BLOCK 1 Flashcards
(394 cards)
1
Q
What is grounding?
A
A conductive path between the earth and the grounded object.
2
Q
What does grounding do?
A
Diverts dangerous currents to earth and activates protective devices.
3
Q
What are the three subsystems of a facility ground system?
A
- Earth electrode
- Fault protection
- Signal reference
4
Q
What does the earth electrode subsystem consist of?
A
- Ground rods
- Metal straps
- Wires
- Tubes
- Grids
- Plates
- Sheets
- Water pipes
- Well casings
5
Q
What is the function of the fault protection subsystem?
A
Provides grounding conductors to enable protective devices to operate during a circuit fault.
6
Q
What does the equipment fault protective subsystem do?
A
Protects personnel and equipment from voltages caused by faults in electrical circuits.
7
Q
What is the signal ground?
A
A grid or network of wires, straps, or racks located between pieces of equipment.
8
Q
What is bonding?
A
The establishment of a low-impedance path between two metal surfaces.
9
Q
What is impedance?
A
Total opposition to current flow.
10
Q
What are the two types of bonding?
A
- Direct bonding
- Indirect bonding
11
Q
What is electrostatic discharge (ESD)?
A
The sudden flow of electricity between two electrically charged objects.
12
Q
What are the three common types of failures caused by ESD?
A
- Catastrophic
- Intermittent
- Latent
13
Q
True or False: Physical security is concerned with preventing unauthorized access to Air Force resources.
A
True
14
Q
The physical security requirements for a particular facility are dependent on several things, such
as:
A
Type and level of the information handled in a facility.
Type of equipment.
Mission of the unit to which assigned.
Duty hours of the facility.
15
Q
What are passive measures in physical security?
A
Effective use of architecture, landscaping, and lighting.
16
Q
What is a Security Technical Implementation Guide (STIG)?
A
A cybersecurity methodology for standardizing security protocols.
17
Q
What are AFIs?
A
Orders of the Secretary of the Air Force.
18
Q
What does the OSI model consist of?
A
- Application Layer (Layer 7)
- Presentation Layer (Layer 6)
- Session Layer (Layer 5)
- Transport Layer (Layer 4)
- Network Layer (Layer 3)
- Data Link Layer (Layer 2)
- Physical Layer (Layer 1)
19
Q
What layer is closest to the end user in the OSI model?
A
Application Layer (Layer 7).
20
Q
What is the main responsibility of the Transport Layer?
A
Coordination of data transfer between end systems and hosts.
21
Q
What protocol is used for reliable connections?
A
Transmission Control Protocol (TCP).
22
Q
What is the main function of the Network Layer?
A
Addressing packets and translating logical addresses into physical addresses.
23
Q
What does a port represent in networking?
A
A virtual path to send and receive data from computers.
24
Q
What is the maximum number of combinations of binary numbers in an octet?
A
256.
25
What is an IPv4 address made up of?
32 bits in four groups of eight bits (octets).
26
What is a loopback address?
Network address 127.
27
What does the NMS provide?
Network monitor system
* Discover
* Map
* Monitor
* Alert
* Report
28
What is the most important element in a wireless network?
Access Point device.
29
What is SSID?
The identifier (name) that tells you which service set (or network) to join.
30
What technology does Wi-Fi use?
IEEE 802.11 suite of standards.
31
What is Bluetooth?
A standard for short-range wireless interconnection of devices.
32
What is the main function of twisted-pair cable?
It is the most common media for network connectivity.
33
What are the two types of twisted-pair cable?
* Shielded twisted-pair (STP)
* Unshielded twisted-pair (UTP)
34
What is a straight-through cable used for?
To connect two unlike devices.
35
What does fiber optics technology do?
Converts electrical signals into optical signals.
36
What is Multi-Mode Fiber (MMF)?
Fiber with a core diameter of 50 to 100 micrometers using LEDs.
37
What is Single-Mode Fiber (SMF)?
Supports higher bandwidth and longer segments than MMF.
38
What are signals in the context of networking?
Signals refer to ones and zeros, also known as binary.
39
How are transmitted optical signals converted back at the receiving end?
Transmitted optical/light signals are converted back into electrical signals by network devices.
40
What is a significant advantage of fiber optics in terms of electromagnetic monitoring?
Fiber is immune to all types of electromagnetic (EMF) monitoring because there is no EM radiation emitted from the media.
41
What is the typical core diameter range for Multi-Mode Fiber (MMF)?
50 to 100 micrometers.
42
What type of light sources does Multi-Mode Fiber (MMF) typically use?
Light Emitting Diodes (LEDs).
43
What advantage does Single-Mode Fiber (SMF) have over other guided media?
Single-Mode Fiber (SMF) can support much longer segments than any other guided media.
44
What type of light source is used in Single-Mode Fiber (SMF)?
Expensive lasers.
45
How can atmospheric conditions impact wireless transmissions?
Atmospheric conditions can impair wireless transmissions, degrading both analog and digital signal quality.
46
What is required for laser transmissions to function effectively?
A clear line of sight and precise alignment between the devices.
47
True or False: Light transmissions provide a secure transmission medium.
True.
48
What is a disadvantage of fixed frequency security transmissions?
Once the carrier frequency is known, fixed frequency signals are easy to monitor and/or jam.
49
What is spread spectrum signals?
A transmission technique that transmits a signal across a broad frequency bandwidth and varies as the RF carrier frequency varies.
50
What advantage do spread spectrum signals provide?
Increased resistance to natural interference, noise, and jamming.
51
What can happen if an attacker determines the timing and pattern of frequency changes in spread spectrum signals?
They can jam or monitor transmissions.
52
What is the first step in troubleshooting any problem?
Identify the problem.
53
List the steps in the systematic process of troubleshooting.
* Identify the problem
* Establish a theory of probable cause
* Test the theory
* Establish a plan of action
* Verify full system functionality
* Document the findings
54
What does RCA stand for in problem resolution?
Root Cause Analysis.
55
What is the purpose of a crimper in networking?
Secures cable ends to connectors through application of mechanical pressure.
56
What does a cable tester do?
Tests continuity and pin-out for disconnected cables.
57
What is the function of a loopback adapter?
Performs cable tester functions on cables connected to a device.
58
What does an Optical Time Domain Reflectometer (OTDR) check?
Checks for breaks in a fiber optic cable.
59
What does a light meter measure in fiber optic cables?
Checks for proper light propagation.
60
What is the purpose of a tone generator?
Helps isolate a single cable within a larger bundle of cables.
61
What does a Digital Multimeter measure?
Measures voltage, resistance, and tests continuity in electrical circuits.
62
What is the function of a spectrum analyzer?
Scans for amplitude across a domain of radio frequencies.
63
What is a packet sniffer used for?
Intercepts and logs network packets for malware/intrusion analysis.
64
What does a port scanner search for?
Unintentionally opened logical ports.
65
What information does a protocol analyzer show?
Information on all frames within your network.
66
What does a Wi-Fi analyzer test?
Tests Wi-Fi signals for reliability, signal strength, and download speed.
67
What does a bandwidth speed tester measure?
Tests the upload and download speed of a modem.
68
What is the purpose of network connectivity test sets?
Used to test for proper transmission and reception of data communication signals between devices.
69
What basic functions does a Network Monitoring System (NMS) provide?
* Discover
* Map
* Monitor
* Alert
* Report
70
What does the discover function of an NMS do?
Finds devices on the network and how they are connected.
71
What is the purpose of the map function in an NMS?
Visualize your network.
72
How does the monitor function of an NMS operate?
Keeps an eye on your network.
73
What triggers alerts in an NMS?
Notifies network administrators when something goes wrong.
74
What is an example of a condition that would trigger an alert in an NMS?
If CPU utilization on a router exceeds 80%.
75
What is Syslog in the context of network devices?
An automated messaging system that sends messages when an event affects a network device.
76
What does the report function of an NMS deal with?
Real-time and historical reporting.
77
78
What is a bond in electrical systems?
A bond refers to both the mechanical interface between joined conductors and to the bonding straps used to interconnect two separate conductors.
79
What are the two types of bonding?
Direct and indirect bonding.
80
What is a direct, permanent bond?
A direct, permanent bond is expected to remain intact throughout the life of the system without requiring disassembly.
81
What characterizes a direct, semi-permanent bond?
Direct, semi-permanent bonds are held together by bolts, nuts, clamps, and can be disassembled later.
82
What is an indirect bond?
An indirect bond uses bonding straps when direct bonds are not practical.
83
What are bonding straps made of?
Bonding straps can be solid, braided, round, or flat metal conductors.
84
What is the primary concern with corrosion in bonding?
Corrosion introduces impedance in the bond, especially between unlike metals.
85
What is the difference between grounding and bonding?
Grounding is a conductive path to lead to ground for safety, while bonding connects components to maintain electrical continuity.
86
Define electrostatic discharge (ESD).
ESD is the sudden flow of electricity between two electrically charged objects.
87
What causes electrostatic discharge (ESD)?
ESD is caused by the buildup of static electricity on one surface that is suddenly transferred to another surface when they touch.
88
What is the 'difference in potential' in electricity?
It refers to the voltage or electrical pressure variance between two points in an electrical circuit.
89
What happens during ESD?
A visible spark is often created when differently charged objects touch or come close together.
90
What are the three types of failures caused by ESD?
Catastrophic, intermittent, and latent failures.
91
What is catastrophic failure in ESD?
It results in total failure of the component(s) or electronic circuit(s) due to visible melting or welding.
92
What is intermittent failure in ESD?
It results in irregular failures where components sometimes work correctly and sometimes do not.
93
What is latent failure in ESD?
It is a delayed failure where components appear to operate normally but fail prematurely.
94
Fill in the blank: ESD can cause _____ harm upon electronic circuits.
[minor impairments to catastrophic obliteration]
95
What voltage range is commonly associated with ESD events?
Above 1,000 volts, commonly reaching up to 50,000 volts.
96
What is 'triboelectricity'?
It refers to static electricity generated by friction between dissimilar materials.
97
How can static electricity be generated by a person?
Walking across a carpeted floor can generate 1,500 to 35,000 volts of static electricity.
98
What kind of environment is created to protect against ESD?
Electrostatic protective areas free of static.
99
What materials should be used for bonding to minimize corrosion?
Materials should be selected to minimize differences in corrosion potential.
100
What must be done to metal surfaces before bonding?
Metal surfaces must be cleaned of all corrosion.
101
102
What does DoDI stand for?
Department of Defense Instruction
## Footnote
DoDIs establish policy and may provide general procedures for implementing policy.
103
What is the purpose of a DoDI?
To prescribe the manner or a specific plan for carrying out policy, operating a program, and assigning responsibilities
## Footnote
DoDIs are found on the Executive Services Division Website.
104
Where can DoDIs be downloaded?
Executive Services Division Website at https://www.esd.whs.mil/Directives/issuances/dodi/
## Footnote
DoDIs are available in .pdf format.
105
Which DoDI covers Internet domain name use?
DoDI 8410.01
## Footnote
This DoDI addresses Internet Domain Name and Internet Protocol Address Space Use and Approval.
106
List some DoDIs relevant to a cyber career.
* DoDI 8310.01 Information Technology Standards in the DoD
* DoDI 8410.03 Network Management (NM)
* DoDI 8500.01 Cybersecurity
107
What should be done before using a downloaded DoDI?
Verify it is current against the Executive Services Directorate Website
## Footnote
If not current, download the latest version and delete the old one.
108
What does DoDM stand for?
Department of Defense Manual
## Footnote
DoDMs implement policy established in a DoDD or DoDI.
109
What is the main function of a DoDM?
To provide detailed procedures for carrying out policy
## Footnote
DoDMs consist of procedures that may contain examples and can be separated into volumes.
110
Where can DoDMs be found?
Executive Services Division Website at https://www.esd.whs.mil/Directives/issuances/dodi/
## Footnote
DoDMs are downloadable in .pdf format.
111
Which DoDM covers Information Assurance technical workforce requirements?
DoD 8570.01-M
## Footnote
This document is part of the Information Assurance Workforce Improvement Program.
112
List some DoDMs relevant to a cyber career.
* DoDM 8400.01, Accessibility of Information and Communications Technology (ICT)
* DoDM-8530.1-M, Department of Defense Computer Network Defense (CND) Service Provider Certification and Accreditation Program
113
What are AFIs?
Air Force Instructions
## Footnote
AFIs are orders of the Secretary of the Air Force, certified and approved at the Headquarters Air Force level.
114
What do AFIs instruct readers on?
What to do, ensuring compliance with standard actions Air Force-wide
## Footnote
AFIs are written clearly for an average Airman to understand.
115
Can AFIs be supplemented?
Yes, at any level below the Headquarters Air Force unless otherwise stated
## Footnote
This allows for flexibility in implementation.
116
What is the relationship between AFIs and DoDIs?
AFIs provide and implement guidance and procedures on policies dictated by DoDIs and other policy documents.
117
What series do cyber-related AFIs fall under?
Series 17
## Footnote
All cyber-related AFIs start with 17, such as AFI17-203, Cyber Incident Handling.
118
Where can most AFIs be downloaded?
From the Air Force Portal or the E-Pubs Website at https://www.e-publishing.af.mil
## Footnote
Some AFIs are restricted due to security concerns.
119
What is required to order AFIs that are not accessible through E-Pubs?
A WMS account
## Footnote
You can obtain a WMS account at the WMS Website provided by E-Pubs.
120
What does TIA stand for?
Telecommunications Industry Association
## Footnote
TIA develops voluntary, consensus-based industry standards.
121
What is the role of TIA standards?
Used in designing and installing networks
## Footnote
TIA standards are commercially developed and published products.
122
How often does TIA review its standards?
Every 5 years
## Footnote
Standards may be reaffirmed, rescinded, or revised during this review.
123
List some popular TIA standards relevant to a cyber career.
* TIA-568-C.3 Optical Fiber Cabling and Components Standard
* TIA-568-C.4 Broadband Coaxial Cabling and Components Standard
* TIA-569-D Telecommunications Pathways and Spaces
* TIA-606-B Administration Standard for Telecommunications Infrastructure
* TIA-942-A Telecommunications Infrastructure Standard for Data Centers
124
What is a Military Standard (MIL-STD)?
A United States defense standard used to achieve standardization objectives by the U.S. Department of Defense.
125
How does a MIL-STD differ from a commercial standard?
A MIL-STD establishes uniform engineering and technical requirements for military-unique or substantially modified commercial processes.
126
What is an example of a MIL-STD related to communication systems?
MIL-STD-188-124B, Military Standard Grounding, Bonding, and Shielding for Common Long Haul/Tactical Communication Systems.
127
List two MIL-STDs relevant to a cyber career.
* MIL-STD-1678, Fiber Optic Cabling Systems Requirements and Measurements
* MIL-STD-1686, Electrostatic Discharge Control Program
128
What is the importance of verifying a downloaded MIL-STD?
To ensure it is current before using it.
129
What does IEEE stand for?
Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers.
130
What is the role of the IEEE Standards Association?
To create best practices for technology through collaboration and voting among technical experts.
131
What does the IEEE 802.11 standard refer to?
Wi-Fi technology built to IEEE standards.
132
What is a Security Technical Implementation Guide (STIG)?
A cybersecurity methodology for standardizing security protocols to enhance overall security.
133
Who manages the STIGs?
The Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).
134
What are the three categories of DISA STIGs?
* Category I
* Category II
* Category III
135
What does Category I vulnerability refer to?
Vulnerabilities that will directly and immediately result in loss of confidentiality, availability, or integrity.
136
What consequence can result from failing to address Category I vulnerabilities?
Loss of life, damage to facilities, or mission failure.
137
What does Category II vulnerability refer to?
Vulnerabilities that can result in loss of confidentiality, availability, or integrity.
138
What does Category III vulnerability refer to?
Vulnerabilities that degrade measures to protect against loss of confidentiality, availability, or integrity.
139
What is the purpose of the STIG Viewer?
To provide an intuitive graphical user interface for viewing STIG content in a human-readable format.
140
What types of hardware and software do STIGs apply to?
* Personal Computers
* Printers
* Routers
* Servers
* Switches
141
What should you ensure when using publications in your job?
They are current and you abide by them.
142
What is the significance of checking for changes or revisions in publications?
To ensure the information is up-to-date and accurate.
143
What is the common factor in all types of publications?
Their utilization for compliance, implementation, and/or information.
144
What is the OSI model?
A conceptual framework that standardizes the functions of a telecommunication or computing system into seven abstraction layers.
145
What are the seven layers of the OSI model?
* Application Layer (Layer 7)
* Presentation Layer (Layer 6)
* Session Layer (Layer 5)
* Transport Layer (Layer 4)
* Network Layer (Layer 3)
* Data Link Layer (Layer 2)
* Physical Layer (Layer 1)
146
What is the main function of the Application Layer (Layer 7)?
Supports user applications and manages user input and output.
147
Name two protocols associated with the Application Layer.
* Telnet
* Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)
148
What does the Presentation Layer (Layer 6) do?
Translates data between application and network formats, handling encryption and compression.
149
What is a protocol used in the Presentation Layer?
American Standard Code for Information Interchange (ASCII)
150
What is the role of the Session Layer (Layer 5)?
Establishes, manages, and terminates connections between applications on different devices.
151
Provide an example of a protocol used in the Session Layer.
NetBIOS names
152
What does the Transport Layer (Layer 4) manage?
Coordinates data transfer between end systems, ensuring error recovery and flow control.
153
Name two protocols associated with the Transport Layer.
* Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)
* User Datagram Protocol (UDP)
154
What is the main function of the Network Layer (Layer 3)?
Addresses packets and manages routing and traffic control.
155
What are two protocols used in the Network Layer?
* Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4)
* Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)
156
What does the Data Link Layer (Layer 2) ensure?
Error-free node-to-node delivery of messages.
157
What is a MAC address?
A unique identifier assigned to each network interface card (NIC) in a device.
158
Name a protocol used in the Data Link Layer.
IEEE 802.11 Wi-Fi
159
What is the main function of the Physical Layer (Layer 1)?
Transmits raw bit streams over a physical medium.
160
Give an example of a Physical Layer technology.
Digital Subscriber Lines (DSL)
161
Fill in the blank: The process of adding control information and headers to data as it moves down through the OSI layers is called _______.
data encapsulation
162
True or False: The OSI model is used only for understanding networking.
False
163
What happens during the decapsulation process?
Headers are stripped off as data moves up through the OSI layers.
164
What is the first layer that data encounters when sent from a sending device?
Application Layer (Layer 7)
165
What is the last layer that data encounters before being transmitted over the network?
Physical Layer (Layer 1)
166
What is the primary function of the Application Layer (Layer 7) in the OSI model?
Creates data that will be sent by an end user and adds a header with information such as screen size and fonts.
167
What does the Presentation Layer (Layer 6) do with the data?
Adds Layer 6 header information and may convert the text in the message to ASCII.
168
What information does the Session Layer (Layer 5) add to the data?
Adds Layer 5 header information to manage data flow.
169
What is the role of the Transport Layer (Layer 4) in the encapsulation process?
Adds Layer 4 source and destination port information to the header.
170
What key information does the Network Layer (Layer 3) include in its header?
Includes source and destination Internet Protocol (IP) addresses.
171
What does the Data Link Layer (Layer 2) add to the data?
Adds Layer 2 header and trailer information, including a Frame Check Sequence (FCS) and Media Access Control (MAC) addresses.
172
What is the process that the Physical Layer (Layer 1) performs on the frame?
Breaks down the frame into a bit stream of ones and zeroes and ensures bit synchronization.
173
What is the term for the process of removing headers and processing data on the receiving device?
Decapsulation.
174
True or False: The Physical Layer is responsible for ensuring the end user data is assembled in the order it was sent.
True.
175
Fill in the blank: The _______ Layer manages data flow and adds specific header information.
Session
176
List the layers of the OSI model involved in the encapsulation process from Layer 7 to Layer 1.
* Application Layer (Layer 7)
* Presentation Layer (Layer 6)
* Session Layer (Layer 5)
* Transport Layer (Layer 4)
* Network Layer (Layer 3)
* Data Link Layer (Layer 2)
* Physical Layer (Layer 1)
177
What does FCS stand for in the context of the Data Link Layer?
Frame Check Sequence.
178
What does the Physical Layer ensure during the transmission of data?
Bit synchronization.
179
What is the final output of the Physical Layer before transmission?
A bit stream of ones and zeroes converted to corresponding charges.
180
What happens to the data as it travels down through the OSI model?
Encapsulation occurs as headers are added at each layer.
181
What is the purpose of the MAC address in the Data Link Layer?
Identifies the source and destination devices on a local network.
182
True or False: The encapsulation process occurs in reverse order during decapsulation.
True.
183
What does the Application Layer pass to the Presentation Layer?
Data with the Application Layer header added.
184
Fill in the blank: The _______ Layer converts data formats, such as changing text to ASCII.
Presentation
185
What is a protocol suite?
A comprehensive set of communication protocols used for networked devices to communicate and exchange data.
186
What does TCP/IP stand for?
Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol.
187
What is the foundation of the modern Internet?
The TCP/IP suite.
188
How many layers are in the TCP/IP suite?
Five layers.
189
What is the top layer of the TCP/IP suite model?
Application Layer.
190
What does the Application Layer serve as?
The interface between software applications and the network.
191
Name an example of a TCP/IP application.
Email client software or Web browsers.
192
What protocol is most commonly used for surfing the Internet?
HTTP.
193
What does the Transport Layer create between applications?
Virtual TCP or UDP connections.
194
What is the purpose of the Transport Layer in TCP/IP?
To assign port numbers and add TCP or UDP headers to messages.
195
Which protocols use TCP as the transport protocol?
* Telnet
* SMTP
* FTP
* HTTP
196
Which protocols use UDP as the transport protocol?
* SNMP
* DNS
* DHCP
197
What is the role of the Network Layer in TCP/IP?
To create packets that move across the network.
198
What information does the Network Layer add to the data?
A header containing the source and destination IP address.
199
What is the Data Link Layer responsible for?
Creating frames that move across the network.
200
What does the Data Link Layer use to generate frames?
A Media Access Controller (MAC).
201
What does the Physical Layer do?
Encodes and decodes bits and sends/receives signals.
202
Fill in the blank: The TCP/IP model has _____ layers.
five
203
True or False: The TCP/IP model compresses the Application, Presentation, and Session layers into one.
True.
204
What happens to the data at the Application Layer when requesting a Webpage download?
The Application Layer generates a message that is sent to the Transport layer.
205
What is added to the message by the Transport Layer?
A TCP or UDP header including source and destination port information.
206
What is referred to as a segment in the Transport Layer?
Data generated using TCP.
207
What is referred to as a datagram in the Transport Layer?
Data generated using UDP.
208
What does the Data Link Layer add to create a frame?
A header containing the MAC address information.
209
What determines how bits are transmitted in the Physical Layer?
The mode of transmission (e.g., light signals, electrical signals, radio waves).
210
What does connection-oriented mean in the context of data transmission?
Delivery of information or data is guaranteed by the protocols employed to transmit it
211
What is the primary function of Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)?
Responsible for the end-to-end transmission of data
212
How does TCP ensure reliability in data transfer?
By enabling two computers to establish a connection and exchange streams of data with sequencing and acknowledgement
213
What is the process called that involves both sending and receiving machines acknowledging each other's presence?
ACK/NACK or just ACK (three-way handshake)
214
What happens if a segment goes missing in TCP?
The receiving system must request the missing segments
215
At which layer of the OSI and TCP/IP models does TCP operate?
Transport Layer
216
What are some protocols that require the reliable ordered delivery of packets provided by TCP?
* Telnet
* Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)
* File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
* Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)
217
What is contained in a data header?
Essential information about the data it precedes, such as its type, format, or other attributes
218
What is the size of the TCP header?
20 bytes (160 bits)
219
What is the purpose of the Sequence Number in a TCP header?
Helps in the proper sequencing of data packets
220
What does the ACK Number in a TCP header indicate?
The next expected sequence number the recipient is ready to receive
221
What does the Data Offset field specify in the TCP header?
The length of the TCP header indicating where the TCP header ends and the actual data begins
222
What is the Reserved field in the TCP header used for?
Reserved for future use and typically set to zero
223
What are Control bits also known as in TCP?
Flags
224
What does the Window field in the TCP header represent?
The size of the sender’s receive window
225
What is the function of the Urgent Pointer in TCP?
Used for out-of-band data to give special priority to certain data
226
What does the Options field in the TCP header allow?
To include various optional parameters and settings to enhance or modify the behavior of a TCP connection
227
What is the purpose of Padding in the TCP header?
To ensure that the header length is a multiple of 32 bits
228
What does the Checksum field in the TCP header ensure?
The integrity of the TCP segment during transmission
229
What does the Source port field identify?
The source application or process on the sender’s side
230
What is the purpose of the Destination port field?
To specify the port number of the target application or service on the receiving device
231
Here are a few sentences to help remember the seven OSI layers in order. The first letter of each
word is the same as a layer of the OSI model.
FROM APPLICATION TO PHYSICAL
All People Seem To Need Data Processing
232
From physical to application bottom up
Please don’t name the space people airman
233
What does WWAN stand for?
Wireless Wide Area Network
234
What is the primary function of a WWAN?
Covers wireless networks over a wide area
235
How does a WWAN achieve its coverage?
By wirelessly connecting coverage cells
236
What type of market does WWAN typically cater to?
Smartphones market
237
Who provides services for WWAN?
Cellular service providers
238
What are some examples of coverage areas for WWAN?
* Cities
* Regions
* Countries
239
240
What does WLAN stand for?
Wireless Local Area Network
241
What is a WLAN?
A wireless computer network that links two or more devices using a wireless distribution method within a limited area
242
What is the most common way of connecting devices in a WLAN?
Wi-Fi
243
What is the maximum distance for Wi-Fi connection in a WLAN for maximum signal speed?
100 meters
244
What are the typical environments where WLANs can be used?
Home, school, computer laboratory, office building
245
What standards do most modern WLANs base their protocols on?
IEEE 802.11 standards
246
What brand name is commonly associated with WLAN technology?
Wi-Fi
247
What types of devices can connect to a WLAN?
* Laptops
* Mobile phones
* Tablet computers
* Gaming consoles
* Internet audio systems
* Internet-powered home devices and appliances
248
True or False: A WLAN can only support two devices.
False
249
What challenges arise when the number of devices in a WLAN increases?
It becomes difficult to manage
250
What may be needed to cover a vast geographical location in a WLAN?
Repeaters or signal boosters
251
Fill in the blank: A WLAN links two or more devices using a _______.
wireless distribution method
252
What is the primary function of an access point in a wireless network?
Uses radio signals for connectivity
253
How does the flexibility of an access point compare to a regular Ethernet switch?
More flexible but less secure
254
What feature does an access point use to enhance security?
Authorization features
255
What are autonomous access points?
Self-contained devices managing WLAN processes without additional controllers
256
What is a key characteristic of autonomous access points?
Contains a Wireless LAN Controller (WLC)
257
In what type of networks are autonomous access points typically used?
Small networks
258
What is a multifunction access point?
Combination of multiple devices, such as an access point, Ethernet switch, and router
259
What is an example of a multifunction access point?
Wireless router used by Internet Service Providers (ISPs)
260
What does LWAP stand for?
Lightweight Access Point
261
What role does a Lightweight Access Point (LWAP) play in a network?
Client of a Wireless LAN Controller (WLC)
262
What does an LWAP do with incoming frames of data?
Forwards them to the WLC instead of directly to the destination device
263
What is a rogue access point?
An unauthorized wireless access point installed on a secure network
264
What potential threat do rogue access points pose?
Security threat through unauthorized access or man-in-the-middle attacks
265
True or False: Rogue access points can only be installed maliciously.
False
266
Fill in the blank: A rogue access point can be created to allow a hacker to conduct a _______.
man-in-the-middle attack
267
Straight Through
A straight through cable is used to connect to unlike devices such as a pc to a switch the pins on both ends of the cable match
268
Cross over cable
Cross-Over: A Cross-Over cable is used to connect like devices. For example, to connect
two switches, computers, or routers to each other you would use a cross-over cable. The
transmit (TX) and receive (RX) pins are swapped on the opposite ends of the cable so that
you have a T-568A wired connector on one end and a T-568B connector on the other.
269
Roll Over:
In a Roll Over cable the pins are exactly opposite on the ends of the cables
such that no matter what standard (A or B) you use on one end, you would use that same
standard on the opposite end but would flip the cable (reversed mirror) before attaching
the connector. The Roll Over cable is commonly referred to as a console cable and is used
to connect a PC to the console port of a switch or router to make programming changes
to the device.
270
What does fiber optics technology convert?
Electrical signals into optical signals
## Footnote
Electrical signals are represented as ones and zeros (binary), while optical signals are represented as on and off lighting.
271
What materials are commonly used for the core of fiber optic cables?
Glass or plastic fiber
## Footnote
Glass cores are used in high-performance cables, while plastic cores are less common and used for cost-sensitive applications.
272
What is the function of the cladding layer in fiber optic cables?
It guides and contains light signals within the core
## Footnote
The cladding layer causes total internal reflection, ensuring minimal signal loss.
273
What types of fiber-optic cables exist?
Multi-Mode and Single-Mode
## Footnote
These two types differ in core size, light propagation methods, and applications.
274
What is the typical core diameter of Multi-Mode Fiber (MMF)?
50 to 100 micrometers
## Footnote
This larger core diameter allows for multiple rays of light to propagate simultaneously.
275
What light sources are used in Multi-Mode Fiber (MMF)?
Light Emitting Diodes (LEDs)
## Footnote
MMF uses LEDs to produce a range of wavelengths that travel down the optic path.
276
What is the maximum segment length for MMF at 1 Gbps Ethernet?
550 meters
## Footnote
MMF can support longer lengths than twisted-pair wire but shorter than Single-Mode Fiber.
277
What is the core diameter of Single-Mode Fiber (SMF)?
Approximately 10 micrometers
## Footnote
This small diameter allows only a single mode of light to propagate.
278
What type of light source does Single-Mode Fiber (SMF) use?
Expensive lasers
## Footnote
SMF requires lasers due to its single mode of propagation.
279
What is a key advantage of Single-Mode Fiber (SMF) over Multi-Mode Fiber (MMF)?
Significantly higher bandwidth and longer segments
## Footnote
SMF supports longer distances without interference from overlapping wavelengths.
280
True or False: Fiber optic transmissions are immune to electromagnetic monitoring.
True
## Footnote
Fiber optics transmit light signals, which do not emit electromagnetic radiation.
281
Fill in the blank: Multi-Mode Fiber (MMF) supports segment lengths as long as _______ for 10 and 100 Mbps Ethernet.
2000 meters
## Footnote
MMF is suitable for communication over short distances.
282
What type of applications is Multi-Mode Fiber (MMF) generally used for?
Backbone applications in buildings
## Footnote
MMF is preferred for its high capacity and reliability in short-distance communication.
283
What is the function of a crimper?
Secures cable ends to connectors through mechanical pressure
## Footnote
Commonly used to attach RJ-45 connectors to ethernet cables.
284
What does a cable tester check?
Continuity and pinouts of a cable
## Footnote
Displays functional conductive paths and identifies pin arrangements in the connectors.
285
What is the purpose of a loopback adapter plug?
Allows testing of cables and network ports
## Footnote
Facilitates self-testing of the device by connecting one end of the cable to the device and the other to the adapter.
286
What does a punch down tool do?
Terminates the end of a wire into a terminal block
## Footnote
Aligns the wire with the slot and presses it into place.
287
What is an Optical Time Domain Reflectometer (OTDR) used for?
Checks for breaks in fiber optic cable
## Footnote
Sends a signal and measures reflected light to identify defects and their distance.
288
What does an Optical Power Meter measure?
Signal strength in fiber optic cables
## Footnote
Works with an optical light source to detect excessive attenuation.
289
What is the function of a tone generator?
Emits an audible tone into a cable for tracing
## Footnote
Aids in cable identification using a probe that detects the tone.
290
What does a digital multimeter help technicians identify?
Faulty components or sections within malfunctioning circuits
## Footnote
Tests various parts by measuring voltage, resistance, and continuity.
291
What is the first function of network monitoring?
The discovery process to find devices on the network and how they are connected.
292
What types of devices do NMSs discover on the network?
* Routers
* Switches
* Firewalls
* Servers
* Printers
293
What does NMS stand for?
Network Monitoring System
294
What is the purpose of device roles in NMSs?
To assign an appropriate role to each discovered device based on type and vendor.
295
True or False: All NMSs can discover how devices are connected to the network.
False
296
What is required to effectively monitor a network?
Knowing what devices are on the network and how they are connected.
297
What can happen if a switch fails in a network?
All devices connected to that switch can’t communicate over the network.
298
What is the function of network maps in NMSs?
To visualize the network and assist in troubleshooting.
299
What do network maps display?
* Devices
* Up-to-date status
300
What is the role of a network administrator in creating network maps?
They may need to manually process or use a drawing tool to create the maps.
301
What are the 'big 5' metrics to monitor for devices on the network?
* Ping availability
* Latency
* CPU
* Memory
* Disk
* Interface utilization
302
What is a ping?
A basic technique used to test devices within a network.
303
How do NMSs notify network administrators of issues?
* Email
* Text
* Logging
304
What is threshold-based alerting?
It enables administrators to respond to problems before they impact users or applications.
305
When is an alert issued regarding CPU utilization?
When it exceeds 80% for more than 10 minutes.
306
What is Syslog?
An automated messaging system that sends messages when an event affects a network device.
307
What is the purpose of blackout periods in NMSs?
To suspend alerts during specific times, such as when printers are shut down at night.
308
What types of reporting do NMSs provide?
* Real-time reporting
* Historical reporting
309
What can network administrators validate using NMS reporting?
That network designs are delivering the desired results.
310
What are dashboards in NMSs used for?
To deliver monitoring information in a summarized view.
311
What type of views can be found on dashboards?
* Top 10 CPU utilization view
* Top 10 Memory utilization view
312
What can network administrators do with summary dashboards?
Assess the health of the entire network.
313
What is the least significant digit (LSD)?
The digit that carries the least weight in a numbering system
## Footnote
In whole numbers, this is the digit occupying the unit’s column, typically at the extreme right of the number.
314
Where is the least significant digit typically located in the decimal system?
On the extreme right of the number
## Footnote
The LSD rarely occupies any other position in the decimal system.
315
What is the most significant digit (MSD)?
The digit that carries the most weight in a numbering system
## Footnote
It is usually the digit to the extreme left of a number.
316
In the number 3,286(10), which digit is the most significant digit?
3
## Footnote
The 3 represents three thousand.
317
In the number 3,286(10), which digit is the least significant digit?
6
## Footnote
The 6 represents only six.
318
How is the place value of a digit determined?
By its position in the number
## Footnote
Place value multiplies by the base as you move left and divides by the base as you move right.
319
What happens to place value as you move left in the decimal numbering system?
It multiplies by the base
## Footnote
In the decimal system, the base is 10.
320
What happens to place value as you move right in the decimal numbering system?
It divides by the base
## Footnote
In the decimal system, the base is 10.
321
What is the radix/base of the decimal numbering system?
10
## Footnote
This is the base used in the decimal numbering system.
322
What is the fourth place value in the binary numbering system?
8
## Footnote
The binary system has a base of 2.
323
What is the second place value in the hexadecimal numbering system?
16
## Footnote
The hexadecimal system has a base of 16.
324
What is the function of zero in mathematics?
It serves as a place holder
## Footnote
Zero helps in correctly locating the place positions of all digits in a number.
325
Give an example of how zero acts as a place holder.
505, 5005, 50005
## Footnote
The zeroes ensure that the place positions of the digits are accurately represented.
326
Converting decimal to binary
327
GROUNDING
3 Main Functions:
Personnel Safety
Equipment Protection
Electrical Noise Reduction
328
Electrical Noise Reduction
Electrical noise is reduced by different
methods:
Electrical noise is reduced by different
methods:
Avoid running signal or electrical cables next to power
sources that could add Electromagnetic Interference (EMI).
Run power and signal cables in separate conduits or cable
trays.
Shielding or filtering of local noise sources or media.
Proper grounding which protects against both noise and
power surges.
329
Impedance
Low opposition of flow
330
What is a ack *EFS*
Earth electrode
Fault protection
Signal reference
331
332
What is grounding?
A conductive path between the earth and the grounded object.
333
What does grounding do?
Diverts dangerous currents to earth and activates protective devices.
334
What forms the facility ground system?
A direct path of low impedance between the earth and various equipment.
335
What are the three subsystems of the facility ground system?
* Earth electrode
* Fault protection
* Signal reference
336
What does a typical earth electrode subsystem consist of?
* Ground rods
* Metal straps
* Wires
* Tubes
* Grids
* Plates
* Sheets
* Water pipes
* Well casings
337
What is the function of the fault protection subsystem?
Provides grounding conductors that enable protective devices to operate during a circuit fault.
338
What does the equipment fault protective subsystem do?
Protects personnel and equipment from voltages caused by faults in electrical circuits.
339
What is the signal ground?
A grid or network of wires, straps, or racks located between pieces of equipment.
340
What is the purpose of the signal reference subsystem?
Establishes a voltage reference for signal circuits and controls electrical noise and static.
341
How is a multipoint signal reference subsystem typically established?
By bonding equipment cabinets, racks, conduits, ducts, bus bars, wires, and other conductors to a common interior metal sheet or grid.
342
What is bonding?
The establishment of a low-impedance path between two metal surfaces.
343
What is impedance?
Total opposition to current flow.
344
What must a mechanical bond be?
Mechanically strong and resistant to corrosion, looseness, or stress.
345
What are the two types of bonding?
* Direct
* Indirect
346
What introduces impedance in a bond?
Corrosion.
347
What is electrostatic discharge (ESD)?
The sudden flow of electricity between two electrically charged objects.
348
What are the three common types of failures caused by ESD?
* Catastrophic
* Intermittent
* Latent
349
What is a catastrophic failure?
Total failure of the component(s) or electronic circuit(s).
350
What is an intermittent failure?
Irregular failure of the component(s) or electronic circuit(s).
351
What is a latent failure?
A delayed failure of the component(s) or electronic circuit(s).
352
True or False: All personnel handling ESDS devices should be grounded.
True
353
What is physical security?
Measures designed to prevent unauthorized access to any Air Force resource.
354
What is a Control Area?
An area that usually requires some form of identification to access.
355
What is a Restricted Area?
An area restricted by both a special access badge and a purpose for being there.
356
What is a No-Lone Zone?
An area that requires personnel to be accompanied by a companion.
357
What are active measures in facility security?
The use of proven systems and technologies.
358
What are passive measures in facility security?
The effective use of architecture, landscaping, and lighting.
359
How is a publication defined?
An officially produced, published, and distributed document issued for compliance, implementation, and/or information.
360
What do DoDIs establish?
Policy.
361
What do DoDMs implement?
Policy.
362
Who do DoDIs and DoDMs apply to?
All military personnel, DoD civil service employees, and contractors as specified.
363
What is a Security Technical Implementation Guide (STIG)?
A cybersecurity methodology for standardizing security protocols to enhance overall security.
364
What are AFIs?
Orders of the Secretary of the Air Force
365
What is a STIG?
A DoD security standard managed by the Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA)
366
How many layers are in the OSI model?
Seven layers
367
What are the seven layers of the OSI model?
* Application Layer (Layer 7)
* Presentation Layer (Layer 6)
* Session Layer (Layer 5)
* Transport Layer (Layer 4)
* Network Layer (Layer 3)
* Data Link Layer (Layer 2)
* Physical Layer (Layer 1)
368
What is the primary function of the Application Layer?
It is the layer that is the 'closest to the end user' where user data is input and output.
369
List some application/protocol examples at Layer 7.
* Web browsers
* File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
* Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)
* Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)
* Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)
* Telnet
370
What does the Presentation Layer do?
It provides compatibility by translating data from application to network format and vice versa.
371
What is the role of the Session Layer?
Sets up, coordinates, and terminates communications between applications on each host.
372
What are the responsibilities of the Transport Layer?
* Coordination of data transfer between end systems
* End-to-end error recovery
* Flow control
* Ensures complete data transfer
373
Name two Layer 4 protocol examples.
* Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)
* User Datagram Protocol (UDP)
374
What does the Network Layer do?
Addresses packets and translates logical addresses into physical addresses.
375
What are the functions of the Network Layer?
* Routing
* Forwarding
* Addressing
* Internetworking
* Error handling
* Congestion control
* Packet sequencing
376
What is the main function of the Data Link Layer?
Ensures error-free node-to-node delivery of messages.
377
What is a protocol?
A standard set of rules that allow electronic devices to communicate.
378
What is the Internet Protocol Suite also known as?
TCP/IP protocol suite
379
How are the top three layers of the OSI model represented in the TCP/IP Model?
They are compressed into a single Application Layer.
380
What does TCP stand for?
Transmission Control Protocol
381
What is the purpose of UDP?
Used when speed is of primary importance; it is faster but does not guarantee delivery.
382
What is the role of HTTP in the OSI model?
Operates in the Application, Presentation, and Session layers.
383
What is the function of DHCP?
Automatically assigns dynamic IP addresses to devices on a network.
384
What does SNMP stand for?
Simple Network Management Protocol
385
What is the purpose of DNS?
Provides a friendly name to an IP address on the Internet.
386
What is the maximum number of combinations of binary numbers in an octet?
256
387
What is the structure of an IPv4 address?
Made up of 32 bits in four groups of eight bits, referred to as octets.
388
What is a loopback address?
The network number 127
389
What are Class C addresses used for?
Used for small networks with about 2,097,152 networks and 254 possible hosts.
390
How is an IPv6 address formatted?
Consists of 8 groups of 4 hexadecimal digits separated by colons.
391
What is the purpose of a port in networking?
A virtual path to send and receive data from computers.
392
What are well-known ports?
Port numbers ranging from 0 to 1023 assigned to common protocols and services.
393
What does IANA stand for?
Internet Assigned Numbers Authority
394
What are registered ports?
Ports assigned by IANA for specific application services.
