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MHARS EXAM > BLOOD BANK > Flashcards

BLOOD BANK Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Trans fusion of 1 unit of blood must be completed wihtin how many hours of
    transfusion?

a. 1 hour
b. 2 hours
c. 3 hours
d. 4 hours

A

b. 2 hours

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2
Q
  1. Which of the following condition for accepting a donor for plateletpheresis?

a. 72 hours since the last apheresis
b. Plasmapheresis of 800 ml 1 week ago
c. Platelet count of 100x109/L
d. Aspirin ingestion 7 days ago

A

c. Platelet count of 100x109/L

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3
Q
  1. Which of the following donors could be accepted for blood donation?

a. 18 year old woman with hematocrit of 38%
b. 45 year old man with a blood pressure of 180/100
c. 60 year old man with a history of Babesiosis
d. 30 year old man who had been vaccinated for rabies 6 mos. Ago

A

a. 18 year old woman with hematocrit of 38%

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4
Q
  1. Red blood cells stored in CPDA blood bag would have a shelf life of:

a. 21 days
b. 35 days
c. 2 days
d. 42 days

A

b. 35 days

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5
Q
  1. what is the proper storage protocol for a granulocyte concentrates?

a. 1-6 degrees Celcius
b. Room temperature with agitation
c. -18 degrees Celcius
d. Room temperature without agitation

A

d. Room temperature without agitation

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6
Q
  1. What is the purpose of adding citric acid to blood bag preservatives?

a. To prevent coagulation
b. To restore ATP levels
c. To improve survival of red cells
d. To prevent caramelization

A

a. To prevent coagulation

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7
Q
  1. Fresh frozen plasma stored at -65 degrees Celcius would have a shelf-life of:

a. 1 year
b. 5 years
c. 7 years
d. 10 years

A

c. 7 years

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8
Q
  1. Cryoprecipitate that has been thawed must be transfused within ___ hours

a. 6 hours
b. 8 hours
c. 4 hours
d. 24 hours

A

a. 6 hours

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9
Q
  1. Platelets prepared from whole blood donation require which of the following

a. A light spins
b. Two light spins
c. A hard spin followed by a light spin
d. Two heavy spin

A

c. A hard spin followed by a light spin

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10
Q
  1. When a suspected hemolytic transfusion reaction occurs, the first thing to do is:

a. Slow the transfusion rate and call the physician
b. Administer medication to stop the reaction
c. First inform the laboratiory to begin investigation
d. Stop the transfusion but keep the intravenous line open with saline

A

d. Stop the transfusion but keep the intravenous line open with saline

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11
Q
  1. HBV is transmitted most frequently:

a. By unknown method
b. Through blood transfusion
c. By needle sharing among IV drug abusers
d. By sexual activity

A

c. By needle sharing among IV drug abusers

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12
Q
  1. Which of the following blood-borne pathogen is destroyed under prolonged cold
    temperature storage?

a. Babesiosis
b. Trypanosoma cruzi
c. Treponema pallidum
d. Plasmodium falciparum

A

c. Treponema pallidum

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13
Q
  1. What samples are required to perform compatibility testing?

a. Patient serum and donor serum
b. Patient serum and donor red cell
c. Donor serum and patient red cells
d. Donor cells and patient red cell

A

b. Patient serum and donor red cell

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14
Q
  1. Which of the following replaces minor crossmatching?

a. DAT
b. Immediate spin
c. Antibody screening
d. Elution

A

c. Antibody screening

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15
Q
  1. Blood donor and recipient samples used in crossmatching must be stored for a
    minimum of how many days following transfusion?

a. 2 days
b. 5 days
c. 7 days
d. 10 days

A

c. 7 days

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16
Q
  1. RBCs must be washed in saline at least three times before the addition of AHG
    reagent to:

a. Wash away any hemolyzed cells
b. Neutralize any excess AHG reagent
c. Increase the antibody binding to antigen
d. Remove traces of free serum globulins

A

d. Remove traces of free serum globulins

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17
Q
  1. What is the collor of LISS?

a. Yellow
b. Green
c. Blue
d. Colorless

A

d. Colorless

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18
Q
  1. Blood bank refrigerator should be set at:

a. 2-4 degrees F
b. 1-2 degrees F
c. 1-6 degrees C
d. 1-10 degrees C

A

c. 1-6 degrees C

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19
Q
  1. Hematoma occur upon bleeding, what to do?

a. Remove touniquet and needle, and then apply pressure on site
b. Have the donor breathe on a paper bag
c. Tell the donor to make a fist
d. Do nothing

A

a. Remove touniquet and needle, and then apply pressure on site

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20
Q
  1. Refers to an individual who donates blood for his or her own use:

a. Allogenic donor
b. Autologous donor
c. Voluntary blood donor
d. Relative donor

A

b. Autologous donor

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21
Q
  1. Delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions from amnestic responses usually occur
    within which time period:

a. 5 hours
b. 24 hours
c. Several weeks after transfusion
d. 3-7 days after transfusion

A

d. 3-7 days after transfusion

22
Q
  1. This refers to 1 degree Celsius rise of temperature following blood transfusion:

a. Febrile non-hemolytic
b. Allergic transfusion reaction
c. Anaphylactic transfusion reaction
d. TRALI

A

a. Febrile non-hemolytic

23
Q
  1. What corrective action should be taken when rouleaux causes positive test results?

a. Run a panel
b. Perform an elution
c. Wash cells and dilute serum
d. Perform an autoabsorption

A

c. Wash cells and dilute serum

24
Q
  1. How many hours must a FFP be prepared after phlebotomy?

a. 2 hours
b. 4 hours
c. 8 hours
d. Up to hours

A

c. 8 hours

25
Q
  1. Which of the following blood components must be transfused to a patient with
    aplastic anemia?

a. PRBC
b. FWB
c. Irradiated blood
d. FFP

A

c. Irradiated blood

26
Q
  1. What is the required deferral period for a blood donor with chicken pox?

a. 2 weeks
b. 4 weeks
c. No deferral
d. Permanently deferred

A

b. 4 weeks

27
Q
  1. Acquired B phenomenon is seen in patient with ABO group:

a. A
b. B
c. AB
d. O

A

a. A

28
Q
  1. Shelf life of PRBC collected with a CPDA-1 through an open system

a. 24 hours
b. 2 days
c. 35 days
d. NOTA

A

a. 24 hours

29
Q
  1. Which of the following is not performed during donor processing?

a. HBsAg
b. ABO and Rh
c. HIV Ag
d. HBsAb

A

d. HBsAb

30
Q
  1. 1 year donor deferral includes the following except:

a. Hepatitis B immune globulin administration
b. Rabies vaccination
c. Rape victim
d. Malaria infection

A

b. Rabies vaccination

31
Q
  1. True regarding hemoglobin determination using the copper sulfate method except:

a. Uses 30 ml container
b. Maximum of 25 test
c. Solution changed daily
d. Acceptance blood drop should sink in 15 seconds

A

a. Uses 30 ml container

32
Q
  1. Specimen of choice
    for DAT:

a. EDTA blood
b. Serum
c. Plasma
d. Heparinized blood

A

a. EDTA blood

33
Q
  1. The minimum interval allowed between plateletpheresis component collection procedure is:

a. 24 hours
b. 48 hours
c. 7 days
d. 8 weeks

A

b. 48 hours

34
Q
  1. Immune hemolytic anemias may be classified in which of the following categories?

a. Alloimmune
b. Autoimmune
c. Drug induced
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

35
Q
  1. When preparing cells for a cold autoadsorption procedure, it is helpful to pretreat
    the cells with which of the following?

a. Dithiothreitol
b. Ficin
c. Phosphate-buffered saline at pH 9.0
d. Bovine albumin

A

b. Ficin

36
Q
  1. The blood group involved in the autoantibody specificity in PCH is

a. P
b. ABO
c. Rh
d. Lewis

A

a. P

37
Q
  1. Which of the following blood groups reacts best with an anti-H or anti-IH?

a. O
b. B
c. A2
d. A1

A

a. O

38
Q
  1. With cold reactive autoantibodies, the protein coating the patient’s cells and
    detected in the DAT is:

a. C3
b. IgG
c. C4
d. IgM

A

a. C3

39
Q
  1. Problems in routine testing caused by cold reactive autoantibodies can usually be
    resolvd by all of the following except:

a. Prewarming
b. Washing with warm saline
c. Using anti-IgG antiglobulin serum
d. Testing clotted blood specimens

A

d. Testing clotted blood specimens

40
Q
  1. Pathological cold agglutinins differ from common cold autoagglutinins in:

a. Immunoglobulins class
b. Thermal amplitude
c. Antibody specificity
d. DAT results on EDTA specimen

A

b. Thermal amplitude

41
Q
  1. Cold AIHA is sometimes associated with infection by:

a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
c. Escherichia coli
d. Group A. Streptococcus

A

b. Mycoplasma pneumoniae

42
Q
  1. May warm reactive autoantibodies have broad specificity within which of the
    following blood groups?

a. Kell
b. Duffy
c. Rh
d. Kidd

A

c. Rh

43
Q
  1. Valid Rh typing can usually be obtained on a patient with WAIHA using all of the
    following reagents or techniques except:

a. Slide and modified tube anti-D
b. Chloroquine-treated RBCs
c. Rosette test
d. Monoclonal anti-D

A

a. Slide and modified tube anti-D

44
Q
  1. In pretransfusion testing for a patient with WAIHA, the primary concern is:

a. Treating the patient’s cells with chloroquine for reliable antigen typing
b. Adsorbing out all antibodies in the patient’s serum to be able to provide
compatible RBCs
c. Determining the exact specificity of the autoantibody so that compatible RBCs
can be found
d. Discovering any existing significant alloantibodies in the patient’s
circulation

A

d. Discovering any existing significant alloantibodies in the patient’s
circulation

45
Q
  1. Penicillin given in massive does has been associated with RBC hemolysis. Which of
    the classic mechanisms is typically involved in the hemolytic process?

a. Immune complexes
b. Drug adsorption
c. Membrane modification
d. Autoantibody formation

A

b. Drug adsorption

46
Q
  1. Which of the following drugs has been associated with complement activation and
    rapid intravascular hemolysis?

a. Penicillin
b. Quinidine
c. Alpha-methyldopa
d. cephalosporins

A

d. cephalosporins

47
Q
  1. a patient who is taking Aldomet has a positive DAT. An eluate prepared form his
    RBC’s would be expected to:

a. React only with Aldomet-coated cells
b. Be neutralized by a suspension of Aldomet
c. React with all normal cells
d. React only with Rhnull cells

A

c. React with all normal cells

48
Q

48.One method that can be used to separate a patient’s RBCs form recently transfused
donor RBCs is:

a. Chloroquine diphosphate treatment of the RBCs
b. Reticulocyte harvesting
c. EGA treatment
d. Donath-Landsteiner testing

A

b. Reticulocyte harvesting

49
Q
  1. Monoclonal antisera is valuable in phenotyping RBCs with positive DATs because:

a. Both polyspecific and monospecific antihuman serum can be used in antiglobulin
testing
b. Anti-C3 serum can be used in antiglobulin testing
c. It usually does not require antiglobulin testing
d. It does not require enzyme treatment of the cells prior to antiglobulin testing

A

c. It usually does not require antiglobulin testing

50
Q
  1. Autoadsorption procedures to remove either warm or cold autoantobodies
    should not be used with recently transfused patient. Recently means:

a. 3 days
b. 3 weeks
c. 6 weeks
d. 3 months

A

d. 3 months

MHARS EXAM (7 decks)

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