FCSP

Question 1

A chemotherapeutic adjunct is used as the main source of treatment in periodontal disease

True
False

Answer 1

The correct answer is ‘False’.

A chemotherapeutic adjunct may be used as an additional aid to the main treatment in periodontal disease. It is not a substitute.

Consider which are the main treatments that you would offer the patient for periodontal disease in terms of prevention and removal of deposits.

Question 2

In which of the following would you NOT use adjuncts?

Select one:

A.
During acute phases.

B.
In conjunction with active treatment

C.
To buy time to keep biofilm growth to minimum allowing host response time to heal

D.
To reduce/inhibit gram positive bacteria

Answer 2

D. To reduce/inhibit gram positive bacteria

Question 3

Adjuncts are not able to:

Select one or more:

A.
Break up plaque biofilm

B.
Act as a substitute for ineffective plaque control

C.
Inhibit gram negative bacteria

D.
Control and generally manage periodontal disease

Answer 3

A.
Break up plaque biofilm

B.
Act as a substitute for ineffective plaque control

D.
Control and generally manage periodontal disease

Adjuncts cannot

*Act as a substitute for inadequate plaque control
*Break up biofilm
*Be used long term
*Control disease

Some adjuncts can reduce/inhibit gram negative bacteria therefore in some cases may by of use alongside the main treatments of periodontal disease

Question 4

Prescribed antibiotics taken orally over a sustained period of time (days) are described as locally delivered adjuncts

True

False

Answer 4

False.

If taken orally, this is known as a systemically delivered adjunct

Prescribed antibiotics taken orally over a sustained period of time (days) are described as systemically delivered adjuncts

The correct answer is ‘False’.

Question 5

Which of the following are examples of locally delivered adjuncts?

Select one or more:

A.
Mouthwashes

B.
Prescribed antibiotics taken orally over days

C.
Controlled delivery anti-microbial agents

D.
Antimicrobial gels

Answer 5

A.
Mouthwashes
C.
Controlled delivery anti-microbial agents
D.
Antimicrobial gels

Question 6

Adjunctive therapies may be used for gingival inflammation in the first step of periodontal therapy according to BSP guidelines

Select one:

True
False

Answer 6

True.

it’s important that you familiarise yourself with the BSP Step Guidelines as you will be referring to them at each point of the patient’s treatment. Where else during the treatment do the guidelines suggest the use of adjuncts?

SM12626 BSP Treatment Flow Chart 17 SCREEN_READY

Always refer to the BSP guidelines for treating patients with periodontal disease:

SM12626 BSP Treatment Flow Chart 17 SCREEN_READY

The correct answer is ‘True’.

Question 7

Adjunctive agents such as subgingivally delivered antimicrobials, may be used during the second step of therapy prior to removal of subgingival deposits

Select one:
True
False

Answer 7

False

Patients with periodontal disease should have treatment to remove subgingival deposits before the application of antimicrobial agents- not the other way around.

The correct answer is ‘False’.

Question 8

Which of the following can be used to treat localised non-responding sites?

Select one or more:

A.
Locally delivered antimicrobials

B.
Systemically delivered antibiotics

C.
Locally delivered antibiotics

D.
Host Modulation Therapy

Answer 8

A.
Locally delivered antimicrobials
C.
Locally delivered antibiotics

Locally delivered antimicrobials and locally delivered antibiotics may be used to treat localised, non responding sites.

Question 9

Systemic antibiotics may be considered for which specific patient category?

Select one:

A.
Generalised periodontitis Grade C in adults

B.
Generalised periodontitis Grade C in young adults

C.
Generalised periodontitis, Grade B

D.
Localised gingivitis

Answer 9

B.
Generalised periodontitis Grade C in young adults

According to the BSP guidelines, systemic antibiotics should only be considered for treatment of young adults with generalised periodontitis Grade C (rapid rate of progression-BSP 2017 Classification)- this would be administered by a Level 2 or 3 Specialist Practitioner

The correct answer is: Generalised periodontitis Grade C in young adults

Question 10

In order for adjuncts to be considered, which of the following criteria should be taken into account?

Select one or more:

A.
Patient adherence to using/taking the adjunct

B.
Mechanical disruption of biofilm

C.
There must be a plaque related destructive periodontal condition

D.
No contra indication to the use of the agent

Answer 10

A.
Patient adherence to using/taking the adjunct

B.
Mechanical disruption of biofilm

C.
There must be a plaque related destructive periodontal condition

D.
No contra indication to the use of the agent

All of the listed crieria need to be taken into account when considering the use of adjuncts:

Mechanical disruption of biofilm

Patient adherence to using/taking the adjunct

No contra-indication to the use of the agent

There must be a plaque related destructive periodontal condition

Question 11

The qualities of a good dental impression are:

Choose all that apply

Select one or more:

A.
Low thermal shrinkage

B.
Good colour

C.
Dimensionally stable

D.
Biocompatible

Answer 11

A.
Low thermal shrinkage
C.
Dimensionally stable
D.
Biocompatible

Question 12

Non elastic impressions are:

Choose 2 answers

Select one or more:

A.
Alginate

B.
Impression compound

C.
Zinc Oxide Eugenol

D.
Addition Silicone

Answer 12

B.
Impression compound

C.
Zinc Oxide Eugenol

Question 13

Hydrocolloid impressions are:

Select one:

A.
Alginate

B.
Addition Silicone

C.
Zinc Oxide Eugenol

D.
Impression compound

Answer 13

A.
Alginate

Question 14

Impression trays can be:

Choose 3 answers

A.
also known as stock trays

B.
Plastic

C.
Metal

D.
Ceramic

Answer 14

A.
also known as stock trays

B.
Plastic

C.
Metal

Question 15

Where does the clinician stand when taking lower impressions?

Select one:

A.
In front of the patient

B.
Behind the patient

C.
To the left of the patient

D.
To the right of the patient

Answer 15

A.
In front of the patient

Question 16

Where does the clinician stand when taking upper impressions?

Select one:

A.
To the left of the patient

B.
Behind the patient

C.
To the right of the patient

D.
In front of the patient

Answer 16

B.
Behind the patient

Question 17

Maximum adhesion of impressions occurs with adhesive and perforated trays

Select one:

True
False

Answer 17

True

Question 18

Alginate and Agar are not derived from seaweed.

True or False?

Answer 18

False

Question 19

Define the term furcation and furcation involvement:

Answer 19

A: This is the terminology used to describe the anatomical region in multirooted teeth where the individual roots divides from the root trunk and diverge away from the other roots. Known as a bifurcation where the tooth has 2 roots and trifurcation in 3 rooted maxillary molars.

Furcation involvement is where there has been destruction of the periodontal tissues in the furcation area due to biofilm colonisation and host tissue response- this indicates advanced inflammatory periodontal disease initiated by the mature plaque bacteria. This usually leads to resorption/destruction of the bone and attachment loss in the furcation area this could be an extension of a pocket into the interradicular area.

Question 20

Which probe might you use to identify/grade a furcation and why would this be an advantage?

Answer 20

Naber’s probe due to it’s curved design which enables it to wrap around the roots to reach and tuck into the furcation

Question 21

What are the challenges and risks to the patient of having furcation involvement?

Answer 21

Difficult to access to clean; may not be aware as often the furcation occurs ‘silently’ -there is advancement of the bones loss with no indication on the marginal surface; once known, it would be difficult to access depending on grade of furcation/amount of bone loss; therefore this would be a natural secondary local factor- plaque retentive- very difficult for patient to clean/keep clean; very few oral hygiene aids will work depending on grade of furcation. The roots have grooves and therefore there will be niches where cleaning aids will not reach. Risks include a quicker advancement of the periodontal destruction in that area and surrounding area. Also a great risk of root caries.

Question 22

What are the challenges to the clinician of having furcation involvement?

Answer 22

Access, root divergence- it is difficult to access most furcations, if the roots are closer together it can be almost impossible to reach into the depth of the furcation. Need to use specialised instruments- usually fine tipped power driven scalers and site specific instruments-may not always have access to these in practice.

Question 23

Name and explain the location of the lymph nodes of the head and neck

Answer 23

Preauricular: Anterior to the earlobe; postauricular: (posterior to the ear); Occipital (posterior to the postauricular); parotid (region of gland); retropharyngeal-(tonsillar region); submandibular- (posterior area); submental- (anterior area); anterior cervical & posterior cervical; supraclavicular –(superior region of shoulder)

Question 24

Which of the following are used in mouthwashes?

A) Anaesthetics
B) Fluoride
C) Phenols
D) Oxygenating agents
E) All those listed

Answer 24

E) All those listed

Question 25

Which of the following is not a component of mouthwashes? A) Astringent B) Buffering agent C) Binding agent D) Anodynes E) Water

Answer 25

C) Binding agent

Question 26

Chlorhexidine is only effective against gram+ bacteria A) TRUE B) FALSE

Answer 26

B. False

Question 27

Which of the following mouthwashes contain a mild local anaesthetic A) Corsodyl daily B) Eludril C) Dentyl D) Listerine E) Peroxyl

Answer 27

B) Eludril

Question 28

Listerine is an example of a phenol based mouthwash A) TRUE B) FALSE

Answer 28

A) TRUE

Question 29

Bactericidal is defined as slowing the rate of bacteria growth A) TRUE B) FALSE

Answer 29

B) FALSE Bactericidal = destroying /killing bacteria

Question 30

Bacteriostatic is defined as slowing the rate of bacteria growth A) TRUE B) FALSE

Answer 30

A) TRUE

Question 31

The concentration of chlorhexidine gluconate in original Corsodyl mouthwash is A) 2.0% B) 0.1% C) 0.06% D) 0.2% E) None of those listed

Answer 31

D) 0.2%

Question 32

Which the following is not a side effect of overuse of chlorhexidine? A) Staining B) Taste disturbance C) Oral Desquamation D) Whitening E) Burning tongue

Answer 32

D) Whitening

Question 33

Select the appropriate words that are appropriate for the acronym ABCDE relevant to a medical emergency. A. Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, Exposure B. Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, Expose C. Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disabled, Exposure D. Airway, Breathe, Circulation, Disability, Exposure E. Airway, Breathing, Circulate, Disability, Exposure

Answer 33

A. Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, Exposure

Question 34

Select the appropriate words that are appropriate for the acronym SBAR relevant to a medical emergency. A. Situate, Background, Assessment, Recommendation B. Situation, Background, Assess, Recommendation C. Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommend D. Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation E. Situation, Background, Assessment, Reverse

Answer 34

D. Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation

Question 35

Select the medical emergency drugs that should be found within a dental practice. select one or more Midazolam Hydrocortisone Ibuprofen Aspirin GTN GNT Salbutamol Glucagon Amlodipine, Glucose, Clindomycin

Answer 35

Midazolam Aspirin GTN Salbutamol Glucagon Glucose

Question 36

CASE VIGNETTE 1 Anna your patient is in the waiting rooms and starts to complain that she is feeling itchy and her tongue is swelling up. Anna has a severe nut allergy and she thinks she has just eaten something with sesame seeds. A. What might medical emergency is Anna most likely experiencing? (1 mark) B. What other signs or symptoms may Anna experience? (4 marks) C. Which drug is the appropriate choice to manage this medical emergency? (1 mark) D. Select the appropriate route of administration for this drug (1 mark): i. Oral ii. Intra-venous iii. Sublingual iv. Intra-muscular v. Subcutaneous E. Select the correct dosage of this drug (1 mark): i. 50mg/ 0.5ml concentration of 1:1000 ii. 500mg/ 0.5ml concentration of 1:1000 iii. 1000mg/ 0.5ml concentration of 1:500 iv. 500mg/ 1ml concentration of 1:1000 v. 5000mg/ 0.5ml concentration of 1:1000

Answer 36

A. Anaphylaxis B: Angioedema (swelling) * Flushing * Urticaria (rash) * Respiratory distress * Stridor /wheezing * Hypotension * Tachycardia ↑ heartrate * Difficulty breathing C. Adrenaline D. iv. Intra-muscular E. ii. 500mg/ 0.5ml concentration of 1:1000

Question 37

CASE VIGNETTE 2 You are undertaking a history from Mr Fletcher as you are talking to him, you notice he is staring at you, his speech becomes slurred and his face starts to droop. A. What might medical emergency is Mr Fletcher most likely experiencing? (1 mark) B. Which drug is the appropriate choice to manage this medical emergency? (1 mark) C. Select the correct dosage of this drug (1 mark) i. 150 Litres/per min ii. 15 Litres/per min iii. 5 Litres/per min iv. 15 Litres/per hour v. 15 Litres/per 5 min

Answer 37

A. stroke B. Oxygen C. ii. 15 Litres/per min

Question 38

CASE VIGNETTE 3 You are in the middle of treatment with Mr Sayers, he is known to have angina. He starts to complain of chest pain, he says it feels like an elephant is sitting on his chest. A. What might medical emergency is Mr Sayers most likely experiencing? (1 mark) B. Which drug is the appropriate choice to manage this medical emergency? (1 mark) Glyceryl trinitrate C. Select the appropriate route of administration for this drug (1 mark) i. Oral ii. Intra-venous iii. Sublingual iv. Intra-muscular v. Subcutaneous D. Mr Sayers has been unresponsive to his GTN spray for the last 5 mins. What you be your next course of action? (3 marks)

Answer 38

A. Angina attack B. Glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) C. iii. Sublingual D. * Aspirin unless allergic * Call 999 SBAR * Be prepared for CPR

Question 39

Link the correct drug with the correct medical emergency (6 marks) Adrenaline Aspirin Midazolam GTN spray Glucagon Salbutamol

Answer 39

Adrenaline - Anaphylaxis Aspirin - Myocardial infarction Midazolam - Epileptic Seizure GTN spray - Angina attack Glucagon - Hypoglycaemia Salbutamol - Asthma attack

Question 40

Define extrinsic stain (2 marks)

Answer 40

Extrinsic stains are defined as stains located on the outer surfaces of the tooth structure and caused by topical or extrinsic agents. These stains can be removed.

Question 41

Define intrinsic stain (2 marks)

Answer 41

Intrinsic stains are defined as stains within the tooths structure and caused by internal or intrinsic agents. These stains cannot be removed.

Question 42

How might a patient be more at risk of staining? (4 marks)

Answer 42

Would accept: Poor OHI and why Manual dexterity Pre disposed factors Age of patient and why Socio economic group and why

Question 43

List four agents that cause extrinsic staining (4 marks)

Answer 43

Smoking Chlorhexidine Tea Coffee Plaque accumulation Chromogenic bacteria Metal dust Iron tablets

Question 44

List four agents that cause intrinsic staining (4 marks)

Answer 44

Defects during development Extrinsic becomes intrinsic Restorative procedures Fluoride Tetracycline Haemorrhage into pulp Tooth died non vital pulp Decalcification (ortho/localised) Amalgam ions leaked into tooths structure Dentinogenesis Imperfecta Amelogenesis Imperfecta Enamel Hypoplasia

Question 45

Define exogenous staining 1 mark

Answer 45

Originates from a source outside of the tooth but has become incorporated into the tooth structure

Question 46

Define endogenous staining 1 mark

Answer 46

Originates from within the tooths structure

Question 47

Give three reasons why we should remove stains 3 marks

Answer 47

Aesthetics Nidus for plaque retention Colours calculus Rough therefore plaque retentive

Question 48

what causes the below stains? (7 marks) pink Green Yellow Brown Grey (metallic) extrinsic Grey (intrinsic) Black/brown

Answer 48

pink = Haemorrhage in pulp chamber Green = Chromogenic bacteria and fungi Yellow = Dental plaque Brown = Smoking, pipe smoking Grey (metallic) extrinsic = Metal dust/iron tablets Grey (intrinsic) = Pulp death Black/brown = Betel Nut

Question 49

List the methods used for intrinsic stain removal 4 marks

Answer 49

Micro abrasion Veneers Bleaching vital/non vital Composite restorations

Question 50

List the methods used for extrinsic stain removal 4 marks

Answer 50

OHI Polishing PDS Hand debridement Air flow bleaching

Question 51

What length is the short (blue) needle? 25mm 22mm 20mm

Answer 51

25mm

Question 52

What is the length of the long (yellow) needle? 30 mm and 25 gauge 35mm and 27 gauge 30mm and 25 gauge

Answer 52

35mm and 27 gauge

Question 53

What are the contents of a dental LA cartridge? a) Analgesic agent, vasodilator, oxidising agent, vehicle b) Anaesthetic agent, vasoconstrictor, reducing agent, vehicle c) Analgesic agent, vasoconstrictor, reducing agent, vehicle

Answer 53

C) analgesic agent, vasoconstrictor, reducing agent, vehicle

Question 54

Lidocaine, Prilocaine, Mepivacaine and Articaine are Amides True or false?

Answer 54

True

Question 55

What is the concentration of Lidocaine with epinephrine used in dentistry? a)Lidocaine 1% with epinephrine 1:80,000 b)Lidocaine 2% with epinephrine 1:800,000 c)Lidocaine 2% with epinephrine 1:80,000

Answer 55

c)Lidocaine 2% with epinephrine 1:80,000

Question 56

How many milliliter's (ml) are in a dental local anaesthetic cartridge? a) 2.2ml b)2ml c)3.3ml

Answer 56

a) 2.2ml

Question 57

Citanest 4% plain contains a vasoconstrictor True or false?

Answer 57

False

Question 58

hat's the name of the vasoconstrictor with Citanest 3% ? a) None b)Epinephrine c)Octapressin (Felypressin)

Answer 58

c)Octapressin (Felypressin)

Question 59

Concentration of septanest cartridge? a) 4% articaine with epinephrine 1:80,000 b) 4% articaine with epinephrine 1:100,000 c) 2% articaine with epinephrine 1:80,000

Answer 59

b) 4% articaine with epinephrine 1:100,000

Question 60

A vasoconstrictor is used because it... a)Increases depth and duration of anaesthesia b) Reduces post operative bleeding c)Relaxes the patient

Answer 60

a)Increases depth and duration of anaesthesia

Question 61

Once you have used your LA needle, to re-sheath, you put the blue cap over the needle to make it sage True or false

Answer 61

false

Question 62

CASE VIGNETTE - MOCK EXAM What is angina pectoris? What can you use to treat it? How is it delivered? What conditions can it lead to that are more serious? What signs/ symptoms indicate its more serious? What can you give to the patient to make him more comfortable?

Answer 62

When your blood vessels constrict so not enough oxygen gets delivered to your oxygen, resulting in chest pain. GTN spray Sublingual If patient collapses or loses consciousness Myocardial infarction / heart attack/ angina attack/ cardiac arrest Aspirin unless allergic, Oxygen

Question 63

Below are all the medical emergency drugs, list their uses and doses: Adrenaline Glyceryl Trinitrate (GTN) spray Salbutamol (bronchodilator) Dispersable aspirin Glucose Glucagon Midazolam Oxygen

Answer 63

Adrenaline : Anaphylalxis, Intramuscular injection, 500mg/ 0.5ml concentration of 1:1000 (adults) Glyceryl Trinitrate (GTN) spray: Angina or suspected heart attack, 2 actuations sub-lingually (usually 400ug) Salbutamol (bronchodilator): Asthma, 2 actuations inhaled(delivered through oral cavity and inhaled into airway), 100mg , if patient not responding use oxygen Dispersable aspirin: Suspected cardiac conditions, oral - chewed, 300mg - check for allergy Glucose: Hypoglycaemia (co-operative and conscious patient, taken orally, 15-20mg Glucagon: Severe Hypoglycaemia (unconscious patient), intramuscular injection, Dosage 1mg per vial Midazolam : Status Epilepticus, oral bucal mucosa (pop vial and into oral actvity), 10mg Adult Oxygen: Stroke, delivered with mask, 15 Litres/per min

Question 64

What are the signs, symptoms, triggers, management and prevention for ANAPHYLAXIS?

Answer 64

Sign: Sudden onset Angioedema (swelling), Flushing , Urticaria (rash), Respiratory distress, Stridor /wheezing, Hypotension ,Tachycardia ↑ heartrate Symptoms: May complain of itchiness Difficulty breathing Feels tongue or face swelling up Triggers: Known allergy; food, drugs, latex May be unknown Management: ABCDE / Remove trigger Call 999 SBAR Lie flat/elevate legs Give Oxygen 15L/ min Intramuscular injection Adrenalin 500mg/ 0.5ml Repeat after 5 mins until an adequate response Prevention: Risk assessment Taking a history Preparation Communicate with team

Question 65

What are the signs, symptoms, triggers, management and prevention for ASTHMA?

Answer 65

Signs: Difficulty breathing , Expiratory wheezing Breathlessness, Fast Pulse, RR > 25/min Pulse >110/min Life threatening 999: Cyanosis, Exhaustion, Level of consciousness, RR<8/min,Pulse <50/min Symptoms: May start saying cannot breathe May look for inhaler, Exhaustion Triggers: Allergy, Fear , Stress, Extreme weather, Pollutants Management: ABCDE, Assess situation if life threatening 999 SBAR If able, sit upright Support pt in having 2 puffs of Salbutamol continue to maximum of 10 puffs over 2 mins. Provide O2 15L/min If no improvement call 999 SBAR Keep taking inhaler every 2 mins until help arrives.

Question 66

What are the signs, symptoms, triggers, management and prevention for EPILEPSY?

Answer 66

Sign: May lose consciousness , Cry out as if in pain, Body becomes rigid, Noisy breathing , Jerking movements ,Frothing at mouth, Incontinence Symptom: May say can smell flowers May feel an aura triggers: Fear / Stress, Brain injury , Alcohol withdrawal, Raised body temperature, Meningitis , Brain tumours Manangement: ABCDE, Clear all instruments away and stop treatment. Remove foreign objects from patients mouth and any instruments away from patients. If in dental chair – place in supine / lower it Or if standing ease to the floor place cushion under head. Protect pt head with pillow Do not restrain or put anything in the mouth Call for help Time the seizure Call 999 if more than 5 mins SBAR Give O2 15L/min If more than 5 mins administer Midazolam orobuccally – 10mg adult Reassure patient and parent once seizure has ended. Don’t touch patient, only do so if they are gonna harm themselves or bump into objects.

Question 67

What are the signs, symptoms, triggers, management and prevention for Faint/Syncope/Vasovagal attack?

Answer 67

Sign: Pale , Sweating, Slow pulse, Low BP Symptoms: Complains, Feeling dizzy, Light headed, Feeling sick / nausea Triggers: Fear , Stress, Hunger Management: ABCDE Lie flat Elevate legs Once consciousness regained offer glucose drink If slow recovery reconsider diagnosis Unresponsive check for signs of life

Question 68

What are the signs, symptoms, triggers, management and prevention for STROKE? What is ischemic stroke?

Answer 68

Ischaemic strokes are the most common type of stroke. They happen when a blood clot blocks the flow of blood and oxygen to the brain. These blood clots typically form in areas where the arteries have been narrowed or blocked over time by fatty deposits (plaques). This process is known as atherosclerosis. Sign: Face -dropping, Arms -limp, Speech - slurred, Time – call 999 (act F A S T) Symptom: Trigger: Obesity, Cholesterol, Diabetes, Stress, Lack of exercise , chronic smoking, high blood pressure (hypertension) Management: Act fast and call 999 SBAR Give oxygen to the patient 15L/min Make the patient as comfortable Do not give ASPIRIN

Question 69

What are the signs, symptoms, triggers, management and prevention for HYPOGLYCAEMIA?

Answer 69

Sign: Shaking trembling , Slurred speech, Sweating , Temors , Blurred vision, Confusion and aggression, Low blood glucose recording less than 4 mmol/ L or 72mg/dl, Unconsciousness Symptom: Feels shaky , Feels dizzy, Heart racing Triggers: , Stress, Anxiety, Missing medication. Not eating , Alcohol, Change in diet Management: ABCDE, Conscious patient: Offer 15-20g quick-acting glucose. Not chocolate because fat content slows absorption If patient is unable to safely swallow or unconscious (severe hypoglycamia) Call 999 SBAR. Adult give Glucagon 1mg Intramuscular 0.5 mg for children under the age of 8years old. Once conscious follow up with oral glucose.

Question 70

What are the signs, symptoms, triggers, management and prevention for Adrenal crisis?

Answer 70

sign: Collapse, Pallor, Hypotension, Vomiting, Diarrhoea symptom: Feeling Dizzy , Feeling nauseous Triggers: Stress, Anxiety, Missing medication In appropriate management Management: ABCDE Call 999 ‘Addisonian Crisis’ Lie flat Give Oxygen 15L/min Use patients hydrocortisone emergency IM kit 100mg Intra muscular injection Prevention: Risk assessment Taking a history Preparation Drugs prior to treatment Communicate with team Bring emergency hydrocortisone & adrenal crisis letter

Question 71

What are the signs, symptoms, triggers, management and prevention for Sepsis?

Answer 71

sign: Patient looks really unwell , If one red flag is present: Heart rate <130 per minue Needs O2 to keep oxygen saturation at 92% Non blanching Not passed urine in 18 hours Symptom: Doesnt feel well Triggers: Chemotherapy within last 6 weeks Infection Management: ABCDE Call 999 ‘Red Flag Sepsis’ SBAR Give Oxygen 15L/min Pre-alert RED FLAG SEPSIS REFER TO GDP RED FLAG SEPSIS TOOL

Question 72

What are the signs, symptoms, triggers, management and prevention for CARDIAC EMERGENCIES: ANGINA MI CARDIAC ARREST

Answer 72

SIGNS AND SYMPTOMS OF ALL: Sudden onset Chest pain/ crushing /pressure / heaviness Pain in possible arm/ neck/jaw and possibly stomach , Sweaty / light headed, Nausea ANGINA: If known angina patient. Patient does not loose consciousness GTN Spray 400-800Ug 2 actuation No relief repeat Aspirin unless allergic Call 999 SBAR Be prepared for CPR MYOCARDIAL INFARCTION: - Death of myocardial heart muscle caused by loss of blood supply usually by a blood clot. Potentially very serious depending on the size of dead heart muscle. Patient may loose consciousness Aspirin unless allergic Call 999 SBAR Be prepared for CPR CARDIAC ARREST: Sudden loss of heart function. Patient collapses and looses consciousness Call 999 SBAR CPR