Blood composition and function Flashcards

1
Q

What is arterial pressure

A

When the blood is under considerable pressure
* left ventricle in full contraction (cystolic)
* maintained by elastic vessel walls that contain abundance of smooth muscle

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2
Q

What does blood do

A

Blood provides a one-way pressurised system for the transport of oxygen, proteins, glucose, lipis and essential ions

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3
Q

Why is venous pressure lower than arterial pressure

A

Because veins are not elastic; one way valves are required to prevent back flow.

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4
Q

What does blood pressure ensure

A
  1. Even and efficient flow through small cappilaries
  2. low enough to prevent capillary leakage but high enough to avoid coagulation
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5
Q

What does the heart do

A
  • Takes blood from lungs (that are fully oxygenated) and sents through into left ventricle
  • Pumps blood through arterias
  • sends blood through all tissues
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6
Q

Oxygen transport

A

Oxygen is carried from lungs to tissues by haemoglobin (major protein in RBC)

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7
Q

RBC make up __% of the total blood volume and haemoglobin constitutes __% of the RBC’s dry weight.

A

45% and 96%

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8
Q

Each haemaglobin molecule contains…

A

4 haem molcules each containing 1 iron atom in the ferrous form (Fe2+)

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9
Q

What is the function of blood

A

A one-way pressurised system for the transport of oxygen, proteins, glucose, lipids and essential ions all required for normal cell function.

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10
Q

What does a LBP mean

A

Cant push blood efficiently

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11
Q

What does a HBP mean

A

The heart is pumping much harder , the arteries are not as elastic

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12
Q

What are the major components of blood

A
  1. Cells
  2. proteins
  3. lipids
  4. electrolytes
  5. vitamins, hormones
  6. glucose
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13
Q

What are the different cells involved with blood

A

Erythroid, myeloid and lymphoid

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14
Q

What is blood separation by electrophoresis

A

A ommon means of separating blood proteins using an electrial field. Serum electrophoresis separates serum into 5 major protein fractions - abumin, a1, a1, B and y fractions.

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15
Q

What 5 major protein fractions does serum electrophoresis separate into

A

Serum electrophoresis separates serum into 5 major protein fractions - abumin, a1, a1, B and y fractions.

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16
Q

What are different proteins part of the blood

A

Albumin, fibrinogen, haemaglobin, immunoglobins (the major ones)

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17
Q

What is albumin

A

It functions primarily to maintain colloidal osmotic pressure but also binds and transports many small molecules and proteins. Albumin is a major binder for pharmaceutical drugs - affecting their bioavailability

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18
Q

What percentage of total blood proteins are albumin

A

50%

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19
Q

What is fibrinogen

A

The second most abundant protein. This protein is cleaved by the enzyme thrombin to from cross-linked fibrin that forms the blood clot.

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20
Q

What are immunoglobins

A

They are found in the Y fraction (serum electrophoresis) and are responsible for immunity. Ig proteins are produced by plasma cells, a form of B lymphocyte.

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21
Q

What percentage of total blood proteins are immunoglobins (Ig)

A

~10%

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22
Q

What are complemtn (c’) proteins

A

A group of zymogens (inactive until cleaved) essential for phagocytosis and innate immunity. It coats invading organisms so they can be digested by phagocytes.

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23
Q

How many components of Complement are there, and which one is the most abundant protein

A

9 - most abundant is C3

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24
Q

What are coagulation proteins

A

A set of 13 proteins that initiates the cleavage of fibrinogen to fibrin to form the clot. Thrombin is the central enzyme that does this.

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25
Q

What is thrombin

A

What is the central enzyme that cleaves fibrinogen?

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26
Q

Upon low speed centrifugation, what three components does blood separate to

A
  1. packed red cells (40%)
  2. buffy coat (10%) containing white cells
  3. plasma (50%) containing soluble proteins, lipids and centrifugation.
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27
Q

What is plasma

A

The viscious liquid fraction of uncoagulated blood.
* Where lipids are digested.
* All soluble proteins are present.
* Includes small celsls involved in coagulation.
* Homeostasis

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28
Q

why is it the particular colour

What is serum

A

Straw coloured liquid that remains after coagulation. It is this ccolour but if you’ve just had a fatty meal then it is cream coloured because of the ingested lipids.

29
Q

Why is fibrinogen absent from serum

A

It has formed the insoluble fibrin clot.

30
Q

What are coagulation factors

A

13 proteins cleaved in an ordered cascade resulting in fibrinogen to fibrin.

31
Q

What are the three types of blood cells and their functions

A
  1. Erythrocytes - carries o2
  2. Leukocytes - essential for immunity
  3. Platelets - coagulation and tissue repair
32
Q

What is haematapoiesis

A

All blood cells begin life as a single pluripotent human stem cell (HSC) found mainly in the bone marrow. It is characteristed by teh CD34 cell surface marker atigen used to isolate these cells.

33
Q

Where are CD34+ most abundant

A

In placental cord blood.

34
Q

What does CD34+ give rise to

A

Two multi-potent stem cells - myeloid or lymphoid progenitors

35
Q

What is a myeloid progenitor

A

Can give rise to erthryocytes, a platelet producing megakaryocytes, mast cells or myeoblasts.

36
Q

What is the function of myeloid cells

A

Provide you with innate immunity and phagocytosis. These cells have a range of receptors that bind immune complexes. Microbes are rapidly phagocytosed and killed once they have been oponised by complement proteins.

37
Q

What can myeoblasts further differentiate into

A

Either neutrophils, basoophils, eosinophils or monocytes.

38
Q

What is a lymphoid progenitor

A

Differentiates into B lymphocytes or T lymphocytes.

39
Q

What does a immature T lymphocyte differentiate into

A

CD4 and CD8

40
Q

What are the three important factors that drive haematopoiesis

A

GM-CSF, EPO and G-CSF.

41
Q

What is GM-CSF produced from

A

Produced from macrophages, T cells, endothelial cells and fibroblasts.

42
Q

What does GM-CSF stimulate

A

The production of neutrophils, eosinphils, basophils and monocytes.

43
Q

What is EPO produced from

A

Mainly by the kidney during adulthood and liver in perinatal.

44
Q

What is the function of EPO

A

Drives the production of erythrocytes. It drives RBC to increase to increase O2 capacity.

45
Q

What is G-CSF produced from

A

Many different cells

46
Q

and the production of what

What does G-CSF stimulate

A

Stimulates production of granuloctes but also acts to mature neutrophils.

47
Q

What is the role of GCSF and GMCSF in relation to leukemia patients

A

They are administered to repopulate white cells in leukamia patients following radio-ablation.

48
Q

What is the role of GCSF and GMCSF in relation to leukemia patients

A

They are administered to repopulate white cells in leukamia patients following radio-ablation.

49
Q

What is the role of GCSF and GMCSF in relation to leukemia patients

A

They are administered to repopulate white cells in leukamia patients following radio-ablation.

50
Q

What are the three types of blood cells and their functions

A
  1. Erythrocytes - carries o2
  2. Leukocytes - essential for immunity
  3. Platelets - coagulation and tissue repair
51
Q

What are the three pathways that complement can be activated

A
  1. Classical activation
  2. Alternative activation
  3. lectin
52
Q

What is classical activation of complement

A

Initiated by antobodies binding to the surface of the microbe. C1, C2, C4 and C3 condense on the antibody to form a bound C3 convertase on the microbe surface.

53
Q

What is alternative pathway to activate complement

A

Complement C3 is activated just by being close to the surface of the microbe. This activates another type of C3 convertase.

54
Q

What is lectin activation pathway

A

Lectins are carbohydrate binding proteins in blood that bind to unusual carbohydrates found only on microbes. Complement condesnses on these bound lectins.

55
Q

What is end stage complement

A

The surface bound convertases activate complement C5-9. This forms a pore that inserts into some bacterial membranes to cause lysis. This pore is called the MAC.

56
Q

What are anaphylotoxins

A

Small polypeptides generated by cleavage of the larger complement proteins that are powerful chemoattrations that recruit and activate phagocytes to the site of infection.

57
Q

What is oponisation in complement

A

Deposition of complement on microbes, which is essntial for phagocytosis.

58
Q

What are virulence factors in complement

A

Many microbes produce this to inhibit the complement cascade

59
Q

Blood coagulation can be initiated through what two main pathways

A
  1. Intrinic - caused by contact with surfaces
  2. Extrinsic - caused by tissue damage.
60
Q

What is the intrinsic pathway

A

Factors XII, XI, IX and VIII lead to the cleavage of factor X that converts prothrombin to thrombin.

61
Q

What is the extrinsic pathway

A

Factors VII and tissue factors combine to activate fsctor X

62
Q

What does factor X activate

A

thrombin

63
Q

What is plasminogen

A

A protease that is activated by tissue plasminogen activator (TPA) or streptokinase.

64
Q

What is the function of TPA and streptokinase in medicine

A

Used to treat unwanted blood clots such as in myocardial infarct, pulmonary embolism (clot in lungs) or deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Must be adminstered early.

65
Q

What is plasmin

A

Cleaves the fibrin clot resulting in thrombolysis.

66
Q

What are two examples of anti-coagulants

A

Heparin and warfarin are used in medicine and many insects and parasites that rely on blood for food, and produce anti-coagulants. These block thrombin.

67
Q

What is Factor X

A

Key enzyme common to both intrinsic and extrinsic pathways

68
Q

What is calcium in relation to coagulation

A

It is essential at a number fo steps. If calcium is removed, blood will not clot.