ODS Flashcards
(135 cards)
1
Q
Choose one of the following statements which is FALSE regarding the function of DNA in the production of protein:
a.
DNA controls the quality of protein production
b.
DNA controls the timing of protein production
c.
DNA controls the structure of protein production
d.
DNA controls the quantity of protein production
A
a.
DNA controls the quality of protein production
2
Q
Choose one of the following statements which is FALSE regarding the study of genetics:
a.
Genetics is the study on function of the specific DNA sequence
b.
Genetics is the study on function of the single gene
c.
Genetics is the study on function of heredity
d.
Genetics is the study on function of proteins
A
d.
Genetics is the study on function of proteins
3
Q
Select the correct pairing of genetic condition resulting from a genetic variant.
a.
Cystic Fibrosis and Achondroplasia
b.
Down’s Syndrome and Sickle Cell Anaemia
c.
Achondroplasia and Down’s Syndrome
d.
Sickle Cell Anaemia and Cystic Fibrosis
A
b.
Down’s Syndrome and Sickle Cell Anaemia
4
Q
Select the correct pairing of genetic condition resulting from a single gene change.
a.
Achondroplasia and Down’s Syndrome
b.
Cystic Fibrosis and Achondroplasia
c.
Down’s Syndrome and Sickle Cell Anaemia
d.
Sickle Cell Anaemia and Cystic Fibrosis
A
b.
Cystic Fibrosis and Achondroplasia
5
Q
Select the FALSE pairing of clinical implication of human genetics in dentistry.
a.
Ethical and social impact of care plan
b.
Future prevention and ethnic impact of care plan
c.
Social and future prevention impact of care plan
d.
Legal and ethical impact of care plan
A
b.
Future prevention and ethnic impact of care plan
6
Q
Select the following tooth condition that is NOT influenced by human genetic:
a.
Enamel demineralisation
b.
Enamel hypoplasia
c.
Enamel deficiency
d.
Enamel hyperplasia
A
a.
Enamel demineralisation
7
Q
Select the statement that is FALSE regarding Mendel’s Principle of Inheritance.
a.
Alleles have alternate forms
b.
Alleles have specific segregation
c.
Phenotype are distinct
d.
Phenotype reflects ‘dominant’ allele
A
b.
Alleles have specific segregation
8
Q
A well-organized community of bacteria that adheres to surfaces and is embedded in an extracellular slime layer is termed:
Select one:
a.
Biofilm
b.
Bacterial microcolony
c.
Anaerobic
d.
Aerobic
A
a.
Biofilm
9
Q
Bacteria attachment zones can be defined into distinct areas, select the most appropriate response:
Select one:
a.
Enamel, cementum and dentine
b.
Supra and sub gingival
c.
Dorsum and ventral
d.
Anterior and posterior
e.
Tooth attached, tissue attached and unattached
A
e.
Tooth attached, tissue attached and unattached
10
Q
Bacteria that have a double cell membranes and that do not stain purple with crystal violet are called:
Select one:
a.
Anaerobic
b.
Aerobic
c.
Gram Negative
d.
Gram positive
A
a.
Anaerobic (but chatgpt says this is wrong and should be gram negative)
11
Q
Microbial plaque is considered the primary cause of periodontal disease:
a.
False
b.
True
A
b.
True
12
Q
Plaque biofilms are best removed by using mouthwash and adjustive chemical agents
a.
False
b.
True
A
a.
False
13
Q
The term biofilm can be defined as a complex dynamic microbial community embedded within extracellular matrix
a.
True
b.
False
A
a.
True
14
Q
the term biofilm can be defined as a simple dynamic microbial community embedded within extracellular matrix
Select one:
a.
False
b.
True
A
a.
False
15
Q
Which of the following would be most effective in controlling the bacteria in a dental plaque biofilm?
Select one:
a.
Systemic antibiotic (an antibiotic pill)
b.
Toothbrush and floss
c.
Very high doses of an antibiotic
d.
Antimicrobial agent
A
b.
Toothbrush and floss
16
Q
Which structure of a biofilm facilitates the movement of nutrients to the bacteria?
Select one:
a.
Fluid channels
b.
Extracellular slime layer
c.
Primitive communication system
d.
Acquired pellicle
A
a.
Fluid channels (but second moodle answer says extracellular slime layer)
17
Q
A more recent revised aetiological classification has been proposed which further divides pathological halitosis into how many types?
Select one:
a.
6
b.
5
c.
7
A
a.
6
18
Q
How can halitosis be managed by the dental hygienist/dental therapist?
Select one or more:
a.
Smoking and alcohol cessation
b.
Chlorhexidine mouthwash
c.
Fluoride varnish application
d.
Diet Advice
e.
Treatment of periodontal condition
f.
Xerostomia advice
g.
Oral hygiene instruction
A
a.
Smoking and alcohol cessation
d.
Diet Advice
e.
Treatment of periodontal condition
f.
Xerostomia advice
g.
Oral hygiene instruction
19
Q
The gold standard measure of halitosis is
Select one:
a.
Sulphide monitoring
b.
BANA test
c.
Organoleptic measurements
A
c.
Organoleptic measurements
20
Q
What percentage of halitosis cases originate from the oral cavity?
A) 10%
B) 90%
C) 60%
A
B) 90%
21
Q
Genuine halitosis can be sub-divided into:
A) Pseudohalitosis and Physiologic
B) Pathologic and Pseudohalitosis
C) Physiologic and Pathologic
A
C) Physiologic and Pathologic
22
Q
Halitophobia can be described as
A) A transient oral malodour
B) A fear of others noticing an individual has oral malodour
C) Oral malodour originating from a non-oral cause
A
B) A fear of others noticing an individual has oral malodour
23
Q
Which of the following are potential oral causes of halitosis?
A) Xerostomia
B) Tonsillitis
C) Cleft Palate
D) ANUG
E) Dry Socket
F) Orthodontic Appliance
A
A) Xerostomia
D) ANUG
E) Dry Socket
F) Orthodontic Appliance
24
Q
Which of the following are potential non-oral/other causes of halitosis?
A) Diabetic Ketoacidosis
B) Alcohol
C) Poor Oral Hygiene
D) Peri-Implantitis
E) Gastric Reflux
F) Sinusitis
A
A) Diabetic Ketoacidosis
B) Alcohol
E) Gastric Reflux
F) Sinusitis
25
What are the main compounds responsible for intra-oral halitosis?
A) Volatile Sulphur Compounds
B) Very Smelly Compounds
C) Violent Sulphide Compounds
A) Volatile Sulphur Compounds
26
When should the dental hygienist/dental therapist consider an onward referral?
A) Run out of options
B) Halitophobia
C) Suspicious lesion
D) Halitosis persists after addressing intra-oral cause
E) When halitosis is noticed as not within scope of practice
B) Halitophobia
C) Suspicious lesion
D) Halitosis persists after addressing intra-oral cause
27
A patient with a thin gingival biotype will have
Question 1Select one:
a.
Delicate gingival tissue, translucent in appearance with a minimal zone of attached gingiva.
b.
Delicate gingival tissue that and almost translucent in appearance.
c.
Delicate gingival tissue that is delicate and almost translucent in appearance.
d.
Delicate gingival tissue that will be almost translucent
a.
Delicate gingival tissue, translucent in appearance with a minimal zone of attached gingiva.
28
Gingival recession can be seen in the following patients
Select one:
a.
In rapid orthodontic movement in children
b.
In rapid orthodontic movement in adults.
c.
In patients who never brush their teeth
d.
In all orthodontic therapy patients
b.
In rapid orthodontic movement in adults.
29
Patients with gingival recession frequently complain of sensitive teeth
Select one:
a.
False
b.
True
b.
True
30
The relevant anatomical landmarks when measuring recession include from the cemento-enamel junction (CEJ) to the base of the periodontal pocket
Select one:
a.
False
b.
True
a.
False
31
Describe in detail 5 inflammatory causative associated with gingival recession (5 marks)
Gingival biotype
Periodontal disease
Smoking
Poor marginal fit of restoration
Orthodontic movement
32
Describe in detail 5 mechanical causative factors associated with gingival recession (5 marks )
Toothbrush trauma
Traumatic incisor relationship
Trauma from foreign body
Abnormal frenal attachment
Iatrogenic damage
33
Describe in detail the impact of gingival recession on the patient (7 marks)
Aesthetic considerations
Root caries
Food trap
Plaque stagnation
Confidence Speaking
Discomfort e.g. eating and food trapping
34
What are the relevant anatomical landmarks when measuring recession ?
From the Cement Enamel Junction (CEJ) to the gingival margin = RECESSION
35
What do you understand by the term Loss of Attachment (LOA) and how is it measured? (2 marks)
It is a termed used to assess current periodontal status in addition to possible historical periodontal tissue loss. It is a combination of recession and probing depth combined
36
What is meant by the term thin gingival biotype?
The gingival tissue tends to be delicate and almost translucent in appearance. The tissue appears friable with a minimal zone of attached gingiva
37
What is a gingival veneer and when would it be clinically indicated ?
A removable acrylic facing that improves the aesthetics in a patient with advanced and generalised recession
38
Why do patients with gingival recession frequently complain of sensitive teeth?
Recession uncovers the root surface dentine creating hypersensitivity for the patient
39
Calculus is considered a risk factor because:
Select one:
a.
The surface of calculus can damage the adjacent soft tissue through direct trauma
b.
The surface of calculus is irregular and provides a place for bacteria to grow undisturbed
c.
The bacteria derive many of their needed nutrients from the hard calculus deposits
d.
Calculus is the primary cause of periodontal disease
b.
The surface of calculus is irregular and provides a place for bacteria to grow undisturbed
40
Dental calculus is mineralised petrified dental plaque and does not directly cause to progression of periodontal disease
Select one:
a.
True
b.
False
a.
True
41
Kate attends the dental surgery presenting complaining that she always forms calculus on her lower anterior linguals and upper buccal molars. You reassured Kate with the following information (Select the most appropriate answer)
Select one:
a.
Kate is more at risk for forming calculus in these areas as they are located near salivary glands
b.
There is a genetic link on where people form calculus
c.
Kate is predisposed to forming calculus in these areas
d.
Kate is just unlucky
e.
Kate is may have a high calcium diet and this means she will make more calculus
a.
Kate is more at risk for forming calculus in these areas as they are located near salivary glands
42
Methods of calculus detection are:
Select one or more:
a.
Vision
b.
Asking the patient to let you know
c.
Probing
d.
Radiographs
a.
Vision
c.
Probing
d.
Radiographs
43
Sam has had several crowns and implants fitted seven months ago. He has only attended the dental hygiene appointment for the first time since the prosthesis were fitted. (Select the most appropriate answer)
Select one:
a.
Sam only needs to attend appointments when relevant as plaque and calculus growth rate is slowed on prosthetic appliances
b.
Sam is at risk of plaque and calculus growth on his prosthetic appliances and must attend dental hygiene appointments regularly
c.
Sam is able to provide his own self care plan and use over the counter tools to maintain his prosthetic appliances.
b.
Sam is at risk of plaque and calculus growth on his prosthetic appliances and must attend dental hygiene appointments regularly
44
Supra and sub gingival calculus both derive their minerals from saliva
Select one:
a.
True
b.
False
b.
False
45
The composition of dental calculus consists of organic & inorganic substances
Select one:
a.
True
b.
False
a.
True
46
The composition of inorganic material in dental calculus is 10-30%
Select one:
a.
False
b.
True
a.
False
47
Which of the following is NOT a mechanism for attachment of calculus to a tooth surface?
Select one:
a.
Attachment by direct contact of the calcified component and the tooth surface
b.
Attachment to the blood clots that can form on the tooth
c.
Attachment by means of pellicle
d.
Attachment to irregularities that occur in the surface of a tooth
b.
Attachment to the blood clots that can form on the tooth
48
The action of which muscle is to compress and protrude the lips?
Select one:
a.
Occipitofrontalis
b.
Orbicularis Oris
c.
Orbicularis Oculi
d.
Mentalis
b.
Orbicularis Oris
49
The Depressor Anguli Oris originates beneath the angle of the mandible, and inserts into the corner of the mouth
Select one:
a.
False
b.
True
b.
True
50
The Levator Labii Superioris originates from the canine fossa and elevates the corner of the mouth
Select one:
a.
False
b.
True
a.
False
51
Which muscle is innervated by the cervical branch of the facial nerve?
Select one:
a.
Procerus
b.
Posterior Auricular
c.
Platysma
d.
Risorius
c.
Platysma
52
Which muscle is supplied by the masseteric nerve?
Select one:
a.
Digastric
b.
Buccinator
c.
Masseter
d.
Lateral Pterygoid
c.
Masseter
53
Which muscle is supplied by the temporal branch of the facial nerve?
Select one:
a.
Temporalis
b.
Occipitofrontalis
c.
Nasalis
b.
Occipitofrontalis
54
Which muscle of facial expression is being described: originates from the bridge of the nose, supplied by the temporal artery and pulls the eyebrows medially?
Select one:
a.
Palpebrae
b.
Occipitofrontalis
c.
Procerus
d.
Corrugator
d.
Corrugator
55
Which muscle of mastication is being described: fan shaped muscle, inserts into the coronoid process and ramus of the mandible, elevates the mandible, supplied by the deep temporal nerve
Select one:
a.
Lateral Pterygoid
b.
Temporalis
c.
Genioglossus
d.
Masseter
b.
Temporalis
56
Which muscle of mastication is being described: short thick muscles originating from 2 heads, upper head originates from the greater wing of the sphenoid bone, inserts into the pterygoid fovea, opens and protrudes the mouth.
Select one:
a.
Lateral Pterygoid
b.
Medial Pterygoid
c.
Digastric
d.
Masseter
a.
Lateral Pterygoid
57
Which of these is not a movement of the mandible?
Select one:
a.
Protrusion
b.
Abduction
c.
Depression
d.
Elevation
e.
Retraction
f.
Rotation
b.
Abduction
58
At what age do the first permanent molars calcify?
Select one:
a.
6-7 years
b.
Birth/just before
c.
4-5 months
d.
2-3 years
b.
Birth/just before
59
At what age does the first permanent tooth erupt?
Select one:
a.
5-6 years
b.
6-7 months
c.
7-8 years
d.
6-7 years
b.
6-7 months
60
Knowing the sequence of eruption/exfoliation helps to identify and explain anomalies such as Molar-incisor hypomineralisation (MIH)
Select one:
a.
False
b.
True
b.
True
61
The order of eruption for deciduous dentition is:
Select one:
a.
A B D C E
b.
A B C D E
c.
B A D C E
d.
A B C E D
a.
A B D C E
62
What is the order of eruption for maxillary permanent dentition?
Select one:
a.
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
b.
6 1 2 4 5 3 7 8
c.
6 1 2 3 4 5 7 8
d.
6 1 3 2 4 5 7 8
b.
6 1 2 4 5 3 7 8
63
Which permanent tooth erupts first?
Select one:
a.
Maxillary central incisor
b.
Second permanent molar
c.
Mandibular central incisor
d.
First permanent molar
d.
First permanent molar
64
A cumulative BEWE score of 18 for a patient means:
Select one:
a.
There is less than 50% tooth wear in all sextants
b.
There is a severe amount of tooth wear evident
c.
There is more than 50% tooth wear in each sextant
d.
There is a moderate amount of tooth wear evident
c.
There is more than 50% tooth wear in each sextant
65
Clinical signs of dental erosion include (select 2):
Select one or more:
a.
Jagged deep cavities on the incisal surfaces of anterior teeth
b.
Early lesions on the mesial and distal surfaces of first permanent molars
c.
Scooped out lesions on the occlusal surfaces of the first permanent molars
d.
Labial surface lesions on the maxillary incisors
e.
Smooth, flat facets on the occlusal surfaces of posterior teeth
c.
Scooped out lesions on the occlusal surfaces of the first permanent molars
d.
Labial surface lesions on the maxillary incisors
66
Dental abrasion is tooth wear resulting from:
Select one:
a.
Frequent exposure to objects/factors other than teeth or acids
b.
Erosion of the buccal and labial surfaces
c.
Frequent exposure to acids
d.
Tooth-to-tooth contact
e.
A combination of occlusal forces at the cervical region
a.
Frequent exposure to objects/factors other than teeth or acids
67
Dentine hypersensitivity symptoms:
Select one:
a.
May signify active tooth wear in enamel only
b.
May be a sign of active tooth wear if dentine is exposed
c.
Can indicate that tooth wear is stable
d.
Are not relevant in the aeitiology of tooth wear
b.
May be a sign of active tooth wear if dentine is exposed
68
In preventing dental erosion, dietary advice should include:
Select one:
a.
Recommending salt water mouth rinses to buffer acids
b.
Encouraging healthy eating with a high consumption of fruits
c.
Limiting acid consumption to three or less times per day
d.
Recommending small frequent meals to limit exposure to acids
e.
Avoiding brushing teeth within 10 minutes of acid attacks
c.
Limiting acid consumption to three or less times per day
69
In the BEWE, a sextant score of 2 is given for:
select one:
a.
A sextant where there is more than 50% loss of tooth structure
b.
A sextant where there is less than 50% loss of tooth structure
c.
A quadrant where there is less than 50% loss of tooth structure
d.
A quadrant where there is more than 50% loss of tooth structure
b.
A sextant where there is less than 50% loss of tooth structure
70
In the BEWE, a sextant score of 3 is given for:
Select one:
a.
A quadrant where there is less than 50% loss of tooth structure
b.
A quadrant where there is more than 50% loss of tooth structure
c.
A sextant where there is less than 50% loss of tooth structure
d.
A sextant where there is more than 50% loss of tooth structure
d.
A sextant where there is more than 50% loss of tooth structure
71
Select the incorrect statement:
Select one:
a.
Tooth wear prevalence increases with age
b.
Tooth wear is reversible
c.
Tooth wear is multifactorial, often a combination of dental erosion, dental abrasion and dental attrition
d.
Tooth wear is difficult to detect in the early stages
e.
Tooth wear can result from frequent exposure to acids external and internal
b.
Tooth wear is reversible
72
The BEWE acronym stands for;
Question 9Select one:
a.
Basic Erosion Wear Exam
b.
Basic Erosive Wear Exposure
c.
Basic Tooth Wear Examination
d.
Basic Erosive Wear Examination
d.
Basic Erosive Wear Examination
73
The critical pH of enamel is:
Select one:
a.
6.5
b.
7
c.
4.5
d.
5.5
d.
5.5
74
The critical pH of enamel:
Select one:
a.
Reduces when fluoride is incorporated in the structure of enamel
b.
Is not significant in the aeitiology of tooth wear
c.
Is the point at which enamel remineralises
d.
Increases when the tooth surface is exposed to acids
a.
Reduces when fluoride is incorporated in the structure of enamel
75
The main purpose of the BEWE tool is:
Select one:
a.
To measure erosive tooth wear
b.
To screen for signs of tooth wear
c.
To prevent tooth wear
d.
To monitor the progression of tooth wear
b.
To screen for signs of tooth wear
76
The prevalence of tooth wear is significantly associated with agE. This means that:
Select one:
a.
The younger you are, the more tooth wear you experience
b.
As people age, they are more likely to experience tooth wear
c.
The older you are, the more tooth wear you experience
d.
Over time, tooth wear increases
b.
As people age, they are more likely to experience tooth wear
77
Tooth wear where the dominant aietioloical factor is tooth-tooth contact is called:
Select one:
a.
Dental attrition
b.
Dental abrasion
c.
Dental erosion
d.
Dental abfraction
a.
Dental attrition
78
When assessing a patients’ risk of tooth wear, it is essential to consider:
Select one:
a.
The rate and severity of wear compared to the patients’ age
b.
The shape of the incisal edges
c.
The significance of dentine exposed
d.
The rate of aging compared to the severity of tooth surface lost
a.
The rate and severity of wear compared to the patients’ age
79
When dentine is exposed, the minimum BEWE score for the sextant would be:
Select one:
a.
2
b.
3
c.
1
d.
No score
e.
0
a.
2
80
Where there are no signs of tooth wear in a sextant, the BEWE score would be:
Select one:
a.
3
b.
0
c.
1
d.
2
e.
No score
b.
0
81
Which salivary factor enhances the protection of the teeth against tooth wear:
Select one:
a.
Buffering action of stimulated saliva that neutralises oral acids
b.
Quality of unstimulated saliva bathing the teeth during acid exposure
c.
Frothy saliva quality where the bubbles neutralise oral acids
d.
Reduced saliva quantity enabling acids to contact the teeth
a.
Buffering action of stimulated saliva that neutralises oral acids
82
Which salivary factors can pre-dispose a patient to tooth wear?
Select one:
a.
Alkaline saliva reduces buffering capacity
b.
A lack of saliva exposing teeth to acids
c.
Increased buffering capacity to neutralize acids
d.
Reduced quantity and quality of saliva limiting protective potential
d.
Reduced quantity and quality of saliva limiting protective potential
83
Which statement best describes dental erosion:
Select one:
a.
Dental erosion is caused by acids produced by bacterial plaque
b.
Dental erosion is the reversible loss of enamel due to acids
c.
Dental erosion is the irreversible loss of hard tissue due to alkaline foods and drinks
d.
Dental erosion is the irreversible loss of hard tissue due to chemical process of acid dissolution
e.
Dental erosion is due to eating a diet consisting of acids
d.
Dental erosion is the irreversible loss of hard tissue due to chemical process of acid dissolution
84
Which of the following describes a secondary local factor in periodontal disease?
Select one or more:
A.
Something which makes it easier for the patient to clean their teeth
B.
Something which makes it difficult for the patient to maintain effective oral hygiene
C.
Something that increases the accumulation of plaque biofilm
D.
Some oral hygiene aids e.g., floss and interdental brushes
B.
Something which makes it difficult for the patient to maintain effective oral hygiene
C.
Something that increases the accumulation of plaque biofilm
Anything that increases the chances of plaque biofilm accumulation or retention can be termed as a secondary local factor. Anything that makes it difficult for the patient to maintain effective oral hygiene is a secondary local factor.
85
What is the main aetiological factor in periodontal disease?
Select one:
A.
Acid
B.
Sugar
C.
Calculus
D.
Plaque bacteria
D.
Plaque bacteria
86
Which of the following are developmental secondary local risk factors in periodontal disease?
Select the correct answers
Select one or more:
A.
Root grooves
B.
Tongue piercing
C.
Dens in dente
D.
Orthodontic appliance
E.
Porcelain veneer
A.
Root grooves
C.
Dens in dente
Developmental or natural local factors refers to factors such as calculus and anatomical tooth anomalies e.g., root grooves/concavities/dens in dente (upper laterals) /malpositioned teeth/ enamel pearls/incomplete lip seal & mouth breathing
87
Which of the following are iatrogenic secondary local risk factors in periodontal disease?
Select the correct answers
Select one or more:
A.
Amalgam overhang
B.
Mesially drifted molar
C.
Maryland bridge
D.
Gingival recession
E.
Enamel pearl
A.
Amalgam overhang
C.
Maryland bridge
Examples of iatrogenic secondary local risk factors are amalgam overhangs and Maryland bridge.
Iatrogenic refers to disease or damage to tissues caused by the clinician.
88
Calculus is identified as a secondary local factor for the following reasons:
Select the correct answer/s
Select one or more:
A.
It has a smooth surface
B.
It has a rough surface
C.
It is covered by a capsule
D.
It repels bacteria
E.
It is porous
B.
It has a rough surface
E.
It is porous
Calculus has a rough/ irregular surface and is porous, therefore bacteria will retain more readily.
89
A traumatic overbite can cause plaque retention due to:
Select one:
A.
Rotation of teeth
B.
Direct gingival trauma
C.
Erosion of the teeth
D.
Hardening of the gingivae
B.
Direct gingival trauma
A traumatic overbite may cause direct gingival trauma resulting in areas where plaque will accumulate or be retained more easily.
90
Which of the following may cause trauma which can be a secondary local risk factor for periodontal disease?
Select the correct answer/s
Select one or more:
A.
Lip piercing
B.
Occlusal caries
C.
Tongue piercing
D.
Traumatic overbite
A.
Lip piercing
C.
Tongue piercing
D.
Traumatic overbite
All of the answers are correct except occlusal caries. Trauma to the gingival margin can lead to increased plaque accumulation where bacteria will initiate or excacerbate periodontal disease.
Although caries can be seen as a secondary local factor, the question specifically refers to trauma being a risk for periodontal disease therefore the fact that the caries is on the occlusal surface is less likely to be a risk to the gingival margin- remember that periodontal disease is initiated in the periodontal margin/sulcus.
91
Your patient Charlie attends for oral hygiene coaching. They have a fixed orthodontic appliance, and it is your job to go over oral hygiene coaching with them. Charlie’s plaque score is 80%.
Which areas would you highlight in Charlie’s mouth when you are giving oral hygiene coaching?
Select one or more:
A.
Cleaning between the teeth with an interspace toothbrush or interdental brushes
B.
Cleaning above and below the orthodontic brackets and focusing in the area ‘where the gum meets the tooth’
C.
Advise to stop brushing if the gums bleed to allow them to heal
D.
Cleaning the insides and outsides of the teeth with a manual or electric toothbrush
A.
Cleaning between the teeth with an interspace toothbrush or interdental brushes
B.
Cleaning above and below the orthodontic brackets and focusing in the area ‘where the gum meets the tooth’
D.
Cleaning the insides and outsides of the teeth with a manual or electric toothbrush
Orthodontic appliances are particulalry difficult to keep clean due to the amount of brackets, rings, wires and sometimes elastic bands that the patient has to wear. Therefore giving efficiect oral hygiene coaching is essential to empower your patient to clean around the orthodontic appliance as well as the teeth
92
Whilst conducting a BPE on Mr Sanchy, you detect a groove palatally of the 12 (UR2). You realise this is a root groove. The prognosis for this tooth should be safe if the root groove extends to the apical portion of the root.
Select the appropriate answer
True
False
False.
Anything that is likely to create an area for bacteria to collect or harbour will lead to more risk for the patient in terms of periodontal disease as well as caries. A deep root groove will be inpenetrable for the patient as access will be difficult/impossible, therefore the prognosis of the tooth will be unfavourable.
Certain features on teeth that are likely to create an area for bacteria to be retained or harbour will lead to more risk for the patient in terms of periodontal disease as well as caries. A deep root groove will be inpenetrable for the patient as access will be difficult/impossible, therefore the prognosis of the tooth will be unfavourable.
Equally, the area will be difficult for the clinician to manage due to access and likely accelarated response of disease to the retained biofilm.
93
What are the functions of the incisors with regards to food?
Answer
A.
Crushing and grinding
B.
Tearing and chewing
C.
Grinding and chewing
D.
Slicing and cutting
D.
Slicing and cutting
94
At what age do the permanent mandibular central incisors generally erupt?
A.
6-7 years
B.
4-5 years
C.
7-8 years
D.
8-9 years
A.
6-7 years
95
Which permanent anterior tooth is likely to have the greatest degree of variation?
Answer
A.
maxillary central incisor
B.
mandibular lateral incisor
C.
mandibular central incisor
D.
maxillary lateral incisor
D.
maxillary lateral incisor
96
What is the function of the canines?
Answer
A.
gripping and tearing
B.
crushing and grinding
C.
slicing and cutting
D.
gripping and grinding
A.
gripping and tearing
97
Approximately which age do the permanent maxillary canines erupt in the mouth?
Answer
A.
13-15 years
B.
9-10 years
C.
7-8 years
D.
11-12 years
D.
11-12 years
98
The crowns of the maxillary canines appear slightly more yellow than the other teeth. Why?
Answer
A.
Due to a great bulk of enamel
B.
Due to a greater bulk of dentine.
C.
Due to a larger pulp chamber
D.
Due to a concave shape
B.
Due to a greater bulk of dentine.
99
The crown appears to lean distally. Poorly defined/no cingulum. Which permanent anterior tooth is this?
Answer
A.
Mandibular lateral incisor
B.
Maxillary canine
C.
Maxillary central incisor
D.
Mandibular canine
D.
Mandibular canine
100
How many fossae are present on the occlusal surfaces of the canines?
Answer
A.
4
B.
1
C.
2
D.
3
C.
2
There are 2 fossae present on the palatal surfaces of the canines
101
The mandibular canines can sometimes be seen to have a bifurcated root
True
False
True
102
The permanent mandibular central incisor is the widest anterior tooth.
True
False
False
The widest permanent anterior tooth is the maxillary central incisor.
103
What is the function of the premolars?
A.
Tearing and crushing
B.
Slicing and grinding
C.
Slicing and tearing
A.
Tearing and crushing
104
At what age does the maxillary first premolar erupt?
Answer
A.
9-10 years
B.
12-13 years
C.
10-11 years
D.
11-12 years
C.
10-11 years
105
There is a distinct depression on the mesial surface; there are 2 roots. Which tooth is this?
A.
Mandibular second premolar
B.
Maxillary first premolar
C.
Maxillary second premolar
D.
Mandibular first premolar
B.
Maxillary first premolar
106
Name the groove found on the mesial surface of the maxillary first premolar
A.
Canine fossa
B.
Marginal ridge
C.
Oblique ridge
D.
Cusp of Carabelli
A.
Canine fossa
107
How many cusps might the mandibular second premolar have?
Answer
A.
3-4
B.
4
C.
1-2
D.
2-3
D.
2-3
108
At which age approximately, does the mandibular first premolar erupt?
A.
13-14 years
B.
10-12 years
C.
8-9 years
D.
6-7 years
B.
10-12 years
109
What is the name of the triangular ridge that runs across the occlusal surface of the maxillary molars?
A.
oblique ridge
B.
buccal ridge
C.
distal marginal ridge
D.
mesial marginal ridge
A.
oblique ridge
110
The function of the molars is to crush, grind and chew
True
False
True
111
At what age does the maxillary second molar erupt?
A.
6-7 years
B.
8-9 years
C.
12-13 years
D.
10-11 years
C.
12-13 years
112
Which tooth has a 'Y' shaped fissure pattern occlusally?
A.
maxillary first molar
B.
Maxillary second molar
C.
Mandibular second molar
D.
Mandibular first molar
D.
Mandibular first molar
113
Where is the Cusp of Carabelli usually found?
A.
The Cusp of Carabelli is found on the mesio-lingual surface of the mandibular first molar
B.
The Cusp of Carabelli is found on the mesio-palatal surface of the maxillary second molar
C.
The Cusp of Carabelli is found on the disto-palatal surface of the maxillary first molar
D.
The Cusp of Carabelli is found on the mesio-palatal surface of the maxillary first molar
D.
The Cusp of Carabelli is found on the mesio-palatal surface of the maxillary first molar
114
Which molars erupt at 6-7 years of age?
A.
maxillary second molars
B.
The mandibular and maxillary second molars
C.
mandibular second molars
D.
Mandibular and maxillary first molars
D.
Mandibular and maxillary first molars
115
The mandibular second molar has a cross shaped fissure pattern occlusally
True
False
True
116
How many cusps does the mandibular first molar have?
A.
5
B.
4
C.
3
D.
2
A.
5
117
Dental implants have which of the following fibres?
select one
A. Alveologingival fibers and circular
B. Circular group
C. Principle fibres
D. All of the above
A. Alveologingival fibers and circular
118
The periodontal ligament is vascularized laterally via fenestrations in the alveolar bone. Apically, the gingival vascular supplies PDL.
A. True/True
B. False/True
C. False/false
D. True/false
B. False/True
119
Explain the formative and resorptive function of the periodontal ligament.
The width of periodontal ligament must be maintained. Therefore it needs to be formative & resorptive.
Formative – contains cell builders, cementoblasts and osteoblasts
Resorption of hard tissues of periodontium – repair bone & cementum, degrade old cells, maintain width of PDL space.
120
Define the term periodontitis:
Periodontitis is an microbial infection that triggers a host-mediated inflammatory response within the periodontium, leading to progressive and irreversible destruction of the periodontal ligament and supporting alveolar bone.
121
Composition of dental plaque biofilm:
Intra-cellular Matrix
Organic
* Polysaccharides
* Proteins
* Glycoproteins
* Lipids
Inorganic (sources between supra & sub)
* Calcium
* Sodium
* Phosphorous
* Potassium
122
Complete the four stages of dental plaque biofilm formation:
1. Initial attachment of bacteria to pellicle
2. Initial colonisation of the tooth surface – new bacteria join
3. Secondary colonisation: Extracellular slime layer formation
4. Mature biofilm – mushroom shaped colonies
123
Name the three distinct parts of the gingival epithelium with a description of where they are found.
a) Oral epithelium-covering the free and attached gingivae
b) Sulcular epithelium-lines the sulcus
c) Junctional epithelium-at the base of the sulcus
124
Name at least 3 bacteria species found to be associated with periodontal disease
* Porphyromonas gingivalis
* Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans
* Treponema denticola
* Tannerella forsythia
* Fusobacterium nucleatum
* Prevotella intermedia
125
The subgingival environment supports mainly anaerobic bacteria.
True
False
true
126
Note some of the virulence factors of named bacteria which enable them to colonise, invade and damage the periodontium
P. gingivalis:
* Carbohydrate capsule- resists some host defences
* Produces gingipains to enable the bacterium to use GCF as a source of nutrients
* LPS (Lipopolysaccharide)
* Haemagglutinins & platelet aggregators
* Fimbrae and tissue invasion.
* Can suppress the early PMN (polymorphonuclear leukocytes) response
Tannerella Forsythia: proteases and apoptotic-inducing factor
Treponema denticola:
* Adherence factors can bind to fibroblasts
* Motile and can invade tissue
* Disruption of host defences by inducing and degrading cytokines
* May delay wound healing by inhibiting migration of PMNs
A actinomycetemcomitans:
* Leukotoxin (can kill WBC, so disrupts the host defences)
* Other toxins can destroy fibroblasts and epithelial cells. Also produces proteases, including collagenase
* Can invade host epithelial cells
127
Which type of immune response will be initiated by plaque in the first instance?
What are the key components of this immune response?
Innate immune response
Saliva, Epithelium, Inflammatory response
128
Which factors need to be considered as part of a dental caries risk assessment?
A) General health factors
B) Fluoride use
C) Social history
D) Dental history
E) Diet
F) Clinical assessment
G) Corsodyl use
A) General health factors
B) Fluoride use
C) Social history
D) Dental history
E) Diet
F) Clinical assessment
129
Which of the following is NOT a recognised caries risk assessment (CRA) tool?
A) Dundee CRA
B) American Academy of Paediatric Dentistry CRA
C) American Dental Association CRA
D) British Dental Association CRA
D) British Dental Association CRA
130
There is a lot of evidence that utilising caries risk assessment tools prevents caries initiation.
A) True
B) False
B) False
131
Which of the following will your caries risk assessment NOT influence?
A) The patients recall period
B) The preventative advice/treatment the patient receives
C) The time between radiographic examinations
D) Whether a patient is eligible for referral
D) Whether a patient is eligible for referral
132
Which three pieces of guidance specifically relate patient management to their caries risk?
A) Delivering better oral health, NICE recall guidance, Selection criteria for dental radiology
B) NICE recall guidance, Delivering better oral health, Good practitioners guide to periodontology
C) Selection criteria for dental radiology, Good practitioners guide to periodontology, NICE recall guidance
D) Good practitioners guide to periodontology, Delivering better oral health, Selection criteria for dental radiology
A) Delivering better oral health, NICE recall guidance, Selection criteria for dental radiology
133
Patients should be in the moderate to low caries risk category prior to undergoing complex restorative treatment
True
false
True
134
ODS MOCK EXAM
What is the critical ph of enamel once flouride incorporated?
Picture of skull
What is grade 3 furcation?
4.5
mental foramen
probe goes all the way through but not clinically visible
135
CASE VIGNETTE: TOOTH WEAR
* Describe appearance of teeth in clinical photos
* List 3 types of tooth wear
* Out of 3, what is the patient most likely have?
* 4 aetiological agents which could have led to appearance in clinical photos?
* 3 treatment interventions for tooth sensitivity?
* What index is used to monitor teeth wear?
* 2 ways in which progression of tooth wear could be monitored over time?
- simple statement of which teeth are present (labial and palatal of upper arch), translucent appearance- especially incisal edges, Severe tooth wear - exposed dentine, loss of cuspal height (shortened clinical crown) , fracture lines on labial surface.
- Erosion, abrasion, attrition
-Erosion, because of history of gastric reflux (stomach acid is acidic hence frequent acid exposure to enamel), appearance of teeth – translucent (incisal edges) appearance very classical for erosion and palatal surfaces being severely worn away = erosion, not abrasion and attrition
-Bulimia/eating disorders, gastric reflux, vomiting, dietary acids, High fruit intake, grinding
-fluoride treatment (Dose for topical fluoride: 0.25ml for primary dentition 0.40ml for permanent dentition, fluoride concentration 22600ppm, desensitising toothpaste, fissure sealants
-BEWE – Basic erosive wear examination
-Clinical photos, dental impressions, Digital scanners, study models
