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MHARS EXAM > IMMUNOLOGY/SEROLOGY > Flashcards

IMMUNOLOGY/SEROLOGY Flashcards

1
Q
  1. The normal CD4-CD8 ratio in healthy individual is :. In person infected with AIDS, the CD4-CD8 ratio is ?

a. 4:1
b. 3:1
c. 1:2
d. 5:1
e. 0.5:1

A

e. 0.5:1

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2
Q
  1. A confirmatory or diagnostic test for HIV infection is?

a. Radioimmune assay
b. Enzyme linked immunosorbent assay
c. Ouchterlony
d. Latex agglutination assay
e. Western blot assay

A

e. Western blot assay

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3
Q
  1. The immunologic abnormalities in AIDS include

a. An absence of delayed hypersensitivity
b. Lymphopenia due to CD4 T cells deficiency
c. Reversal of the usual 2:1 ratio of CD4/CD8 blood lymphocytes.
d. Depressed lymphocytes response to mitogens
e. All of the above

A

e. All of the above

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4
Q
  1. IgE is produced by

a. Basophils
b. Plasma cells
c. T lymphocytes
d. Eosinophils
e. Mast cells

A

b. Plasma cells

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5
Q
  1. In a typical complement fixation test, complement is bound to

a. Free hemolysin
b. erythrocytes
c. Antigen-antibody complex
d. Free antigen
e. Free antibody

A

c. Antigen-antibody complex

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6
Q
  1. The method of choice for measuring total Ige in serum is

a. Radial immunodiffusion
b. Radioimmunoassay
c. Indirect immunoflourescence
d. Serum protein electrophoresis
e. Countercurrent electrophoresis

A

b. Radioimmunoassay

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7
Q
  1. Grossly elevated serum levels of Ige can be found in

a. Tuberculosis
b. Leprosy
c. AIDS
d. Parasitism
e. Syphylis

A

d. Parasitism

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8
Q
  1. Which of the following is found in the milk of lactating women?

a. IgA
b. IgM
c. IgG
d. IgD
e. IgE

A

a. IgA

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9
Q
  1. HIV-1 is transmitted via

a. Swimming pools
b. Kissing
c. Sharing of untensils and tootbrush
d. Infected body fluids
e. All of the above

A

d. Infected body fluids

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10
Q
  1. Which of the following inhibits viral replication?

a. interleukin-B
b. Interleukin-3
c. Interleukin-4
d. Tumor necrosis factor
e. All of the above

A

e. All of the above

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11
Q
  1. The HLA complex is primarily located on

a. Chromosome 3
b. Chromosome 6
c. Chromosome 9
d. X-chromosome
e. Y-chromosome

A

b. Chromosome 6

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12
Q
  1. A lymphokine is

a. A soluble mediator produced by lymphocytes
b. An antibody that reacts with lymphocytes
c. A soluble mediator produced by plasma cells
d. A soluble mediator produced by granulocytes
e. None of the above

A

a. A soluble mediator produced by lymphocytes

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13
Q
  1. For a substance to be antigenic, it must

a. Be recognized as non-self
b. Be less than 5000 molecular weight
c. Be a linear molecule
d. Be a lipid
e. All of the above

A

a. Be recognized as non-self

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14
Q
  1. All immunoglobulins have the same basic structure which consist of

a. Four heavy chains
b. Four light chains
c. Four heavy chains and 4 light chains
d. 2 heavy chains and 2 light chains
e. 2 heavy chains and 4 light chains

A

d. 2 heavy chains and 2 light chains

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15
Q
  1. The VDRL Test for syphilis is classified as

a. Agglutination reaction
b. Hemagglutination reaction
c. Flocculation reaction
d. Precipitation reaction
e. Hemolysin reaction

A

c. Flocculation reaction

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16
Q
  1. The rapid plasma reagin (RPR) for syphilis does not need to be read
    microphysicallly beacause the antigen is

a. Cardiolipin
b. Particulate
c. Complexed to latex
d. Complexed to charcoal
e. Incativated bacterial cells

A

d. Complexed to charcoal

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17
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about the test for C-reactive protein (CPR) is
    true?

a. It is diagnostics for rheumatic fever
b. It measures patient antibody
c. The antigen used is particulate
d. The antibody used may be absorbed to latex beads
e. All of the above

A

d. The antibody used may be absorbed to latex beads

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18
Q
  1. The major class of Immunoglobulin (Ig) found in adult human serum is

a. IgA
b. IgD
c. IgE
d. IgG
e. IgM

A

d. IgG

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19
Q
  1. The type of immunity that follows injection of an antigen is

a. Adaptive
b. Active
c. Passive
d. Innate
e. complementary

A

b. Active

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20
Q
  1. The Type of immunity that follows injection of antibodies synthesized to another individual or animal is?

a. Adaptive
b. Active
c. Passive
d. Innate
e. complementary

A

c. Passive

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21
Q
  1. The strength with which a multivalent antibody binds a multivalent antigen is
    termed.

a. Specificity
b. Affinity
c. Avidity
d. Valence
e. None of the above

A

c. Avidity

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22
Q
  1. Antibodies arise from

a. Monocyte
b. Plasma cells
c. Metarubricytes
d. Promyelocytes
e. Red cells

A

b. Plasma cells

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23
Q
  1. Phagocytosis by reticuloendothelial cells is enhanced by

a. Hemolysins
b. Opsonins
c. Specific anti-toxins
d. Neutralizing antibodies
e. None of the above

A

b. Opsonins

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24
Q
  1. The Well-felix reaction is used for laboratory diagnosis of

a. Mycotic disease
b. Bacterial disease
c. Allergic condition
d. Rickettsial antibodies
e. None of the above

A

d. Rickettsial antibodies

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25
Q
  1. Which of the following immunoglobulins is a pentamer which can fix a
    complement?

a. IgA
b. IgD
c. Ige
d. IgG
e. IgM

A

e. IgM

26
Q
  1. The following are type I hypersensitivity/immediate reaction except

a. Urticaria
b. Hay fever
c. Bronchial asthma
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

A

d. All of the above

27
Q
  1. The following are precipitation assays except

a. Double immunodiffusion
b. Radial immunodiffusion
c. Electroimmunodiffusion
d. Floculation tests
e. None of the above

A

d. Floculation tests

28
Q
  1. The following laboratory methods are used for detection of antibodies in HIV
    infection except

a. Immunofluorescence assay (IFA)
b. ELISA
c. Western blot assay
d. Radioimmunoassay
e. None of the above

A

d. Radioimmunoassay

29
Q
  1. The first immunoglobulin is produced after exposure to an antigen is

a. IgA
b. IgG
c. IgM
d. IgE
e. IgD

A

c. IgM

30
Q
  1. The first detectable antibodies to appear in HIV infection are

a. p24
b. gp41
c. p51
d. gpl20
e. None of the above

A

a. p24

31
Q
  1. In the ELISA system, the visible reaction is due to a reaction between

a. Sheep cells and hemolysin
b. Enzyme and substrate
c. Fluorescent dye and bacteria
d. Group specific red cells and antibody
e. Latex particles and antibody

A

b. Enzyme and substrate

32
Q
  1. The alternative pathway for complement activation

a. Does not require antibody for activation
b. Bypasses steps C1-C4
c. Can be activated by bacterial capsule polysaccharides
d. Can be activated by properdin
e. All of the above

A

c. Can be activated by bacterial capsule polysaccharides

33
Q
  1. What type of cell predominates in the germinal centers of lymph nodes?

a. B cells
b. T cells
c. Macrophages
d. Natural killer cells

A

a. B cells

34
Q
  1. What is the predominant type of antibody in the serum or neonates.

a. Infant IgG
b. Infant IgD
c. Infant IgA
d. Maternal IgG
e. Maternal IgM

A

d. Maternal IgG

35
Q
  1. In a complement fixation test (CFT), that is positive

a. The visible result is the lysis of rbc
b. The complement acts with antibody of indicator system
c. The hemolysin is the antigen in the indicator system.
d. The compliment acts a component of primary test system.
e. All of the above

A

b. The complement acts with antibody of indicator system

36
Q
  1. In the ELISA test,

a. The enzyme system is attached to patient antibody
b. A radioactive label is required
c. The end point must be determined by spectrophotometer
d. The system may be adapted to detect antigen or antibody
e. All of the above

A

a. The enzyme system is attached to patient antibody

37
Q
  1. A hapten is

a. Half of an immunoglobulin molecule
b. Half of the IgA dimer immunoglobulin
c. An immunoglobulin functional only in the presence of complement.
d. A carrier molecule for an antigen that is not antigenic alone
e. A determinant capable of the stimulating an immune response only when
bound to a carrier

A

e. A determinant capable of the stimulating an immune response only when
bound to a carrier

38
Q
  1. The immunoglobulin class found in saliva, tears, and other body secretions is

a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgD
e. All of the above

A

b. IgA

39
Q
  1. Which of the following types of cells secrete antibodies?

a. Killer cells
b. Bone marrow stem cells
c. Mast cells
d. B cells
e. All of the above

A

d. B cells

40
Q
  1. Which of the following immunoglobulins produced in the greatest amount
    during secondary antibody response?

a. IgA
b. IgM
c. IgG
d. IgE
e. None of the above

A

c. IgG

41
Q
  1. In the ASO test, if the patient’s serum contains antistreptolysin antibody to neutralize the antigen which of the following occurs?

a. Hemolysis
b. No hemolysis
c. Agglutination
d. Clot formation
e. None of the above

A

b. No hemolysis

42
Q
  1. The acute phase protein that shows the most dramatic rise during acute
    inflamation is

a. Fibrinogen
b. C-reactive protein
c. Alpha 2 macroglobulin
d. Haptoglobin
e. None of the above

A

b. C-reactive protein

43
Q
  1. Lipoidal antigen reagents consisting of cardiolipin, lecithin, cholesterol and
    charcoal are used in

a. Rapid plasma reagin (RPR)
b. Venereal disease research laboratory (VDRL)
c. Microhemaggglutination-Treponema pallidum
d. Wassermann test
e. All of the above

A

a. Rapid plasma reagin (RPR)

44
Q
  1. Which of the following titter would be considered significant when performing a cold agglutinin test on patient’s serum?

a. 2
b. 4
c. 8
d. 16
e. 32

A

e. 32

45
Q
  1. In determining enzyme immunoassay, the technique which requires that the antigen bind simultaneously with 2 molecules of antibody is called

a. ELISA
b. EMIT
c. EIA
d. One site immunoenzymometric assay
e. Sandwich technique

A

a. ELISA

46
Q
  1. The phrase “complement is fixed” means that complement has been

a. Inactivated
b. Destroyed
c. Bound in a reaction
d. Contaminated
e. Exposed to enzyme

A

c. Bound in a reaction

47
Q
  1. Which of the following refers to the strength of the bond between the antigen
    and antibody

a. Epitome
b. Agglutination
c. Affinity
d. Avidity
e. Specificity

A

c. Affinity

48
Q
  1. The classic pathway in the complement system requires which of the
    following for activation?

a. IgG
b. IgM
c. Either A or B
d. None of the above

A

c. Either A or B

49
Q
  1. When antibody and molecule are in excess of available antigenic sites
    resulting in false negative reactions is called

a. Equivalence
b. Prozone
c. Lysis
d. Adsorption
e. None of the above

A

b. Prozone

50
Q
  1. Which of the following hepatic markers indicate recovery and life long
    immunity?

a. HBsAG
b. HBsAb
c. HBcAg
d. HBeAg
e. HBeAb

A

b. HBsAb

51
Q

P1. IgE is produced by?

A. Basophils
B. Plasma cells
C. T-Lymphocytes
D. Eosinophils
E. Mast cells

A

B. Plasma cells

52
Q

P2. In a typical compliment fixation test, complement is bound to

A. Free hemolysin
B. Erythrocytes
C. Antigen-antibody complex
D. Free antigen
E. Free antibodies

A

C. Antigen-antibody complex

53
Q

P3. Which of the following is found in the milk of lactating mother?

A. IgA
B. IgM
C. IgG
D. IgD
E. IgE

A

A. IgA

54
Q

P4. For a substance to be antigenic, it must

A.) be recognized as non self
B.) be less than 5000 molecular weight
C.) be a linear molecule
D.) be a lipid
E.) all of the above

A

A.) be recognized as non self

55
Q

P5. All immunoglobulins have the same basic structures which consists of

A. 4 heavy chains
B. 4 light chains
C. 4 heavy chins & 4 light chains
D. 2 light chains & 2 heavy chains
E. 2 heavy chains & 4light chains

A

D. 2 light chains & 2 heavy chains

56
Q

P6. The VDRL test for Syphilis is classified as

A. Agglutination reaction
B. Hemagglutination reaction
C. Flocculation reaction
D. Precipitation reaction
E. Hemolysis reaction

A

C. Flocculation reaction

57
Q

P7. The types of immunity that follows injection of an antigen is

A. Adaptive
B. Active
C. Passive
D. Innate
E. Complimentary

A

B. Active

58
Q

P8. The type of immunity that follows injection of antibodies synthesized by another
individual or animal is

A. Adaptive
B. Active
C. Passive
D. Innate
E. Complimentary

A

C. Passive

59
Q

P9. Antibodies arise from

A. Monocytes
B. Plasma cells
C. Metarubricytes
D. Promyelocytes
E. Red cells

A

B. Plasma cells

60
Q

P10. The first immunoglobulin is produced after exposure to an antigen is

A. IgA
B. IgG
C. IgM
D. IgE
E. IgD

A

C. IgM

MHARS EXAM (7 decks)

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