bk 9 Flashcards Preview

BROOKLYN PACKAGE COPY > bk 9 > Flashcards

Flashcards in bk 9 Deck (41)
Loading flashcards...
1

Question 1:
The FDNY primarily communicates at fires and emergencies using HT radios (Motorola XTS-3500, Mode;s I and III) programmed on ultra high frequency (UHF) band (406-512 frequencies). The radios are programmed using analog technology with both simplex and duplex channels. Which channels are considered the duplex channels?

A:Channels 11, 12, 14, 15

B: Channels 1-8

C:Channels 1-8 and 10, 13, 16

D: Channels 10, 13, 16

E: Channel 9

a xplanation:
11 and 12 are used during Auxiliary Radio Communications Systems (ARCS) and channels 14 and 15 are used during subway emergencies
B- Simplex channels during a "Base Station Leaky Cable System"
C- Simplex channels
D- Digital channel, reserved for future use
Communications ch 13 sec 1.1

2

Question 2:
Which type of photovoltaic electrical system is typically used with larger solar panel systems and is also known as “universal mounting” because it can be installed both on rooftops as well as on the ground?

A:Stand-mounted

B: Flush-mounted

C: Integrated design

D: Circular System

a Explanation:
AUC 351 4.1

3

Question 3:
Which choice below is not considered an URGENT message?

A: A member discovering another member with a non life threatening injury that requires medical attention

B: Interior attack discontinued

C: Collapsed feared

D:Missing FF located

E: Fire entering an exposure

d Explanation:
This is a MAYDAY message
Communications ch 9 page 8
URGENTS start at sec 9.4.2

4

Question 4:
Of the following choices, which is incorrect regarding the The Ogura Cordless Rebar Cutter?

A:It is designed for cutting maximum 1” diameter high tensile rebar, tensile fastening bolts, locks and treaded rod.

B: The support handle can be installed either on the left, right and top side of the cutting head.

C:Position the tool so it is at 45 degrees to the rebar to be cut.

D: The tool has ‘high speed mode’ and ‘high torque mode’. It will select the operating mode automatically, according to the work load. The mode indicator, located on the handle, will light up when the tool is in ‘high torque mode’.

c Explanation:
Position the tool so it is at 90 degrees to the rebar to be cut. If the tool is not at 90 degrees to the rebar it can cause shaking and overload the tool.
TB Tools 28 DS 2 3.1, 3.4, 3.6, 4.4

5

Question 5:
Whether units are responding to alarms for an unconscious person or operating at a building fire, members must avoid contact when the drug "fentanyl" if it is suspected to be in the area of operation. If members are contaminated, all of the following are the correct ways to decontaminate except?

A: If member had direct skin contact, member should, as soon as possible, wash area with soap and water

B: If member had direct skin contact, member should, as soon as possible, wash area with soap and water while avoiding alcohol-based hand disinfectants or bleach solutions

C: All clothing (work duty uniform and/or under garments) contaminated or suspected of being contaminated should be removed and laundered being careful not to disturb any areas of contamination

D:If PPE is exposed during fire operations, the member wearing the PPE shall, as soon as possible, be wet down with copious amounts of water to immediately reduce the amount of exposure

d Explanation:
Lightly wetted. (sprayed with just enough to wet the gear and not excessively drip off)
Haz Mat 18 sec 5
Know this bulletin

6

Question 6:
All of the following choices contain correct information regarding the electronic riding list (EBF-4) except?

A: Chief and Company Officers shall submit a Preliminary or Final EBF-4 at the start of each tour.

B:Both members actually riding on the apparatus, as well as members detailed to another unit, should be included on a particular unit’s EBF-4 for the tour.

C: The final EBF-4 shall be updated anytime during the tour as necessary (e.g., ML during tour, early relief, manpower change, reduced staffing).

D: A preliminary EBF-4 is appropriate when a unit is awaiting further manpower for the tour. Members awaiting relief shall be included on the Preliminary EBF-4 pending arrival of details. A final EBF-4 is appropriate when all members for the tour have reported for duty and are assigned riding positions.

b Explanation:
Only members ACTUALLY RIDING on the apparatus of that unit shall be included on the unit EBF-4. Do not include members detailed to another unit for the tour.
AUC 346 2.2 - 2.4

7

Question 7:
The MSA Altair Digital Gas Meter will alarm when?

A:LEL-10 percent O2- 23.5 percent (oxygen enriched) O2- 19.5 percent (oxygen deficient)

B: LEL-20 percent O2- 23.5 percent (oxygen enriched) O2- 19.5 percent (oxygen deficient)

C: LEL-10 percent O2- 30 percent (oxygen enriched) O2- 19.5 percent (oxygen deficient)

D: LEL-5 percent O2- 30 percent (oxygen enriched) O2- 19.5 percent (oxygen deficient)

Explanation:
Also- a series of XXX will show under the COMB/EX indicates the atmosphere is above 100 percent of LEL
a series of crosses along the screen under the O2 icon indicates the atmosphere is above 30 percent oxygen
Emergency Procedures Natural Gas add 2 sec 2.5, 4.1,

8

Question 8:
If no supervisor is present on-scene at a Fire Department incident, and a press inquiry does not interfere with Department operations, members may respond to press inquiries with certain, non-confidential information. Which should not be disseminated by members?  

A: The hospital(s) to which the patient(s) or victim(s) are being transported.

B: The number of patients or victims, if known.

C: The type of incident or event.

D:The type of injuries sustained.

d Explanation:
Members shall NOT discuss the condition of patient(s) or victim(s), the care provided or other confidential information.
Acronym: Hot New Topic
Hospital
Number of victims
Type of incident
AUC 332 3.4.3

9

Question 9:
During taxpayer fires, a Roof Sector Supervisor should be assigned as early as possible to supervise roof operations. This could a chief or company officer as designated by the IC. As a Roof Sector Supervisor, choose the most correct tactic used during a Taxpayer fire.

A:Generally, vertical openings are made at the roof level. Scuttles, skylights or covers of former skylights that are located away from the main body of fire should be opened first

B: The roof cut for vertical ventilation must be large enough to cause the bulk of the heat, smoke and gases being produced by the fire to vent in that direction and away from the advancing hose line. A hole 3x6 is recommended

C: If trenching is to be implemented, take skylight returns close to the trench, as soon as possible, to assist in venting

D:The immediate ventilation and cutting of an effective size hole on the roof calls for two saws and four members on the roof

d Explanation:
A- Scuttles, skylights or covers of former skylights that are located over or NEAR the main body of fire should be opened first
B- 8x8 is recommended
C- Leave skylights returns in place where the skylights are to be used as an effective trenching boundary
Taxpayers pages 28-29

10

Question 10:
Knowledge of the SCBA is crucial to all Fire Department Officers. Of the following choices, which is described incorrectly?

A: The Pressure Reducer Assembly (PRA), mounted on the left side of the backframe, reduces the high pressure breathing air received from the cylinder. The PRA normally reduces the operating pressure to 100 psi before entering the regulator's low pressure hose.

B: A malfunction of the PRA's primary system will automatically direct breathing air into a secondary system. When this occurs, the operating pressure will only be reduced to 150 psi and will cause the vibralert alarm to activate.

C:Failure of both the primary and secondary systems in the open position will activate a Relief Valve in the PRA, which will rapidly discharge all pressure in excess of 185 psi into the atmosphere. When this occurs, the cylinder valve should be remain fully open, permitting the member to maximize use of the limited air remaining.

D: When the primary and/or secondary system malfunctions, the member must notify their officer and immediately leave the contaminated area. This member must be accompanied to a safe area by another member using a SCBA.

 c Explanation:
Failure of both the primary and secondary systems in the open position will activate a Relief Valve in the PRA, which will rapidly discharge all pressure in excess of 185 psi into the atmosphere. When this occurs, the cylinder valve should be PARTIALLY CLOSED, allowing only a minimal amount of air to release, permitting the member to both breathe and conserve air.
TB SCBA 3.6

11

Question 11:
You have just received a ticket to respond as a CFRD Engine on the transmission of a 10-66 signal. Knowing the books well, the CFRD Engine shall report where upon arrival?

A:Command Post

B: Staging area

C: Secondary staging area

D: There is no CFRD Engine on the transmission of a 10-66

a Explanation:
On transmission of the next higher alarm, which is part of signal 10-66, all units other than Rescue, Squad, SOC Support Ladder, FAST Unit, and CFRD Engine, shall be directed by the dispatcher to report to and remain at a Staging Area until ordered to the scene.
MMID ch 5 sec 3.2

12

Question 12:
The air cylinder supplying the maxi-force air bag system should be changed when the high pressure gauge?  

A: reads 200 psi

B:falls below 200 psi

C: reads 220 psi

D: falls below 220 psi

b Explanation:
TB Tools 20 3.1.4 Note

13

Question 13:
The most correct ventilation definition can be found in which choice?

A: Modern content fires are largely comprised of hydrocarbons and synthetics which slowly consume the available oxygen in the air as they burn at a greater rate than legacy content fires

B:Modern content fires do not become ventilation limited fires due to their higher fuel load

C: Legacy content fires enter an early decay stage due to the limited available oxygen, producing heavy smoke and varying heat conditions

D:The stages of a modern content fire are 1) Incipent, 2) rapid growth stage, 3) early oxygen limited decay stage, 4) rapid growth stage, 5) fully developed stage, 6) second decay stage

d Explanation:
A- Modern content fires are largely comprised of hydrocarbons and synthetics which RAPIDLY consume the available oxygen in the air as they burn at a greater rate than legacy content fires
B- Modern content fires QUICKLY become ventilation limited fires due to their higher fuel load
C- MODERN content fires enter an early decay stage due to the limited available oxygen, producing heavy smoke and varying heat conditions
Ventilation sec 2.1.6

14

Question 14:
Which characteristic of low rise fireproof multiple dwellings is listed incorrectly?

A: They will vary in height, generally from three to seven stories.

B: They may contain one single stairway or two remote stairways. These stairways may be open or enclosed.

C:They will always be equipped with standpipe systems.

D: They may have elevators.

c Explanation:
Usually not equipped with standpipe systems, thus requiring a hand stretched hoseline, supplied by a pumper.
MD 7.2

15

Question 15:
Lt Horthorn is the first arriving officer for a report of a Bio-Detection System (BDS) at a United States Postal Service (USPS) facility. Lt Horthorn responded to the initial emergency response meeting point where he made contact with the USPS Liaison, and transmitted what signal for a confirmed BDS activation?

A: 10-75 for an emergency

B:10-80

C: 10-80-1

D: 10-80-2

b Explanation:
** The USPS Liaison may need to be decontaminated
Any additional units above the initial assignment shall proceed to the pre-designated Fire Department Staging Area
Haz Mat ch 14 sec 6.2

16

Question 16:
When a Brownstone building is fully involved, arriving Engine Companies would be correct to take all of the following actions except?  

A: The first arriving Engine Company should drop two hoselines in front of the fire building and position the apparatus for the possible use of the multiversal nozzle or to supply a TL.

B: The first hoseline should be advanced into the fire building. The second hoseline should be advanced into the fire building as a back-up hoseline.

C: The third hoseline will be stretched as ordered by the Incident Commander and may be advanced into the fire building, or if fire is reported in an exposure, stretched to that exposure.

D:The third hoseline will be stretched as ordered by the Incident Commander and may be advanced into the fire building, or if there is no fire in the exposures, operate on the exterior of exposure 1 of the fire building.

d Explanation:
or if there is no fire in the exposures, stretched through an exposure to the rear yard of the fire building.
Bwst 3.4

17

Question 17:
In order to rely on the functionality of our handie talkies (HT), the maintenance policy of the FDNY must be adhered to at all times. Choose the incorrect HT maintenance policy from below.

A:If the HT becomes wet at an operation, or has been submerged in water, notify the division radio depot, and place the radio OOS, and wait for the arrival of a spare

B: If the remote microphone becomes wet, or submerged, water trapped inside the speaker grille and microphone can be moved by shaking the unit well

C: External battery charging contacts may be cleaned with an eraser if a coating is observed on the contacts. Never use an abrasive

D: When HTs are sent for repair, they should be sent complete (radio, antenna, battery, and external remote microphone) with defect and company number recorded on tag. Leather goods (cases and straps) should not be sent unless they need repair

a Explanation:
If the HT becomes wet at an operation, or has been submerged in water, remove the battery, dry, and clean the HT and battery contacts before re-attaching battery to the HT
Communications Ch 11 sec 6

18

Question 18:
Which consideration below would be correct when operating at a Row Frame fire of multiple alarm proportions?

A:To cut off fire that is traveling in the cockloft toward the exposures, it may be necessary to skip a building in order to get ahead of the fire. The time required to get a line into position must be considered. This line may be driven off the top floor when the fire is already past that point.

B: Once charged handlines are in position, ceilings must be pulled to expose and extinguish the fire in the common cockloft. When possible, this should take place before the cockloft is vented from above to avoid feeding oxygen to the hot gases that will be present.

C:When the fire is of a multiple alarm proportion, the strategy is to set up a perimeter of lines consisting usually of heavy caliber streams in the front and the rear, with 2 1/2” lines flanking the sides of the fire and moving toward the center of the fire. As hand lines reach the center of the fire, the outside lines must not be directed into the buildings in which the companies are operating.

D: When addresses are prominent and/or buildings can readily be distinguished from each other by features the I.C. should not use plain English to assign units to exposure sectors, but rather use designated exposure specifications (I.e. exposure 4A, 2B, etc).

Explanation:

a Explanation:
B) Once charged handlines are in position, ceilings must be pulled to expose and extinguish the fire in the common cockloft. When possible, this should take place AFTER the cockloft is vented from above to avoid feeding oxygen to the hot gases that will be present.
C) When the fire is of a multiple alarm proportion, the strategy is to set up a perimeter of lines consisting usually of heavy caliber streams in the front and the rear, with 1 ¾" lines flanking the sides of the fire and moving toward the center of the fire. As hand lines reach the center of the fire, the outside lines must not be directed into the buildings in which the companies are operating.
D) When addresses are prominent and/or buildings can readily be distinguished from each other by features the I.C. MAY use plain English to assign units to exposure sectors.
RF 7.7-7.10

19

Question 19:
Company officers shall, when notified of structural or occupancy hazards dangerous to life or property, cause an inspection when?

A:Immediately

B:Within 24 hours

C: Within 48 hours

D: Within 72 hours

a Explanation:
Company officers shall, when notified of structural or occupancy hazards dangerous to life or property, cause an IMMEDIATE inspection to determine conditions, transmit such information to DC and BC chiefs on duty, and forward a report to the Bureau of Fire Prevention via chain of command
Regulations ch 12 sec 21.1.7

20

Question 20:
Which statement below would be incorrect regarding fire conditions found in nonfireproof Tenements?

A:Smoke seen issuing from the cornice upon our arrival is positive evidence of fire in the cockloft. The cornice should be opened up.

B: A rapidly rising column of smoke, with particles or embers ascending to higher levels, visible over the roof top of the building frequently is an indication that the fire is in an open shaft.

C: Large quantities of black smoke observed over the roof may be an indication of fire at or near the top of the building, namely, top floor fire, cockloft fire, stair bulkhead fire or a fire on the roof.

D: When encountering membrane roofs, the Incident Commander must be notified because the volatility of the roof material may require calling for a line to protect members operating on the roof.

a Explanation:
Smoke may be seen issuing from the cornice upon arrival. Without investigation this cannot be taken as positive evidence that there is actually fire in the cockloft.
Under no conditions should the cornice be opened for smoke.
Lads 3 5.4.3

21

Question 21:
The correct extinguishment methods for a Toyota Rav4 fire can be found in all of the following except?

A: Vehicle or battery pack fires can be extinguished by using copious amounts of water

B: Vehicle or battery pack fires can be extinguished by using a Class D powder extinguishing agent

C:If the vehicle is connected to a charging device, you can still use a hose line to extinguish the fire

D:While extinguishing the fire, members are not to cut or touch (if exposed) the wires wrapped in the orange colored harness

c Explanation:
If the vehicle is connected to a charging device, DO NOT use water to extinguish the fire
If not connected to a charging device, battery voltage will NOT follow water back up a fire hose and cause shock to a FF
Safety Bulletin 86 sec 3 and 4

22

Question 22:
Two officers discussing private dwelling features that may affect fire operations identified which incorrect comment?

A: Modern three-family MDs are often built with three separate entrances that have no common area. These structures require private dwelling tactics due to their PD style design.

B: Possible indications of an attic occupancy may be an attic area with a dormer, adequate height (approximately seven feet in attic), air conditioner at attic level, and/or windows of fair size and normal appearance with curtains and drapes.

C:Balloon frame construction limits fire extension.

D: A rapid build-up of heat and smoke in the confined areas of a private dwelling, aided by the normally open interior stairs, is an extreme threat to the occupants.

c Explanation:
Balloon frame construction lacks fire stopping between floors on exterior walls, allowing for rapid fire extension. Platform frame construction limits fire extension.
PD Ch 2 2.4, 2.5, 2.6

23

Question 23:
You are enjoying the best steak dinner the truck ever cooked when a run comes in for a fire on the 30th floor in a 60 sty 200x200 Cl 1 High-Rise Office Buiding. As you pull up 1st due you see smoke coming from the window frame around the 30th floor. As the 1st arriving officer, the most correct action for you to take after seeing this smoke is what?

A: Make contact with the Fire Safety Director to confirm if there is a fire then transmit the 10-76

B: Transmit a 10-75

C: Transmit All-hands on arrival

D:Transmit a 2nd alarm

d Explanation:
A 2nd alarm is warranted for any visible fire or smoke emanating through the exterior skin of the building or when a serious fire has been verified
A 10-76 signal shall be transmitted when a report of fire is confirmed.
High-Rise Office Buildings sec 5.2.2

24

Question 24:
In a New Law Tenement constructed in 1943, you can expect firewalls to be carried to the?

A:Top of the roof boards

B:Underside of the roof boards

C: Top floor ceiling

D: Second floor ceiling only

a Explanation:
Between 1930 and 1940, firewalls were required to be carried to the underside of the roof boards, and after 1940, to the top of the roof boards. These changes were designed to effectively reduce the size of the cockloft and limit fire spread.
MD 2.4

25

Question 25:
The search assessment marking system consists of a 2x2 foot marking that when complete, will form the letter "X" with designated markings in each quadrant (left, right, top, bottom) From the choices listed below, which one states the correct information that will be put in the top quadrant?

A:Time and date that the company/team personnel left the structure

B: FDNY Company or team designation given at the Command Post

C: Personal hazards to units/teams

D: Number of live and/or expired victims still inside the structure/area

a Explanation:
B- Left quadrant
C- Right quadrant
D- Bottom quadrant
Collapse Operations add 2 pages 2-3

26

Question 26:
Two Officers were discussing portable ladder use at fires and emergencies. Which comment made was incorrect?

A: To perform an emergency search, portable ladders may be used as a brace where there is partial collapse of a floor area. The ladders may be used singly or in groups depending upon the amount of stress to which the ladders will be subject.

B:When a ladder has been positioned and used by a member to gain entry to a fire building, once inside, the ladder may be immediately repositioned by any member for another use.

C: Portable ladders may be used in an emergency to shore excavations, or reinforce weakened walls. The proper placement of ladders and planks can prevent refilling of areas that are being dug out.

D: During winter months, portable ladders may be used for the rescue of victims that have fallen through ice that has formed on bodies of water. Laid flat on the ice, the ladder distributes the weight of the rescuer and/or the victims over a larger area of ice, reducing the total weight concentrated at any one point.

b Explanation:
When a ladder has been positioned and used by a member to gain entry to a fire building, there is the possibility that he/she will also need it as a means of retreat. The ladder is expected to be there. Therefore, do not move or reposition a ladder used in this manner except if it is necessary to use the ladder for rescue. Members operating in the area the ladder was used to access should be notified regarding its repositioning. The ladder should be returned to its original location or replaced with another ladder as soon as possible.
Lads 1 10.3.11-11.3

27

Question 27:
When it comes to the apparatus, all engine company firefighters should be able to perform all of the following functions except?

A:In-Line pumping

B: Transfer the engine apparatus from "road" to "pump"

C: Connect the apparatus to a hydrant using each of the several connections available and standard hose

D:Charge and maintain adequate pressure on a hoseline using the pump panel controls

a Explanation:
Engine Company Operations ch 2 sec 2.8.2

28

Question 28:
In cold weather, keep aerial ladder hydraulic systems operating intermittently to prevent sluggishness or freezing, return the ladder to the bed as soon as possible to prevent icing, and try to position the ladder to avoid water spray. If the ladder becomes coated with ice, remove the ice in what order?

A: First free the trussing, then the rungs and ladder rung locks, and then the main beams.

B:First free the rungs and ladder rung locks, then the trussing, and then the main beams.

C: First free the main beams, then the rungs and ladder rung locks, and then the trussing.

D:First free the main beams, then the trussing, and then the rungs and ladder rung locks.

b Explanation:
Lads 2 8.1.9

29

Question 29:
Choose the most correct information in regards to the Tunnel-to Tube transition area where a subway meets an under river tube.

A: Power removal box is located at this point

B: This area is used for Diesel trains only

C: Termination point for standpipe outlets

D:In most cases, it is the location of the last emergency exit and the last crossover to the adjacent tube until the other side of the river

d Explanation:
This is the point where the underground TUNNEL connects to the under river TUBE
In most cases, it is the location of the last emergency exit and the last crossover to the adjacent tube until the other side of the river
Members must recognize this construction feature as the entry/exit point of the tube
See picture in FFP Under River rail Operations sec 2.4 Figure 3A and 3B

30

Question 30:
What size roof cut is recommended for a top floor fire in an Old/New Law Tenement?

A: 2’x4’

B:3’x6’

C: 8’x8’

D: 2’x3’

b Explanation:
Lads 3 5.9.4