Biomedical sciences Flashcards
(195 cards)
1
Q
Branchial arches:
Select one:
a.
all share a common blood supply.
b.
have derivatives for all 6 arches.
c.
are made up of ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm.
d.
each have their own nerve supply.
A
D. each have their own nerve supply.
2
Q
Derivatives of the ectoderm include:
Select one or more:
a.
skeleton
b.
muscles
c.
enamel
d.
skin
A
c. enamel
d. skin
3
Q
During embryology the blastocyst:
Select one:
a.
is a fluid filled ball of cells that forms after formation of the morula.
b.
is a fluid filled ball of cells that forms after fertilisation of the zygote.
c.
is a solid ball of cells that forms from cleavage of the zygote.
d.
is a solid ball of cells that forms from cleavage of the morula.
A
a.
is a fluid filled ball of cells that forms after formation of the morula.
4
Q
Neural crest cells give rise to:
Select one:
a.
somites and blood vessels in the head.
b.
ectomesenchyme and connective tissue in the head.
c.
the neural tube and spinal cord of the body.
d.
neuroectoderm and nerves in the head.
A
b.
ectomesenchyme and connective tissue in the head.
5
Q
Select the correct answer regarding the development of the tongue:
Select one:
a.
The tongue develops after the palate.
b.
The tongue develops from bulges in the 1st branchial arch.
c.
The tongue develops before the stomodeum.
d.
The tongue is innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve and the trigeminal nerve.
A
d.
The tongue is innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve and the trigeminal nerve.
6
Q
This branchial arch does NOT give rise to any structures:
Select one:
a.
I.
b.
II.
c.
III.
d.
IV.
e.
V.
f.
VI.
g.
none of the above.
A
e.
V. (branchial arch 5)
7
Q
The branchial arches innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve (cranial nerve IX) are:
Select one:
a.
III.
b.
II.
c.
I.
d.
IV.
e.
VI.
f.
none of the above.
g.
V.
A
a.
III. (branchial arch 3)
8
Q
The derivatives of these branchial arches are innervated by the trigeminal nerve (cranial nerve V):
Select one:
a.
IV.
b.
none of the above.
c.
VI.
d.
V.
e.
III.
f.
I.
g.
II.
A
f.
I. (branchial arch 1)
9
Q
The development of the face begins in:
Select one:
a.
week 3.
b.
week 4.
c.
week 5.
d.
week 2.
A
b.
week 4.
10
Q
The development of the secondary palate:
Select one:
a.
forms from an extension of the primary palate.
b.
creates the barrier between the oral and nasal cavities.
c.
takes place in week 4 of embryogenesis.
d.
enables fusion with the nasal septum and upper lip.
A
b.
creates the barrier between the oral and nasal cavities.
11
Q
The face begins to form from which processes:
Select one:
a.
frontonasal.
b.
nasal placodes.
c.
mandibular.
d.
maxillary.
A
a.
frontonasal.
12
Q
The muscular derivatives of these branchial arches are the muscles of facial expression:
Select one:
a.
I.
b.
none of the above.
c.
III.
d.
IV.
e.
VI.
f.
II.
g.
V.
A
f.
II (Branchial arch 2)
13
Q
The philtrum forms:
Select one:
a.
the lateral of the upper lip.
b.
from fusion of the mandibular and maxillary processes.
c.
at the midline of the face.
d.
from fusion of the maxillary and medial nasal processes.
A
d.
from fusion of the maxillary and medial nasal processes.
14
Q
The three layers of the embryonic trilaminar disc are:
Select one:
a.
ectoderm, mesenchyme and endoderm.
b.
ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm.
c.
ectoderm, neuroectoderm and endoderm.
d.
ectoderm, ectomesenchyme and endoderm.
A
b.
ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm.
15
Q
Which branchial arches give rise to the mandible:
Select one:
a.
I.
b.
II.
c.
III.
d.
IV.
e.
V.
f.
VI.
g.
none of the above.
A
a.
I. (branchial arch 1)
16
Q
Which branchial arches give rise to the palatine tonsils:
Select one:
a.
I.
b.
II.
c.
III.
d.
IV.
e.
V.
f.
VI.
g.
none of the above.
A
g.
none of the above.
17
Q
Cleft palate is a developmental anomalie that results from:
Select one:
a.
the failure of fusion of the two medial nasal processes and the maxillary processes
b.
the failure of fusion of the two medial nasal processes
c.
the failure of fusion of the palatine shelves and the medial nasal processes
d.
the failure of fusion of the palatine shelves together and the nasal septum
A
d.
the failure of fusion of the palatine shelves together and the nasal septum
18
Q
During childhood development, at age 4, environmental factors such as too much fluoride, can disrupt the amelogenesis process for permanent teeth.
Select one:
a.
False
b.
True
A
b.
True
19
Q
Ameloblasts form conical projections called Tomes Processes during which of the following stages of amelogenesis:
Question 3Select one:
a.
desmolytic
b.
morphogenic
c.
protective
d.
maturative
e.
secretory
A
e.
secretory
20
Q
- Differentiation of ameloblasts from pre-ameloblasts takes place in which of the following stages of tooth development?
Select one:
a.
Initiation
b.
Bell stage
c.
Bud stage
d.
Cap stage
A
b.
Bell stage
21
Q
Enamel, gingiva and the skin are direct derivatives of the ectoderm.
Select one:
a.
false
b.
true
A
b.
true
22
Q
During amelogenesis which cellular layer of the enamel organ collapses to allow for space for the ameloblasts:
Select one:
a.
outer enamel epithelium
b.
stellate reticulum
c.
stratum intermedium
d.
inner enamel epithelium
e.
reduced enamel epithelium
A
b.
stellate reticulum
23
Q
During fetal development, amelogenesis for all primary teeth is completed before birth:
Select one:
a.
True
b.
False
A
a.
True
24
Q
During odontogenesis, the dental sac gives rise to:
Select one:
a.
the crowns of the teeth
b.
the roots of the teeth
c.
the tooth pulp
d.
the supporting structures of the teeth
A
d.
the supporting structures of the teeth
25
Cleft palate develops when there is a failure of fusion of which structures?
Select one:
a.
The medial nasal processes and the maxillary processes
b.
The medial nasal processes
c.
The palatine shelves together and the nasal septum
d.
The palatine shelves and the medial nasal processes
c.
The palatine shelves together and the nasal septum
26
Odontogenesis starts with the following cellular layers at its initiation stage:
Select one:
a.
ectomesenchyme and oral epithelium
b.
ectomesenchyme and ectoderm
c.
ectomesenchyme and mesoderm
d.
ectomesenchyme and the dental lamina
a.
ectomesenchyme and oral epithelium
27
Select the single best answer:
Select one:
a.
The stratum intemedium plays a key role in dentinogenesis providing nutients to the odontoblasts
b.
The stellate reticulum plays a key role in amelogenesis by providing nutients to the ameloblasts
c.
The stratum intemedium plays a key role in amelogenesis by differentiating into preameloblasts and then ameloblasts
d.
The stellate reticulum plays a key role in amelogenesis paiing with the inner enamel epithelium and the ameloblasts
b.
The stellate reticulum plays a key role in amelogenesis by providing nutients to the ameloblasts
28
9. Select the single best answer:
Select one:
a.
All oral tissues originate directly from the ectoderm
b.
All oral tissues originate from the ectoderm and the endoderm
c.
All oral tissues originate from the ectoderm and the ectomesenchyme (neural crest cells)
d.
All oral tissues originate from the ectoderm and the mesoderm
c.
All oral tissues originate from the ectoderm and the ectomesenchyme (neural crest cells)
29
The 2 stages of amelogenesis and dentinogenesis can be described as:
Select one:
a.
secretion of the matrix followed by maturation of the matrix
b.
All of the above
c.
matrix formation and mineralisation of the hard tooth tissues
d.
secretory stage and the mineralisation
e.
matrix secretion and calcification of the matrix
b.
All of the above
30
6. The origin of the dento-gingival junction is the:
Question 15
a.
Dental lamina
b.
Vestibular lamina
c.
Dental follicle
d.
Reduced enamel epithelium
d.
Reduced enamel epithelium
31
The development of the secondary palate:
Select one:
a.
enables fusion with the nasal septum and upper lip
b.
takes place in week 4 of embryogenesis
c.
forms from an extension of the primary palate
d.
creates the barrier between the oral and nasal cavities
d.
creates the barrier between the oral and nasal cavities
32
The lifecycle of the ameloblast is:
Select one:
a.
limited to the time crown formation is complete
b.
limited to the completion of the bell stage
c.
limited to the time the tooth erupts
d.
limited to the life of the tooth
c.
limited to the time the tooth erupts
33
8. The long junctional epithelium originates from:
Select one:
a.
Ectoderm → oral epithelium → inner enamel epithelium
b.
Ectoderm → oral epithelium → outer enamel epithelium
c.
Ectoderm → ectomesenchyme → inner enamel epithelium
d.
Ectoderm → ectomesenchyme → outer enamel epithelium
b.
Ectoderm → oral epithelium → outer enamel epithelium
34
The morphology of the tooth crown starts to be determined at which stage of development:
Select one:
a.
bud stage
b.
cap stage
c.
early bell stage
d.
initiation
e.
late bell stage
c.
early bell stage
35
The prevalence of cleft lip and palate in the UK is approximately 1 in 700 live births:
Select one:
a.
True
b.
False
a.
True
36
The lifecycle of the odontoblast:
Select one:
a.
is complete by the time the tooth erupts
b.
is complete by the crown has formed
c.
continues until the pulp formation is complete
d.
continues throughout the life of the tooth
d.
continues throughout the life of the tooth
37
Which branchial arches do the facial muscles derive from?
Select one:
a.
I
b.
V
c.
III
d.
VI
e.
II
f.
IV
e.
II (Branchial arch 2)
38
Which branchial arches do the muscles of mastication derive from?
Select one:
a.
IV
b.
V
c.
II
d.
VI
e.
III
f.
I
f.
I (branchial arch 1)
39
Which cellular layer of the enamel organ shrinks during amelogenesis to allow for space for the ameloblasts?
Select one:
a.
stellate reticulum
b.
inner enamel epithelium
c.
stratum intermedium
d.
outer enamel epithelium
e.
reduced enamel epithelium
a.
stellate reticulum
40
Which two cellular layers are present at the dental lamina stage of tooth development?
Select one:
a.
ectoderm and mesoderm
b.
oral epithelium and ectomesenchyme
c.
ectomesenchyme and ectoderm
d.
oral epithelium and mesoderm
b.
oral epithelium and ectomesenchyme
41
Which branchial arches does the trigeminal nerve derive from?
Select one:
a.
VI
b.
IV
c.
III
d.
V
e.
II
f.
I
f.
I (branchial arch 1)
42
Which stage of tooth development is the morphology of the tooth crown determined?
Select one:
a.
bud stage
b.
initiation
c.
eruption
d.
bell stage
e.
cap stage
d.
bell stage
43
In order to survive, pathogens require a source of nutrients, protection from harmful elements and:
Select one:
a.
Colonization of a niche in the host
b.
Dissemination through the oesophagus
c.
Access to the vascular system
a.
Colonization of a niche in the host
44
Some enveloped viruses use antigenic variation which makes it difficult for the immune system to recognise different strains of the virus. Which type of antigenic variation results in a major change in spike proteins due to gene reassortment?
Select one:
a.
Antigenic drift
b.
Antigenic shift
c.
Antigenic draft
d.
Antigenic shaft
b.
Antigenic shift
45
Which pathogen type is always a member of the normal microbiota and only causes disease in an immunocompromised host?
Select one:
a.
Primary pathogen
b.
Discreet pathogen
c.
Opportunistic pathogen
d.
Individual pathogen
c.
Opportunistic pathogen
46
Which type of pathogen is an environmental microbe that is able to cause disease in an otherwise healthy individual?
Select one:
a.
Primary pathogen
b.
Opportunistic pathogen
c.
Individual pathogen
d.
Discreet pathogen
a.
Primary pathogen
47
Virulence factors can be described as:
Select one:
a.
A factor that helps an organism to invade a host
b.
Mechanisms that determine the degree to which the pathogen causes damage to a host
c.
Factors which enable a pathogen to infect a host
d.
All of the above
d.
All of the above
48
What kind of virulence factors are proteases, nucleases, phospholipases and glycohydrolases?
Select one:
a.
Adhesins
b.
Antiphagocytics
c.
Exoenzymes
d.
Capsules
c.
Exoenzymes
49
Which of these virulence factors act as adhesins?
Select one:
a.
Proteins F and A
b.
Pili
c.
Fimbraie
d.
All of the above
d.
All of the above
50
Which of these virulence factors assist in promoting colonization of the host?
Select one:
a.
Toxins
b.
Adhesins
c.
Proteases
d.
Exoenzymes
b.
Adhesins
51
Which of these virulence factors enable damage to be caused to the host?
Select one:
a.
Adhesins
b.
Toxins and exoenzymes
c.
Pili and Fimbriae
d.
Antiphagocytic factors
b.
Toxins and exoenzymes
52
Which virulence factor does Porphyromonas Gingivalis use which leads to disregulated immunity in the gingival tissues and breakdown of the structures around the teeth?
Select one:
a.
Fimbraie and exoenzyme Gingipains
b.
Pili
c.
Secreted aspartyl proteinases (SAP)
d.
Pleomorphisms
a.
Fimbraie and exoenzyme Gingipains
53
List five oral manifestations of immunodeficiency
periodontal disease
oral ulcerations
poor healing
oral candidiasis
increased risk of malignancy
N.B: With periodontal disease, the patient will be more susceptible to the periodontal disease worsening if they have immunodeficiency.
54
State four autoimmune conditions which have oral manifestations
pemphigus vulgaris
mucous membrane pemphigoid
Systemic lupus erythematosus
Sjögren syndrome
55
List the four types of hypersensitivity
Select one or more:
a.
Type IV – anaphylaxis
b.
Type I – anaphylaxis
c.
Type II – antibody mediated hypersensitivity
d.
Type III- immune complex mediated hypersensitivity
e.
Type I- immune complex mediated hypersensitivity
f.
Type IV – delayed (cell-mediated) hypersensitivity
b.
Type I – anaphylaxis
c.
Type II – antibody mediated hypersensitivity
d.
Type III- immune complex mediated hypersensitivity
f.
Type IV – delayed (cell-mediated) hypersensitivity
56
What type of hypersensitivity is penicillin allergy an example of?
Select one:
a.
Type IV – delayed (cell-mediated) hypersensitivity
b.
Type III- immune complex mediated hypersensitivity
c.
Type 1 – anaphylaxis
d.
Type II – antibody mediated hypersensitivity
c.
Type 1 – anaphylaxis
57
The dental nurse you work with eventually develops sore cracked skin on her hands after wearing gloves in the dental surgery.
What type of hypersensitivity is this?
Select one:
a.
Type III- immune complex mediated hypersensitivity
b.
Type IV – delayed (cell-mediated) hypersensitivity
c.
Type 1 – anaphylaxis
d.
Type II – antibody mediated hypersensitivity
b.
Type IV – delayed (cell-mediated) hypersensitivit
58
Which of these is an autoimmune disease
Select one or more:
a.
Psoriasis
b.
AIDS
c.
Type II diabetes
d.
Rheumatoid arthritis
a.
Psoriasis
d.
Rheumatoid arthritis
59
What happens to the immune system in autoimmune disease (pick the best answer)?
Select one:
a.
Antibodies from the immune system mistakenly attack the body’s tissues
b.
The immune system makes too many antibodies
c.
The immune system makes too few antibodies
d.
B-cells die
a.
Antibodies from the immune system mistakenly attack the body’s tissues
60
Autoimmune diseases strike which group most often?
Select one:
a.
Women of childbearing age
b.
Children younger than 12 years old
c.
Men older than 40 years old
d.
Women older than 70 years old
a.
Women of childbearing age
61
Which of these autoimmune diseases is NOT treated with immunosuppressants?
Select one:
a.
Type I diabetes
b.
Lupus erythematosus
c.
Pemphigus vulgaris
d.
Scleroderma
a.
Type I diabetes
62
The skin, joints and kidney can be affected by autoimmune diseases
Select one:
True
False
true
63
Lymph is circulated by
Select one or more:
a.
Contraction of adjacent muscles and the pulsation of large arteries
b.
Gravity and skeletal muscle contraction
c.
The beating of the heart and gravity
d.
Changes in thoracic pressure
a.
Contraction of adjacent muscles and the pulsation of large arteries
d.
Changes in thoracic pressure
64
Lymphatic capillaries are
Select one:
a.
Equipped with valves
b.
Blind ended
c.
Thick-walled
d.
In direct communication with blood capillaries
b.
Blind ended
65
Lymphatics contain lymph nodes located at certain intervals along their course
Select one:
a.
False
b.
True
true
66
Lymphatics have thinner walls than large veins
Select one:
a.
False
b.
True
true
67
Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue are associated with the
Select one or more:
a.
Spleen
b.
Respiratory tract
c.
Gastrointestinal tract
d.
Arm-pits
b.
Respiratory tract
c.
Gastrointestinal tract
68
What happens in the lymph nodes as lymph flows through them
Select one or more:
a.
White blood cells are made
b.
Reticular fibres filter debris
c.
Plasma and mature T cells are added
d.
Foreign substances are destroyed
b.
Reticular fibres filter debris
c.
Plasma and mature T cells are added
d.
Foreign substances are destroyed
69
Which best describes a lymph node
Select one:
a.
Any organ that is being attacked by pathogens
b.
A special kind of immune cell that is found in the lymph
c.
A type of pathogen that attacks the immune system
d.
A capsule in the lymph vessel that is filled with B cells and T cells
d.
A capsule in the lymph vessel that is filled with B cells and T cells
70
Which of the following is NOT a function of the lymphatic system
Select one:
a.
Transporting interstitial fluid back to the bloodstream
b.
Providing immunological defences
c.
Filtering metabolic wastes
d.
Transporting absorbed fats from the intestine to the blood
c.
Filtering metabolic wastes
71
Which of the following is NOT part of the lymphatic system
Select one:
a.
Bone marrow
b.
Thymus and spleen
c.
Liver
d.
Adenoids and tonsils
c.
Liver
72
Bacteria are prokaryotes. What does this mean?
Select one:
a.
They are small
b.
They can move
c.
Have a nucleus
d.
Don't have a nucleus
d.
Don't have a nucleus
73
Examples of oral conditions caused by bacteria are
Select one or more:
a.
Periodontal disease
b.
Caries
c.
Thrush
d.
Coldsores
a.
Periodontal disease
b.
Caries
74
The cell wall of gram negative bacteria produce endotoxins during cell lysis
Select one:
a.
True
b.
False
a.
True
75
The cell wall of gram negative bacteria produce endotoxins whilst the bacteria is replicating
Select one:
a.
False
b.
True
a.
False
76
What would you NOT expect to find in cell structure?
Select one:
a.
Cytoplasm
b.
Microflora
c.
Centrioles
d.
Nucleus
e.
Ribosomes
b.
Microflora
77
Which of the following statements about the Golgi apparatus is INCORRECT?
Select one:
a.
Produces secretory enzymes
b.
Plays an important part in cell division
c.
Packages and processes proteins
d.
Plays a key role in the secretory pathway
b.
Plays an important part in cell division
78
Which of the following statements about the nuclear envelope is INCORRECT?
Select one:
a.
The outer layer is continuous with endoplasmic reticulum
b.
The nuclear envelope is a double membrane
c.
The outer layer is covered with cilia
d.
Pores in the membrane allow the passage of substances
c.
The outer layer is covered with cilia
79
Which of the following statements about the nucleus is INCORRECT?
Select one:
a.
Is involved in cell division
b.
Stores genetic material
c.
Is the smallest feature in a cell
d.
Directs all metabolic activities
c.
Is the smallest feature in a cell
80
Which of the following statements is false?
Select one:
a.
The shape and structure of a cell depends on the function it performs
b.
The cell is the smallest functional unit in the body
c.
The plasma membrane comprises a single layer
d.
All cells have a nucleus with the exception of mature erythrocytes
c.
The plasma membrane comprises a single layer
81
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
Select one:
a.
Mitosis is the process by which a cell duplicates the chromosomes in the cell nucleus
b.
There are 5 stages of mitosis
c.
Each daughter nuclei contains 34 chromosomes
c.
Each daughter nuclei contains 34 chromosomes
82
Which organelle contains enzymes to digest foreign material?
Select one:
a.
Mitochondrion
b.
Golgi apparatus
c.
The nucleus
d.
Lysosome
d.
Lysosome
83
Fungal microflora is present throughout the human body
Select one:
a.
True
b.
False
a.
True
84
The diversity of fungal presence varies from person to person but will remain the same for all sites on an individual
Select one:
a.
False
b.
True
a.
False
85
The structural forms of fungi are
Select one or more:
a.
Mycelium
b.
Hyphae
c.
Yeast
d.
Mould
c.
Yeast
d.
Mould
86
The term commensal microflora refers to the pathogenic nature of micro-organisms to the host
select one:
a.
False
b.
True
a.
False
87
The term dimorphic relates to the ability of fungi to
Select one:
a.
Ensure its nutritional needs
b.
Reproduce
c.
Switch between being a yeast and a mould
d.
Increase its pathogenicity
c.
Switch between being a yeast and a mould
88
Which of the following statements on fungi are true?
Select one or more:
a.
The most common fungus in the oral cavity is Candida glabrata
b.
Fungi are oral commensals of approximately 50% of humans
c.
Fungal mycelium contains an abundance of hyphal elements
d.
Fungi are eukaryotic organisms
e.
Some fungi produce endotoxins
b.
Fungi are oral commensals of approximately 50% of humans
c.
Fungal mycelium contains an abundance of hyphal elements
d.
Fungi are eukaryotic organisms
89
Yeast is unlike bacteria in being
Select one or more:
a.
Eukaryotic
b.
Unicellular
c.
Prokaryotic
d.
Multicellular
a.
Eukaryotic
b.
Unicellular
90
An example of a virus exhibiting viral latency is
Select one:
a.
Sepsis
b.
Herpes zoster
c.
Orthomyxovirus
d.
None of the above
b.
Herpes zoster
91
Genetic material of a virus can be
Select one or more:
a.
RNA
b.
DNA
c.
mRNA
d.
None
a.
RNA
b.
DNA
92
Penetration occurs by the following
Select one or more:
a.
Translocation
b.
Fusion
c.
Buffering
d.
Endocytosis
e.
Sexual reproduction
f.
Exocytosis
a.
Translocation
b.
Fusion
d.
Endocytosis
93
Select the correct order of replication of viruses
Select one:
a.
Adsorption, Penetration, Uncoating, Transcription, Synthesis of viral components, Assembly, Release
b.
Penetration, Adsorption, Uncoating, Synthesis of viral components, Transcription, Assembly, Release
c.
Adsorption, Penetration, Uncoating, Transcription, Assembly, Synthesis of viral components, Release
a.
Adsorption, Penetration, Uncoating, Transcription, Synthesis of viral components, Assembly, Release
94
Viruses are predominantly made out of
Select one:
a.
Sterols
b.
Large cells with nucleus
c.
Nucleic acids
d.
Carbohydrates
e.
Proteins
e.
Proteins
95
Viruses can multiply by asexual and sexual reproduction
Select one:
a.
False
b.
True
a.
False
96
Why are viruses not classed as living organisms
Select one:
a.
They cannot reproduce without the aid of a host
b.
They do not metabolise food into energy
c.
They do have organised cells
d.
All of the above
e.
None of the above
d.
All of the above
97
Some enveloped viruses use antigenic variation which makes it difficult for the immune system to recognise different strains of the virus. Which type of antigenic variation results in a major change in spike proteins due to gene reassortment?
Select one:
a.
Antigenic drift
b.
Antigenic shift
c.
Antigenic draft
d.
Antigenic shaft
b.
Antigenic shift
98
The most abundant organisms on the human body are
Select one:
a.
Hair fibres
b.
Viruses
c.
Insects
d.
Microbes
d.
Microbes
99
What type of medicine kills bacteria?
Select one:
a.
Aspirin
b.
Vaccine
c.
Cough medicine
d.
Antibiotics
d.
Antibiotics
100
Connective tissue is made up of water, cells and extracellular matrix
Select one:
a.
False
b.
True
b.
True
101
Large fixed cells with irregular processes. They secrete non-rigid extracellular matrix, collagen and fibres. Which connective tissue cell is being described?
Select one:
a.
Adipocytes
b.
Macrophages
c.
Mast cells
d.
Fibroblasts
d.
Fibroblasts
102
The lamina propria of the oral mucosa is made up of which type of connective tissue?
select one:
a.
Adipose
b.
Dense regular
c.
Reticular
d.
Areolar
d.
Areolar
103
These fixed connective tissue cells contain granules of heparin and histamine. They play a key role in the inflammatory process of the immune system. Which connective tissue cell is being described?
Select one:
a.
Adipocytes
b.
Fibroblasts
c.
Mast cells
d.
Macrophages
c.
Mast cells
104
Which of the following are the most prevalent fibres in connective tissue?
Select one:
a.
Elastin
b.
Collagen
c.
Reticular
d.
Areolar
b.
Collagen
105
Which of the following is a function of the connective tissue?
Select one:
a.
Supports and connects tissues and parts of the body
b.
Provides strength to mechanical stress and immunity
c.
Provides insulation and storage of fat, water and ions
d.
A, B and C
d.
A, B and C
106
Which of the following is NOT a loose connective tissue?
Select one:
a.
Elastic
b.
Areolar
c.
Adipose
d.
Reticular
a.
Elastic
107
Which of the following is NOT a specialised connective tissue?
Select one:
a.
Blood
b.
Adipose
c.
Cartilage
d.
Bone
b.
Adipose
108
Which type of cartilage can be found in the articular disc of the temporomandibular joint?
Select one:
a.
Elastic cartilage
b.
Fibrocartilage
c.
Hyaline cartilage
b.
Fibrocartilage
109
Which type of connective tissue is found in ligaments and tendons?
Select one:
a.
Adipose
b.
Dense irregular
c.
Reticular
d.
Dense regular
d.
Dense regular
110
Which of the following are accessory organs of the digestive system?
Select one or more:
a.
The salivary glands
b.
The pancreas
c.
The small intestine
d.
The liver
a.
The salivary glands
b.
The pancreas
d.
The liver
111
Which of the following form the walls of the digestive tract?
Select one or more:
a.
Adventitia (serosa)
b.
Muscle layer
c.
Supramucosa
d.
Mucosa
a.
Adventitia (serosa)
b.
Muscle layer
d.
Mucosa
112
Which of the following is NOT an activity of the digestive system?
Select one:
a.
Elimination
b.
Ingestion
c.
Ablation
d.
Absorption
e.
Digestion
f.
Propulsion
c.
Ablation
113
Which of the following statements about digestion ARE correct?
Select one or more:
a.
The majority of absorption takes place in the jejunum
b.
Digestion includes mechanical and chemical breakdown of food
c.
The large intestine absorbs vitamin K and certain B vitamins
d.
Most chemical digestion takes place in the stomach
a.
The majority of absorption takes place in the jejunum
b.
Digestion includes mechanical and chemical breakdown of food
c.
The large intestine absorbs vitamin K and certain B vitamins
114
Which of the following statements about the large intestine is INCORRECT?
Question 16Select one:
a.
Water and electrolytes are absorbed
b.
Bacteria synthesise Vitamin K and folic acid
c.
Undigested food is excreted
d.
White blood cells are made
d.
White blood cells are made
115
Which of the following statements about the liver is NOT correct?
Select one:
a.
The liver is the largest solid organ in the body
b.
The liver secretes bile, which accumulates in the gall bladder between meals
c.
The liver plays an important role in the detoxification of drugs and toxic substances
d.
Glucose is stored by the liver in the form of glucagon
d.
Glucose is stored by the liver in the form of glucagon
(it is stored as glycogen, not glucagon. glucagon is a hormone that converts glycogen into glucose))
116
Which of the following statements about the salivary glands are true?
Select one or more:
a.
The submandibular glands lie at the angle of the jaw and open into the floor of the mouth. They source 70% of saliva
b.
The sublingual glands lie in front of the submandibular pair and open into the floor of the mouth. They source 5% of saliva
c.
The parotid glands lie below the external acoustic meatus. The duct opens into the hard palate opposite the buccal surface of the second upper premolar. They source 15% of saliva
a.
The submandibular glands lie at the angle of the jaw and open into the floor of the mouth. They source 70% of saliva
b.
The sublingual glands lie in front of the submandibular pair and open into the floor of the mouth. They source 5% of saliva
117
Which of the following statements about the stomach is NOT correct?
Select one:
a.
The pyloric sphincter separates the stomach from the oesophagus
b.
The stomach lining has numerous folds when empty called rugae
c.
Highly acidic environment
d.
Gastric glands secrete gastric juice into the stomach
e.
A hollow muscular organ, J-shaped, situated on the left side of the abdominal cavity
a.
The pyloric sphincter separates the stomach from the oesophagus
118
Which of the following statements on enzymes are TRUE?
Select one or more:
a.
Amylase converts starch into maltose
b.
Protease converts proteins into amino acids
c.
Trypsin converts maltose into glucose
d.
Lipase converts lipids into fatty acids and glycerol
a.
Amylase converts starch into maltose
b.
Protease converts proteins into amino acids
d.
Lipase converts lipids into fatty acids and glycerol
119
In response to adrenaline heart rate and metabolic rate slow down
Select one:
a.
False
b.
True
a.
False
120
Insulin converts glycogen to glucose for energy
Select one:
a.
True
b.
False
b.
False
121
Insulin promotes the storage of glucose by increasing conversion of glucose as glycogen
Select one:
a.
True
b.
False
a.
True
122
Insulin reduces blood glucose levels
Select one:
a.
False
b.
True
b.
True
123
Insulin regulates blood glucose and other absorbed nutrients
Select one:
a.
True
b.
False
a.
True
124
Noradrenaline influences the diameter of blood vessels
Select one:
a.
False
b.
True
b.
True
125
The adrenal medulla secretes 2 hormones adrenaline and noradrenaline
Select one:
a.
True
b.
False
a.
True
126
The anterior pituitary gland secretes all the following hormones except:
Select one:
a.
Gonadotrophins
b.
Growth Hormone
c.
Prolactin
d.
Antidiuretic hormone
e.
Corticotrophin releasing hormone
d.
Antidiuretic hormone - this is released by the posterior pituitary
NB : CRH is released by the hypothalamus, which triggers anterior pituitary to release ACTH.
127
The endocrine system comprises a number of glands with ducts
Select one:
a.
False
b.
True
a.
False. The EXOcrine system is glands with ducts.
128
The endocrine system is concerned with homeostasis
Select one:
a.
True
b.
False
a.
True
129
The fight or flight reflex is initiated in response to acute stress
Select one:
a.
False
b.
True
b.
True
130
The hypothalamus is connected to the pituitary gland via a duct
Select one:
a.
True
b.
False
b.
False
131
The Pituitary and hypothalamus regulate the activity of most other endocrine glands
Select one:
a.
True
b.
False
a.
True
132
The pituitary gland and hypothalamus work together as a unit
Select one:
a.
False
b.
True
b.
True
133
Which of the following hormones is not secreted by the thyroid gland?
Select one:
a.
Triiodothyronine
b.
Cortisone
c.
Thyroxin
d.
Calcitonin
b.
Cortisone
134
Which of the following statements about hormones is incorrect?
Select one:
a.
Hormones influence many processes including growth, stress response, nutrition and reproduction
b.
Hormones are transported to their target tissues via lymph
c.
Hormones are chemical messengers secreted by endocrine glands
d.
There are lipid based hormones and peptide hormones
b.
Hormones are transported to their target tissues via lymph
135
Which of the following statements is incorrect about the function of glucocorticoids?
Select one:
a.
Glucocorticoids are not essential for life
b.
They promote the conversion of amino acids to glucose
c.
Corticosteroids help the body combat stress
d.
They promote gluconeogenesis, formation of new sugar
a.
Glucocorticoids are not essential for life
136
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
Select one:
a.
T-lymphocytes are involved in cell- mediated immunity
b.
Thymosin is needed for the development of T-lymphocytes
c.
The thymus gland secretes the hormone thymosine
d.
The production of thymosin increases as we get older
d.
The production of thymosin increases as we get older
137
Atrial systole accounts for most of ventricular filling
Select one:
a.
False
b.
True
a.
False
138
Cardiac muscle fibres are uninucleate, striated, branched and contain intercalated discs
Select one:
a.
True
b.
False
a.
True
139
Cardiac muscle fibres have are multinucleate, have an irregular arrangement of actin and myosin and are long and cylindrical
Select one:
a.
False
b.
True
a.
False
140
In the foetal circulation blood by-passes the lungs and passes from the right atrium to the left atrium via the foramen ovale
Select one:
a.
True
b.
False
a.
True
141
In this blood pressure reading 120/80mmHg, 80 represents the systolic blood pressure
Select one:
a.
True
b.
False
b.
False. Systole/ diastole (120 - systole , 80 - diastole)
142
The circulatory system does not include the pulmonary circulation
Select one:
a.
False
b.
True
a.
False
143
The circulatory system transports nutrients, oxygen and hormones to the cells of the body
Select one:
a.
False
b.
True
b.
True
144
The elastic layer in arteries allows them to
Select one:
a.
Stretch and recoil
b.
Stretch and stiffen
a.
Stretch and recoil
145
The inferior vena cava drains the upper half and limbs of the body
Select one:
a.
False
b.
True
a.
False. IVC drains lower half whereas Superior vena cava drains upper half
146
The pulmonary vein returns oxygenated type of blood to the heart
Select one:
a.
False
b.
True
b.
True.
147
The wall of an artery is thicker than that of a vein because arteries
Select one:
a.
Transport blood at higher pressure
b.
Transport blood at lower pressure
a.
Transport blood at higher pressure
148
Venous return to the heart is assisted by the skeletal muscle and respiratory pumps
Select one:
a.
False
b.
True
b.
True
149
Which valves would be open during ventricular systole?
Select one:
a.
Aortic and tricuspid
b.
Aortic and pulmonary
c.
Tricuspid and mitral
d.
Tricuspid and pulmonary
b.
Aortic and pulmonary.
The AV - atrioventricular valves (mitral and tricuspid) are closed to prevent backflow into the atria.
150
Lymph is circulated by
Select one or more:
a.
Changes in thoracic pressure
b.
Contraction of adjacent muscles and the pulsation of large arteries
c.
Gravity and skeletal muscle contraction
d.
The beating of the heart and gravity
a.
Changes in thoracic pressure
b.
Contraction of adjacent muscles and the pulsation of large arteries
151
What happens in the lymph nodes as lymph flows through them
Select one or more:
a.
Plasma and mature T cells are added
b.
Reticular fibres filter debris
c.
White blood cells are made
d.
Foreign substances are destroyed
a.
Plasma and mature T cells are added
b.
Reticular fibres filter debris
d.
Foreign substances are destroyed
152
The peripheral nervous system is divided into sensory (afferent) and motor (efferent) divisions. Fill in the blanks in the diagram for the motor (efferent) division:
Cant put diagram on here.. but name it.
Motor (efferent)
division:
Voluntary - somatic nervous system
Involuntary - Autonomic nervous system - further divided into
Sympathetic nervous system (fight/flight)
Parasympathetic (rest/digest)`
153
Place the stages of the neural impulse in the correct order:
1. [Resting neuron]
2. [Excitatory stimulus]
3. [Sodium channels open]
4. [Sodium ions enter the neuron]
5. [Potassium channels open]
6. [Potassium ions leave the neuron]
7. [Recharging phase]
154
A nerve impulse running TO the brain and CNS is known as?
afferent
155
A nerve impulse running FROM the brain and CNS is known as
efferent
156
How long is the spinal cord?
Select one:
a.
43cm
b.
45cm
c.
46cm
d.
44cm
b.
45cm
157
How many pairs of cranial nerves are there?
Select one:
a.
10
b.
11
c.
9
d.
12
d.
12
158
What are the key features of neurones?
Select one or more:
a.
Axon
b.
Dendrites
c.
Schwann cells
d.
Kupffer cells
e.
Flagellum
a.
Axon
b.
Dendrites
c.
Schwann cells
159
What is the largest part of the brain called?
Select one:
a.
Cerebrum
b.
Pons
c.
Midbrain
d.
Cerebellum
a.
Cerebrum
160
Which of the following are properties of neurones?
Select one or more:
a.
Irritability
b.
Resistive
c.
Contractibility
d.
Conductivity
a.
Irritability
d.
Conductivity
161
Aldosterone increases the reabsorption of sodium
Select one:
a.
True
b.
False
a.
True
162
Antidiuretic hormone decreases water reabsorption
Select one:
a.
True
b.
False
b.
False. it increases it.
163
Calcitonin lowers blood calcium
Select one:
a.
True
b.
False
a.
True
164
Parathormone raises blood calcium
Select one:
a.
True
b.
False
a.
True
165
The kidney contains 1-2 thousand nephrons
Select one:
a.
False
b.
True
a.
False. Each human kidney contains around one million nephrons, but the exact number can vary widely.
166
The urinary system is one of the excretory systems of the body
Select one:
a.
True
b.
False
a.
True
167
What does NOT take place in the glomerulus capsule as blood flows through it?
Select one:
a.
Water and small molecules pass through the capillary walls and into the glomerular capsule
b.
Foreign substances are destroyed
c.
Filtration takes place through the semi permeable glomerulus capillaries and glomerular capsule walls
b.
Foreign substances are destroyed
168
Which of the following does glomerular filtrate NOT include?
Question 27Select one:
a.
Urea
b.
Water
c.
Mineral salts
d.
Toxins
e.
Blood cells
e.
Blood cells
169
Which of the following is not a function of the kidneys:
select one:
a.
Production of white blood cells
b.
Production and secretion of erythropoietin
c.
Excretion of waste products
d.
Formation of urine
a.
Production of white blood cells
- They are produced in bone marrow
170
Which of the following is NOT a part of the urinary system?
Select one:
a.
Adrenal Gland
b.
Urinary bladder
c.
Medullary loop
d.
Glomerulus
a.
Adrenal Gland
171
Which of the following is not correct when describing a nephron?
Select one:
a.
The capsule walls are lined with ciliated epithelium
b.
A tubule closed at one end
c.
Opens into a collecting duct at the other end
d.
The closed end forms a cup-shaped glomerular capsule
a.
The capsule walls are lined with ciliated epithelium
172
Which of the following processes is NOT involved in the formation of urine?
Select one:
a.
Selective reabsorption
b.
Filtration
c.
Secretion
d.
Chemical digestion
d.
Chemical digestion
173
What are the anatomical feature papillae and where are they found?
Papillae are small bumps on the tongue that contain taste buds. There are 4 different types of papillae; filiform, fungiform, foliate and circumvallate. They are found on the tongue, roof of mouth and throat.
(ANSWER TBC - waiting to be marked on moodle)
174
The Olfactory Receptors are located in the nasal cavity embedded in the olfactory bone
Select one:
a.
False
b.
True
a.
False
175
Where are Olfactory Receptors located?
In the nasal cavity embedded in the olfactory epithelium
176
The tragus in the ear plays a part in directing the sounds into the inner ear
Select one:
a.
True
b.
False
a.
True
177
What are the cilia in the nasal cavity?
Select one:
a.
Cells found in the nose
b.
Small nasal hairs within the nose
c.
Small bones within the nose
d.
Cells found the nose that assist with smell
b.
Small nasal hairs within the nose
178
What cranial nerve supplies the ear?
Question 36Select one:
a.
Trochlear nerve
b.
Auditory nerve
c.
Optic nerve
d.
Trigeminal nerve
b.
Auditory nerve
AKA CN VIII (8) - Vestibulocochlear nerve
179
What function does the pupil play in the eye?
Select one:
a.
Controls the near vision function of the eye
b.
Controls the amount of light into the eye
c.
Controls the far vision function of the eye
d.
Controls the colour of the eye
b.
Controls the amount of light into the eye
180
What is the importance of having tears?
Select one:
a.
Prevents dryness of eyes /oxygen and nutrients transported to the surface cells/foreign bodies are washed away
b.
Prevents dryness of eyes/ foreign bodies can be washed away /nutrients to eye cells
c.
Prevents dryness of eyes /protection of external irritants/ foreign bodies are washed away by tears /oxygen and nutrients are transported to the surface cells
d.
Prevents dryness of eyes/ transportation of oxygen to the eye cells/foreign bodies can be washed away
c.
Prevents dryness of eyes /protection of external irritants/ foreign bodies are washed away by tears /oxygen and nutrients are transported to the surface cells
181
Where are the bitter taste receptors found?
Select one:
a.
The tip of the tongue
b.
The sides of the tongue
c.
The back of the tongue
d.
The cheek
c.
The back of the tongue
182
What 5 taste receptors are present in the mouth?
salt sour bitter sweet umami
183
What are the four layers of the skin?
Subcutaneous Hypodermis Derma Eipdermis
this is what the moodle answer is,,, even tho its literally incorrect (subcutaneous and hypodermis are the same thing) but go off sis
184
Which of the following is not a function of the Liver
A) Filters blood
B) Breaks down sugars, proteins and fats
C) Produces bile
D) Turns glucose into Glycogen
E) Produces Haemoglobin
E) Produces Haemoglobin
185
Haemochromatosis can cause liver damage
A) True
B) False
A) True
186
Hepatitis A can be transmitted via the faecal-oral route
A) True
B) False
A) True
187
Hepatitis B is not detectable in saliva
A) True
B) False
B) False
188
The approximate percentage of people who go onto become chronic Hepatitis carriers is
A) 10%
B) 20%
C) 5%
D) 25%
E) 30%
C) 5%
189
At what time intervals is the Hepatitis B Vaccine administered?
A) 0,1 and 6 months
B) 0, 6 and 9 months
C) 0,9 and 12 months
D) 0,3 and 6 months
E) 0, 6 and 12 months
A) 0,1 and 6 months
190
Which of the following is not normally a sign or symptom of Liver Cirrhosis
A) Jaundice
B) Testicular enlargement
C) Swollen abdomen
D) Itching of the skin
E) Tar like faeces
B) Testicular enlargement
191
Which of the following statement is incorrect in relation to the management of patients with liver disease.
A) You should consider using a reduced dose of local anaesthetic for dental treatment
B) Avoid dental treatment until one month after a Liver transplant
C) Avoid the use of NSAIDS
D) Children with Liver disease may have delayed tooth eruption
E) Avoid the use of certain antibiotics for example, Tetracycline
B) Avoid dental treatment until one month after a Liver transplant
192
The liver can repair itself and regenerate from as little as 25%
A) True
B) False
A) True
193
Sialosis can be seen in patients suffering from Liver Cirrhosis
A) True
B) False
A) True
194
BMS MOCK EXAM
What is horizontal transmission of disease?
Common symptoms of diabetes?
Embryonic origin of ameleoblasts?
Pulmonary artery carries deoxygenated blood to?
Person to person
increased thirst, frequent urination, irritability
Ectoderm
Alveoli
195
CASE VIGNETTE - epileptic pt
1) What is epilepsy?
2) What questions would you ask to patient?
3) What preventative advice would you give?
4) Further to preventative care what professional intervention would be recommended?
5) What is a simplified BPE?
6) Oral effects of phenytoin and other anti-epileptic drugs?
7) If Fergus began having an epileptic seizure in the dental chair, how would the situation be managed?
1) Chronic Neurological disorder characterised by frequently recurring seizures. Can also be well controlled. Has Different triggers
2)Medications, what are his triggers, how often
3)1350-1500 flouride toothpaste, brush twice daily, dietary advice
4)Prescription of high fluoride toothpaste duraphat 5000ppm or 2000ppm, fluoride varnish 22600ppm, fissure sealants, PMPR
5)Perio screening tool for children and adolescents. Only carried out on 6 teeth – all first molars and upper right 1 and lower left 1.
6) Gingival hyperplasia and xerostomia, ulcerations/soreness of mouth, increased gingival bleeding.
7)Stop treatment. Remove foreign objects from patients mouth and any instruments away from patients. Lay dental chair back/lower it. Protect patients head with pillow. If seizure lasts more than 5 minutes, call ambulance (or in hospital 2222). Reassure patient and parent once seizure has ended. Don’t touch patient, only do so if they are gonna harm themselves or bump into objects.
