Block D Flashcards

(93 cards)

1
Q

respiratory viruses

A

influenza, rhinovirus, adenovirus, coronavirus.
Usually acquired by inhalation of droplets and replicated in the respiratory tract

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2
Q

enteric viruses

A

polio, rotaviruses, reoviruses, some adenoviruses.
Replicate in the gut, and cause gastric infections. Acquired by ingestion of faecal-contaminated material.

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3
Q

arboviruses

A

flaviruses, bunyaviruses and some rhabdoviruses. Infects insects that ingest vertebrate blood. Replicate in tissue of the insect and then transmitted to vertebrate host.

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4
Q

hepatitis viruses

A

all viruses that cause liver disease

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5
Q

sexually transmitted viruses

A

herpes simplex, papilloma viruses.

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6
Q

where do viruses replicate

A

only in certain types of cells or in whole organisms for which the virus has a tropism

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7
Q

what are the easiest viruses to grow

A

bacterial

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8
Q

what are the hardest viruses to grow

A

plant because study often requires growth of whole plant

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9
Q

what is titer

A

number of infectious units per volume of fluid

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10
Q

plaque assay

A

analogous to the bacterial colony; one way to measure virus infectivity
Plaques are clear zones that develop on lawns of host cells
Lawn can be bacterial or tissue culture
Each plaque results from infection by a single virus particle

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11
Q

what are naked viruses

A

viruses without membranes

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12
Q

what are capsids

A

nucleic acid packaged in protein coat found in virions

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13
Q

what are nucleocapsids

A

nucleic acid and protein packaged into a virus

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14
Q

what is lysozyme

A

enzyme that makes hole in cell wall, lyses bacterial cell

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15
Q

what is neuraminidases

A

enzymes that cleave glycosidic bonds, allows liberation of viruses from cell

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16
Q

virus replication

A

initiation- recognition, attachment, penetration, uncaring
replication- transcription, protein synthesis, genome replication, assembly
release- lysis and release, budding and release

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17
Q

epstein-barr virus

A

target cell= B cell
receptor= C3d complement receptor

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18
Q

HIV 1

A

target= helper T cell
receptor= CD4

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19
Q

rhinovirus

A

target= epithelial cell
receptor= ICAM-1

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20
Q

poliovirus

A

target= epithelial cell
receptor= immunoglobulin super family protein

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21
Q

herpes simplex virus

A

target= many cells
receptor= immunoglobulin super family protein

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22
Q

rabies virus

A

target= neuron
receptor= acetyl choline receptor

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23
Q

influenza A virus

A

target= epithelial cell
receptor= sialic acid

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24
Q

B19 virus (parvovirus)

A

target= erythroid precursors
receptor= erythrocyte P antigen

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25
picornaviridae
virus= rhinovirus viral attachment protein= VP1, VP2, VP3 complex
26
adenoviridae
virus= adenovirus viral attachment protein= fibre protein
27
reovirdae
virus= reovirus, rotavirus viral attachment protein= alpha-1, VP7
28
togavirdae
virus= semliki forest virus viral attachment protein= E1, E2, E3 complex
29
rhabdovirdae
virus= rabies virus viral attachment protein= G protein
30
orthomyxoviridae
virus= influenza A virus viral attachment protein= HA
31
paramyxoviridae
virus= measles virus viral attachment protein= HA
32
herpesviridae
virus= epstein-barr virus viral attachment protein= gp350 and gp220
33
retroviridae
virus= HIV-1 viral attachment protein= gp120
34
what does it mean if the virus is smaller
its more dependent on host
35
where does DNA transcription occur
nucleus, except poxviruses
36
what is transcription regulated by
interaction of DNA binding proteins with regions of viral genome
37
what does genome replication initiate
transcription of late genes
38
what kind of energy conservation is DNA replication
semi-conservative
39
where does RNA replication occur
cytoplasm, except influenza
40
what can eukaryotic ribosomes not translate
polycistronic mRNA
41
what is a virus
genetic element that cannot replicate independently if a living host cell
42
what are virions
extracellular form of a virus, exists outside host and facilitates transmission from one host cell to another, contain nucleic acid genome surrounded by a protein coat
43
phases of viral replication
1. Attachment (adsorption of phage virion) 2. Penetration of viral nucleic acid 3. Synthesis of viral nucleic acid and protein 4. Assembly and packaging of new viruses 5. Cell lysis and release of new virions
44
what is a permissive cell
host cell that allows the complete replication cycle of a virus to occur
45
attachment and entry of Bacteriophage T4
Virions attach to cells via tail fibers that interact with polysaccharides on E. coli cell envelope. Tail fibers retract, and tail core makes contact with E. coli cell wall. Lysozyme-like enzyme forms small pore in peptidoglycan. Tail sheath contracts, and viral DNA passes into cytoplasm
46
T4 genome
has a dsDNA genome that is circularly permuted and terminally redundant
47
what is the restriction modification system
DNA destruction system, effective only against double-stranded DNA viruses
48
what do restriction enzymes do
they leave DNA at specific sequences, modification of host's own DNA at restriction enzyme recognition sites prevents cleavage of own DNA
49
what modified base does T4 DNA contain
5-hydroxymethylcytosine, its DNA is resistant to virtually all known restriction enzymes
50
what can the T4 genome be divided into
early, middle and late proteins
51
T4 genome early and middle proteins
enzymes needed for DNA replication and transcription
52
T4 genome late proteins
head and tail proteins and enzymes required to liberate mature phage particles
53
replication of bacteriophage T4 early proteins
enzyme for the synthesis and glucosylation of the T4 base hydroxymethylcytosine, enzymes that function in T4 replisome, proteins that modify host RNA polymerase
54
replication of bacteriophage T4 middle proteins
additional proteins that modify host RNA polymerase, production of viral proteins
55
replication of bacteriophage T4 late proteins
synthesised later, include proteins of virus coat, typically structural components, synthesised in larger amounts
56
packaging the T4 genome
packaging motor attaches to prohead, packaging motor is assembled, double-stranded DNA is pumped into head under pressure using ATP, after head is filled with DNA T4 tail, tail fibres and other components are added, packaging motor discarded
57
what is virulent mode
viruses lyse host cells after infection
58
what is temperate viruses
can undergo a stable genetic relationship within the host, but can also kill cells though lytic cycle
59
what is lysogeny
state where most virus genes are not expressed and virus genome (prophage) is replicated in synchrony with host chromosome
60
what is lysogen
a bacterium containing a prophage
61
bacteriophage lambda
linear dsDNA genome, Complementary, single-stranded regions 12 nucleotides long at the 5′ terminus of each strand. Upon penetration, DNA ends base-pair, forming the cos site, and the DNA ligates and forms double-stranded circle When lambda is lysogenic, its DNA integrates into E. coli chromosome at the lambda attachment site (attλ)
62
cI protein (the lambda repressor):
causes repression of lambda lytic events (Activates lysogeny)
63
Cro repressor
controls activation of lytic events (represses lysogenic genes)
64
transduction
transfer of DNA from one cell to another by bacteriophage due to mispackaging of the bacteriophage genome- drives bacterial evolution
65
Generalized transduction
DNA from any portion of the host genome is packaged inside the virion
66
Specialized transduction
DNA from a specific region of the host chromosome is integrated directly into the virus genome
67
what is entamoeba histolytica
a pathogenic protist transmitted to humans primarily though contaminated water and food
68
what is entamoeba histolytica disease called
amoebiasis
69
entamoeba histolytica non-invasive infection
intestinal disease, diarrhea, ulcers in colon
70
entamoeba histolytica invasive infection
extra-intestinal disease, abscess in liver, lung and brain
71
balantidium coli
ciliated, intestinal human and swine parasite. infections caused by cysts, transmitted to humans through faecally contaminated water
72
entamoeba histolytica treatment and diagnosis
azoles in particular metronidazole. cysts in stool
73
balantidium coli treatment and diagnosis
tetracycline, metronidazole, iodoquinol. in stool and colon tissue
74
Giardia intestinalis
Flagellated anaerobic parasite. Has mitosomes (mitochondrial 
remnant organelles). Produces highly resistant cysts
- Cause of giardiasis, a common waterborne disease. Explosive, foul-smelling diarrhea, 
intestinal cramps, nausea, weight 
loss, and malaise . Many individuals exhibit no 
symptoms and can act as carriers
75
Giardia intestinalis diagnosis and treatment
cysts and trophozoites in faeces. metronidazole and tinidazole
76
Trichomonas vaginalis
Flagellated anaerobic parasite. Transmitted person-to-person by sexual intercourse. Can survive on moist surfaces: Can be transmitted by toilet seats, sauna benches, 
and towels . Mostly asymptomatic in males . Vaginal purulent discharge, itching, and burning in women
77
Trichomonas vaginalis diagnosis and treatment
microscopy and cell culture from patient secretions. metronidazole
78
Cryptosporidium parvum
Protist (Apicomplexa) lives as a parasite in warm-blooded animals, causes diarrhoea. Produces thick-walled cells (oocysts) that are shed in the faeces of infected animals The oocysts are transmitted in faecally contaminated water (e.g. swimming pools) Oocysts are highly resistant to chlorine 
and UV radiation; thus, sedimentation 
and filtration methods are most effective 
at removal
79
Toxoplasma gondii
Apicomplexan protist that lives as a parasite in warm-blooded animals Life cycle is similar to Cryptosporidium parvum with the same intermediate stages Produces oocysts that are shed in the faeces of infected animals The oocysts are transmitted by cats (also by undercooked meat) Toxoplasmosis is mainly asymptomatic Toxoplasma can damage eyes, brain, and other organs in
immune-compromised individuals Toxoplasma can cause birth defects Treatment: Sulphadiazine and Pyrimethamine; Spiromycin
80
Naegleria fowleri
A free-living amoeba found in soil and water Infections usually result from swimming in warm, soil-contaminated water sources (e.g., hot springs or lakes) Enters the human body through the nose and 
burrows directly into the brain, causing extensive 
hemorrhage and brain damage (meningoencephalitis) In most cases fatal
81
Naegleria fowleri diagnosis and treatment
Diagnosis from cerebrospinal fluid Drug treatment is only effective if infections are 
identified early. Azoles, amphotericin B, rifampicin, and 
miltefosine
82
Acanthamoeba
Many species (e.g. castellani, polyphaga and culburtsoni) found in fresh and salt water throughout the world Infection through contaminated contact lenses/contact lens cases. Can also infect broken skin and cause cutaneous disease or even spread to the brain via the blood. Can also infect the mucosa and then the brain in a similar way to Naegleria Disease caused:
- Eye Disease: Acanthamoeba keratitis (AK)
- Cutaneous Amoebiasis: Skin Disease
- Brain Disease: Granulomatous Amoebic Encephalitis (GAE)
83
Acanthamoeba diagnosis and treatment
Diagnosis by microscopic examination of tissue samples Treatment with azoles, amphotericin B, rifampicin, and 
miltefosine (same as for Naegleria)
84
Acanthamoeba keratitis (AK)
Progressive sight-threatening corneal disease The leading risk factor is contact lens wear Most common type of Acanthamoeba infection Treatment is not always successful and corneal transplants are often required Reactivation often occurs in transplanted cornea
85
Malaria
Caused by the apicomplexan parasite Plasmodium Complex life cycle including Anopheles mosquitoes as vectors ~350 million people infected worldwide Each year over 1 million people die from malaria Generally found in tropical and subtropical regions
86
Plasmodium and Malaria
Diagnosis requires identifying Plasmodium-infected erythrocytes 
in blood smears by microscopy Drugs are used to prevent and treat infections
e.g. chloroquine and mefloquine (Lariam), pyrimethamine, doxycycline, clindamycin Malaria may recur years after the primary infection Several vaccines are currently in development Can be controlled by draining swamps or eliminating mosquitoes
87
Leishmania
Flagellated protozoan Causes cutaneous, mucocutaneous 
or visceral leishmaniasis Transmitted by bite of sand fly Infects and grows in macrophages Diagnosis: Microscopy of tissue specimen
PCR, serology
88
Leishmania mexicana
Causes cutaneous leishmaniasis Forms nodules and ulcers on skin Treatment with pentavalent antimonial 
compounds, amphotericin B, miltefosine
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Leishmania braziliensis
Causes mucocutaneous leishmaniasis (South America) Parasite destroys mucosa and cartilage of mouth, nose and throat If untreated, mucocutaneous disease can be fatal Treatment with pentavalent antimonial compounds, amphotericin B, miltefosine
90
Leishmania donovani
Causes visceral leishmaniasis (VL) Parasite travels to internal organs Damage to liver, spleen, and bone marrow If untreated, visceral disease is fatal Recovery possible but occasionally relapse occurs (post-kala-azar dermal leishmanoid; PKDL) Treatment with pentavalent antimonial compounds, amphotericin B, miltefosine
91
Trypanosoma brucei
Two subspecies T. brucei gambiense T. brucei rhodesiense Causes African sleeping sickness (Human African trypanosomiasis; HAT); 55 million at risk; 300,000 cases/year Transmitted by bite of tsetse fly Parasite multiplies in blood Intermittent fever during early stages of infection (stage I)
92
Trypanosoma brucei stage 2
Leeds to inflammation of brain tissue and necrosis Diagnosis by spinal puncture and microscopy of cerebro-spinal fluid Requires hospitalisation Meningoencephalitic stage, invasion of the central nervous system with headaches, somnolence, abnormal behavior, lethargy, loss of consciousness and coma Treatment with suramin, melarsoprol, pentamidine,
eflornithine
93
Trypanosoma cruzi
Causes Chagas' disease (American trypanosomiasis) Transmitted by bite and defaecation of "kissing bug“ (Triatomine bug) Parasite affects heart, gastrointestinal tract, and central nervous system Occurs in Latin American countries Diagnosis by microscopy or serology Treatment with nifurtimox (Lampit) and benznidazole (Radanil)