatment period and the last 14 weeks being rifampin-free

A

steady for 6 weeks and then a gradually decline.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

U1: what is the ropB gene?

A

If mutation occurs on this gene the cell is resistant to Rifampin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

U1: What is a transitional form?

A

forms of species in-between the initial and current.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

U1: What forms of evidence show transitional forms?

A
  • The fossil record

* Comparative studies of extant species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

U1: t/f Are related species found closer in proximity, and if so why?

A

T
•Global distribution patterns
•Island biogeography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

U1: What is Wallace’s line?

A

Separates region where marsupials dominate from regions where placentals dominate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

U1: What are Homologous Traits?

A

similar structures that evolved from a common ancestor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

U1: What are Vestigial Structures?

A

A structure that lacks any function but shows evidence of a common ancestor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

U1: What is Mendelian Inheritance?

A

Each gene has two copies, in each individual, on homologous chromosomes. Each homologous chromosome can have a different allele

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

U1: Describe the Hardy-Weinberg Equations:

A

p+q=1

p^2+2pq+q^2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

U1: What are the assumptions associated with Hardy-Weinberg?

A
No natural selection occurring
No genetic drift occurring
No gene flow occurring
No new mutations
Mating is random
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

U1: Why is Inbreeding bad?

A

It increases the frequency of individuals with homozygous deleterious alleles in
the population.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

U1: Disruptive selection?

A

Favors both ends of distribution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

U1: Balancing selection?

A

Favors less-common form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

U1: Directional selection?

A

Favors one end of distribution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

U1: Stabilizing selection?

A

Favors intermediate values

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

U1: What limits evolutionary response to natural selection?

A

Genetic- Limited genetic variation
Chemical -The rate and nature of biochemical processes
Physical-The physical characteristics of biological materials
Historical- So new traits must evolve from old ones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

U1: Why is genetic inbreeding bad?

A

increase of deleterious genes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

U1: Increasing adaptation in one way may reduce it in another, Trade-offs may involve:

A

Morphological characters
Physiological characters
Biochemical characters
Energy allocation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

U1: what is Assortative mating?

A

Mate chosen based on similarity or dissimilarity to self

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

U1: what is Inbreeding?

A

Mate chosen based on close familial relationship

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

U1: what is sexual selection?

A

Particular traits are more generally more attractive to mates.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

U1: what are the sub categories of natural selection?

A

Sexual selection,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

U1: what is sexual dimorphism?

A

Differences in phenotype of sexes. (usually large and displayful)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

U1: what is the fundamental asymmetry of sex?

A
  • females usually invest more in offspring than males do
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

U1: what is intersexual selection?

A

Females may choose mates on the basis of physical characteristics.
These may signal male genetic quality resources or parental care provided by males.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

U1: what is an example of female sexual selection?

A

Traits that improve performance, or a display of an ability (nest/den building and hunting).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

U1: what is intrasexual selection?

A

Male vs. Male competition, resulting in the winner being able to mate with the female.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

U1: what are the means of evolution?

Describe the four.

A

Natural selection: Most favorable traits for the conditions are selected for.
Gene flow: Alters allele frequency & tend to reduces genetic variability
Gene drift: Alters allele frequency & tends to increase genetic variability
Mutation: Increases genetic variability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

U1: what is the average for mutations per individual?

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

U1: what are four important points regarding mutations?

A

Most mutations with an effect on fitness are deleterious
A small number are beneficial
Some mutations are neutral
Mutations are random, not directed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

U1: what is the bottle neck effect?

A

Populations that temporarily drop in size are likely to experience drift.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

U1: what is founder’s effect?

A

Drift can also occur when a small group founds a new population Known as founder effect.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

U1: Gene flow results from movement of alleles from blank to blank population.

A

source to sink

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

U1: what are the major approaches to identifying species, and what do they do?

A

Morphological species-Based on phenotype of individuals.
Biological species- All individuals that can potentially interbreed to produce fertile offspring.
Phylogenetic species- Groups with sufficient separation on the phylogenetic tree are considered species.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

U1: who is the Father of binomial taxonomy?

A
Carl Linnaeus (1707-1778)
Linnean taxonomy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

U1: what is convergent evolution?

A

Two distantly related species that converged independently, but have similar body plans.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

U1: what two mechanism’s can speciation occur under?

-Describe the two of them.

A

Allopatric- Speciation through physical separation of populations
Sympatric- Speciation through genetic divergence within a population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

U1: by what can allopatric speciation occur through?

A

Dispersal/Colonization- separated movement of individuals to new location
Vicariance event: Appearance of physical barrier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

U1: how does sympatric speciation occur?

Describe both ways:

A
  • Disruptive selection- Low fitness of intermediate phenotypes leads to two sub-groups within a population
  • Polyploid mutants- possible reproductive isolation is typical, due to an incompatible number of gametes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

U1: what is fusion?

A

Two species diverged, but little evolution took place so when these groups reproduced your left with the original species.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

U1: what are the possible out comes of hybridization?

A
  • Formation of persistent hybrid zone
  • Formation of new species through hybridization
  • Reinforcement of trend towards speciation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

U1: describe a stable hybrid zone:

what is made necessary for this to occur?

A
  • Two separate species mate in an area to create a new species. Thus giving you an additional species.
  • Hybrids have as high or higher fitness than parents in some locations,
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

U1: what is reinforcement?

A

when two species produce a hybrid species that is less fit than both parent species.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

U1: what is a phylogeny?

A

indicates the evolutionary relationship among different groups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

U1: what is the difference between monophyletic paraphyletic and synapomorphy groups?

A

Mono- consists of all the species sharing a single ancestral population
Para- is missing some species
Synapomorphy-(“uniting form”) is a shared, derived character

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

U1: what is a homology?

A

If groups share a trait that is the same due to common ancestry.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

U1: what is a homoplasy?

A

If groups share a trait that is not due to common ancestry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

U1: what is adaptive radiation?

what causes adaptive radiation?

A
  • Rapid and extensive diversification of an evolutionary group.
  • Open ecological niches & Key adaptation
78
Q

U1: what is mass extinction?

what is mass extinction caused by?

A
  • Rapid disappearance of many species

- Major physical disturbances

79
Q

U1: major instances occurred from what?

A

Cambrian explosion

80
Q

U1: what was the result of the Cambrian explosion?

A
  • External and internal skeletons
  • Cephalization
  • Major sensory structures
  • Locomotory appendages
81
Q

U1: describe the following from the Cambrian explosion:
Doushantuo fossils
Ediacaran fossils
Burgess Shale fossils

A

Doushantuo fossils- From ancient deposits, displaying embryos.
Ediacaran fossils- Australian deposits, showing more organized structure
Burgess Shale fossils- Canadian deposits showing complex structures and most major animal groups present.

82
Q

U1: what was the Permian-Triassic Extinction?

what was likely the cause and how do we know this ?

A

-“Mother of mass extinctions”
96% of marine species. All eurypterids (sea scorpions), trilobites .70% of terrestrial species
-Vulcanism/ Impact event/Massive climate change

83
Q

U1: what was The Cretaceous-Tertiary Extinction?

A

Massive asteroid impact ~65mya = Loss of 75% of terrestrial and marine species in complex pattern.

84
Q

U1: how do we know The Cretaceous-Tertiary extinction was likely a result of a large asteroid shower?

A

Iridium is present at high concentration inrocks formed 65 million years ago

85
Q

U1: During what eon/era did the birds first appear?

A

Menzoic

86
Q

U1: t/f is this in the correct sequential order: Precambrian, Mesozoic, Paleozoic ?

A

false, Precambrian, Paleozoic, Mesozoic

87
Q

U1: describe the genotypes of the Hb (sub s) and Hb (sub a) .

A
  • Heterozygous individuals are protected from malaria.
  • Homozygous individuals Hb(s), will develop sickle-cell disease.
  • Homozygous Hb(a) individuals are normal allele.
88
Q

U2: What do organisms need to be able to do?

A

Intake, process(excrete), reproduce, move, coordinate and control .

89
Q

U2: What is diffusion?

A

Substances in solution tend to move down their concentration gradient

90
Q

U2: What is Osmosis?

A

the movement of water down its concentration gradient

91
Q

U2: Define the following terms: Osmolarity, Hyperosmotic, Hypoosmotic, Isosmotic.

A

Osmolarity-is determined by the combined concentration of all solutes in a solution.
Hyperosmotic- means that a solution has a higher concentration than another.
Hypoosmotic- means that a solution has a lower concentration than another.
Isosmotic-means two solutions have the same osmolarity

92
Q

U2: What is the result of the following cell states: Hyperosmotic, Hypoosmotic, Isosmotic.

A

Hyperosmotic: Net flow of water out of cell; cell shrinks
Hypoosmotic: Net flow of water into cell; cell swells or even bursts
Isosmotic: No net flow fluctuation

93
Q

U2: What is water potential and what is it determined by?

What do these have in common?

A
  • tendency for water to flow
  • Hydrostatic pressure, Osmotic pressure, and Cohesion/Adhesion forces
  • there all negative potentials
94
Q

U2: what are these linked with: Matrix, solute, pressure (potentials)?

A

Matrix Potential- cohesion and adhesion
Solute Potential-Osmotic pressure
Pressure Potential- Hydrostatic pressure

95
Q

U2: Fick’s Law can be used to predict rates of diffusion except in cases with particles that are ?

A

Charged

96
Q

U2: Describe the Phospholipid bilayer:

A

Hydrophilic and lipophobic head and Hydrophobic and lipophilic tail

97
Q

U2: What is anther word for the use channel proteins?

A

Permeation

98
Q

U2: What is anther word for diffusion facilitated Carrier Protein.)

A

Facilitated Diffusion.

99
Q

U2: Uniport vs. Antiport

A

Uni- active transport transport in one direction

anti- moves in two directions and uses an electrochemical gradient.

100
Q

U2: What is secondary active transport?

A

When a ion moves back into the cell via a symporter and the created electrochemical gradient.

101
Q

U2: What does primary active transport require?

A

Atp via an Atp pump

102
Q

U2: What moves through a phospholipid bilayer easiest?

A

small and chargeless molecules move through the easiest.

103
Q

U2: t/f channel proteins move particles against their electrochemical gradient?

A

F, carrier proteins

104
Q

U2: Who is the Father of modern animal physiology?

A

Claude Bernard

105
Q

U2: What does ECF consist of?

A

Blood and interstitial fluid

106
Q

U2: What are the geometric consequences of getting bigger?

A
  • Increased distance between surface and center
  • Decreased SA to Volume ratio.
  • Resulting in: Decreased diffusion rates and
107
Q

U2: How to calculate volume and SA

A
  • SA: 6 x Length squared

- V: L cubic

108
Q

U2: What does increased surface complexity lead to?

A

Increased area for diffusion.

109
Q

U2: What do plant cells contain?

A

Cell wall, vacuoles and chloroplast.

110
Q

U2: What is the plant cell wall composed of?

A

Mostly cellulose

111
Q

U2: What is the difference between the primary and secondary cell wall?

A

Primary- Young and growing, it is composed of pectin.

Secondary- rigid and old cells, it is composed of lignin

112
Q

U2: What is the layer located in between the primary and secondary cell wall?

A

Lamella.

113
Q

U2: What are the openings in primary wall cells?

A

-Plasmodesma

114
Q

U2: What does the central vacuole?

A

Contains ( Enzymes, salts, pigments, alkaloids, other chemicals) used to create turgor pressure.

115
Q

U2: roots vs shoots

A

roots- Below ground, they serve to uptake water and nutrients as well as anchor the plant.
shoots- Above ground (stems, leaves, flowers) , they serve to harvest light, exchange gas, make sugars, and reproduce.

116
Q

U2: Describe the function of lateral roots, root hairs, root cap:

A

Lateral roots- branch off to increase root reach
Root hairs- absorb water/nutrients
Root cap-protects growing tip

117
Q

U2: what is the purpose of pneumatophores?

A

provide gas exchange

118
Q

U2: What is the leaf?

A

Sunlight harvesting organ

119
Q

U2: What process does building a plant body require?

A

Growth

Differentiation: cells assume a particular identity and function.

120
Q

U2: Where do new cells arrive?

A

Meristems

121
Q

U2: new meristematic cells are (blank)

A

Totipotent

122
Q

U2: Apical vs Lateral meristems:

A

-produce primary tissues and root tips (length)
{RAM} {Sam}
-Produce secondary tissues (width)
{vascular and cork cambium}

123
Q

U2: How do cells expand?

A
  • loosen’s up

- Generates turgor pressure

124
Q

U2: How do cells generate turgor pressure?

A
  1. transport solute into vacuoles

2. water moves in via osmosis

125
Q

U2: What is intermediate growth?

A

Plant can continue to grow new tissue.

126
Q

U2: What are three types plant tissues?

A

dermal- Epidermis of the plant
Vascular- xylem (water conduction) and phloem (food conduction)
ground- Bulk of plant, designated for storage.

127
Q

U2: What is the purpose of cuticle?

A

Prevent water loss and pathogen entry

128
Q

U2: What do the stomata do and what do they have?

A

Pours that allow gas exchange, and they have guard cells.

129
Q

U2: What do the guard cells do?

A

use turgor pressure to open and close stomata.

130
Q

U2: What do trichomes do?

A

Hair-like projections to protect and defend.

131
Q

U2: What are the major types of ground tissue?

A

Parenchyma-
Collenchyma-
Sclerenchyma-

132
Q

U2: What are the two types of conducting cells in xylem and what do they do?

A

Tracheid’s- found in all vascular plants

Vessel elements- in angiosperms and gnetophytes only.

133
Q

U2: What are the two types of conducting cells in phloem and what do they do?

A

Sieve tube elements- transport vessels

Companion cells- metabolic support for STE’s

134
Q

U2: what does secondary growth do?

A

Produces wood and length.

135
Q

U2: in growth which vascular tissue comes first?

A

-xylem before phloem

136
Q

U2: How does water move through xylem of the plant?

A

Via capillary action and transpiration.

137
Q

U2: What shows the lowest water potential when a plant is undergoing transpiration?

A

The leaves

138
Q

U2: How high can transpiration can lift water up?

A

100 meters

139
Q

U2: What is transpiration?

A

Evaporation from mesophyll surfaces in leaves.

140
Q

U2: Why does water movement occur?

A
  1. Transpiration lowers water potential
  2. Cohesion-tension pulls water up xylem
  3. Water is taken up by roots
141
Q

U2: What does increased sunlight do to transpiration and stomata?

A

increased transpiration rates and increased stomata openings.

142
Q

U2: How is water loss reduced by?

A
  • reduced leaf SA
  • Thickened cuticle
  • reduced stomata
  • derived forms of photosynthesis
143
Q

U2: What is translocation?

A

Movement of sugars by bulk flow in sap.

144
Q

U2: What is phloem loading?

A
  1. move sugars in the phloem

2. generate high water potential in phloem

145
Q

U2: What is phloem unloading?

A
  1. Move sugars out of phloem

2. Generate low water potential in phloem

146
Q

U2: what is the source of plants biological materials?

A

Co2

147
Q

U2: inorganic vs organic soil.

A

Inorganic: rocks
Organic: (humus) consisting of dead organismal tissue and animal waste.

148
Q

U2: What is topsoil?

A

Crucial for healthy and stable plant community.

149
Q

U2: what is the zone of maturation?

A

the site where new root hairs absorb the most nutrient uptake.

150
Q

U2: What and why does nitrogen fixation occur?

A
  • Nitrates and Ammonia

- This is the way the plant can absorb nitrogen

151
Q

U2: What is symbiotic bacteria?

A

Bacteria like ( Rhizobia and legumes) that has a mutualistic relationship with plants.

152
Q

U2: What are nodules?

A

Infected root tissues that bacteria grow into.

153
Q

U2: What do clay heavy soils hold?

A

Lots of nutrients

154
Q

U2: What allows for nutrient uptake in plants?

A

Proton pumps create an electrochemical gradient, drawing in nutrients.

155
Q

U2: what is transduction in plants?

A

Receptor cells convert sensory information into chemical messages.

156
Q

U2: What are the hormones involved with Growth, Growth ending, stress respones:

A

GP: Auxin, Gibberellins
GE: ethylene
SR: abscisic acid

157
Q

U2: What tropism?

A

Reaction of growth in response to tropism

158
Q

U2: What is morphogenesis:

A

None directional growth response to a stimulus.

159
Q

U2:Phototrophism, Thigmotropism, Gravitropsim:

A
  • response to light
  • response to touch
  • response to gravity
160
Q

U2: Thigmomorphogenesis:

A

change in shape due to mechanical perturbation.

161
Q

U2: What is the Krummholz effect?

A

Growing in a direction to response to a wind.

162
Q

U2: Nastic movements?

A

A non directional response

163
Q

U2: Thigmonastic:

A

Movement is a response to touch

164
Q

U2: Nyctinasty:

A

Movements based on time of day

165
Q

U2: What is the coleoptile?

A

The first part of the shoot to emerge in a monocot seedling. Where the light is sensed.

166
Q

U2: How does the coleoptile communicate its message to the rest of the plant?

A

Via water soluble chemical.

167
Q

U2: Why is there a greater growth on the shady side of plants?

A

Increased auxin on that side via lateral transport.

168
Q

U2: What is the difference between hypersensitive response and systemic acquired resistance:

A

Hypersensitive: Localized defense acting against pathogens, and is triggered by Hr.
Systemic acquired response: Whole plant defense activated via MeSA.

169
Q

U2: What is the herbivore resistance in plants?

A
  • Damaged cells release a hr called systemin.
  • Systemin causes jasmonic acid to be produced in -cells, which promotes transcription of proteinase.
  • Limiting digestion.
170
Q

U2: What are volatile chemical messengers?

A

Gasses released by plants alerting them that there is potential danger nearby.

171
Q

U2: how is light detected in plants?

A

phototrophins, or PHOT1 and PHOT2 receptors

172
Q

U2: How do plants perceive gravity?

A

amyloplasts

173
Q

U2: Plants that are fully parasitic often lack (blank)?

A

well-developed leaves.

174
Q

U2: what do statoliths do?

A

control the distribution of auxin

175
Q

U2: What do dry roots release?

A

Abscisic acid (promotes stomatal closing)

176
Q

U2: What is the alternation of generations?

A

In plants both haploid and diploid stages occur in multicellular forms.

177
Q

U2: Describe the process of sporophyte to sporophyte.

A

Sporophyte (2n) - spores (n) - Gametophyte (n) - gametes (n via mitosis) - zygote - sporophyte.

178
Q

U2: name a sporophyte and gametophyte dominated life cycle.

A

Spor- flowering plant

Gameto- moss

179
Q

U2: sexual vs asexual reproduction:

A

Sexual: sporo dominated and alternation of generations
Asexual: clonal copies of parents.

180
Q

U2: How do flowers sexually reproduce?

A

angiosperms

181
Q

U2: describe the function of the following: Sepals, petals,

A

Sepal- Outer-most modified leaves.

Petals- Used to draw in pollinators

182
Q

U2: What is and what does the stamen consist of?

A

-Anthers and filaments

Produce pollen and Elevate anthers

183
Q

U2:What is and what does the carpels consist of?

A

Stigma: Receives pollen
Style: Elevate stigma
Ovary: Contains ovules

184
Q

U2: What do the carpels fuse together to make?

A

The pistil

185
Q

U2: Describe pollen development?

A

Microsporocytes(2n) - Microspores - Pollen

186
Q

U2: in angiosperms what does the ovule become?

A

fruit

187
Q

U2: What is scarification?

A

The physical abuse required to germinate.

188
Q

U2: Bee pollinated?

A

Bright colors (not red)

189
Q

U2: Fly pollinated?

A

dark and foul in oder

190
Q

U2: Moth pollinated

A

Opens at night and usually white

191
Q

U2: hummingbird pollinated?

A

Long floral tube, usually red orange or yellow

192
Q

U2: wind pollinated?

A

Pollen is lightweight and not sticky