Blood | Hematology and Immunology Flashcards
(489 cards)
1
Q
immun/o
A
protection
2
Q
lymph/o
A
lymph
3
Q
lymphaden/o
A
lymph node gland
4
Q
splen/o
A
spleen
5
Q
thym/o
A
thymus gland
6
Q
tox/o
A
poison
7
Q
ana-
A
again/anew
8
Q
inter-
A
between
9
Q
pathology pg
A
560
10
Q
tests pg
A
562
11
Q
AIDS
A
acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
12
Q
CMV
A
cytomegalovirus
13
Q
GVHD
A
graft versus host disease
14
Q
HD
A
Hodgkin disease
15
Q
Histo
A
histoplasmosis
16
Q
HIV
A
human immunodeficiency virus
17
Q
HSV
A
herpes simplex virus
18
Q
Ig
A
immunoglobulin
19
Q
KS
A
Kaposi sarcoma
20
Q
NHL
A
non-Hodgkin lymphoma
21
Q
PCP
A
Pneumocystis pneumonia
22
Q
TB
A
tuberculosis
23
Q
Toxo
A
toxoplasmosis
24
Q
measures number of CD4+ T cells (helper T cells) in the bloodstream of patients with AIDS
A
CD4+ cell count
25
screening test to detect anti-HIV antibodies in bloodstream
ELISA
26
test separating immunoglobulins IgM IgG IgE IgA IgD
immunoelectrophoresis
27
measurement of the amount of AIDS virus (HIV) in bloodstream
viral load test
28
xray imaging produces cross-sectional and other views of anatomic structures
computed tomography (CT) scan
29
bas/o
base
30
chrom/o
color
31
coagul/o
clotting
32
cyt/o
cell
33
eosin/o
red, dawn, rosy
34
erythr/o
red
35
granul/o
granules
36
hem/o
blood
37
hemoglobin/o
hemoglobin
38
is/o
same, equal
39
kary/o
nucleus
40
leuk/o
white
41
mon/o
one, single
42
morph/o
shape, form
43
myel/o
bone marrow
44
neutr/o
neutral (neither base nor acid)
45
nucle/o
nucleus
46
phag/o
eat, swallow
47
poikil/o
varied, irregular
48
sider/o
iron
49
spher/o
globe, round
50
thromb/o
clot
51
-apheresis
removal; carrying away
52
-blast
immature cell; embryonic
53
-phoresis
carrying; transmission
54
-cystosis
abnormal condition of cells; increase in cells
55
-emia
blood condition
56
-gen
giving rise to; producing
57
-globin/-globulin
protein
58
-lytic
pertaining to destruction
59
-oid
derived or originating from
60
-osis
abnormal condition
61
-penia
deficiency
62
-phage
eat; swallow
63
-philia
attraction for (an increase in cell numbers)
64
-poiesis
formation
65
-stasis
stop; control
66
pathology pg
515
67
tests pg
520
68
baso
basophils
69
BMT
bone marrow transplant
70
CBC
complete blood count
71
diff
differential count (wbcs)
72
eos
eosinophils
73
ESR
erythrocyte sedimentation rate ("sed rate")
74
Hct
hematrocrit
75
HGB, Hgb
hemoglobin
76
IgA
immunoglobulin A
77
IgD
immunoglobulin D
78
IgE
immunoglobulin E
79
IgG
immunoglobulin G
80
IgM
immunoglobulin M
81
lymphs
lymphocytes
82
mono
monocyte
83
PT
prothrombin time
84
PTT
partial thromboplastin time
85
RBC
red blood cell; red blood cell count
86
WBC
white blood cells; white blood cell count
87
WNL
within normal limits
88
test for presence of antibodies that coat and damage erythrocytes
antiglobulin test or Coombs test
89
time required for blood to stop flowing from a tiny puncture wound
bleeding time
90
time required for venous blood to clot in a test tube
coagulation time
91
numbers of blood cells, hemoglobin concentration, hematocrit and red cell values
complete blood count (CBC)
92
speed at which erythrocytes settle out of plasma
erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
93
percentage of erythrocytes in a volume of blood
hematocrit Hct
94
total amount of hemoglobin in sample of peripheral blood
hemoglobin test
95
number of platelets per cubic millimeter or microliter of blood
platelet count
96
test of ability of blood to clot
prothrombin time (PT)
97
number of erythrocytes per cubic mm or microliter of blood
red blood cell count (RBC)
98
microscopic examination of a stained blood smear to determine the shape of individual red cells
red blood cell morphology
99
number of leukocytes per cubic mm or microliter of blood
white blood cell count (WBC)
100
percentages of different types of leukocytes in the blood
white blood cell differential [count]
101
separation of blood into component parts and removal of a select portion from the blood
apheresis
102
whole blood or cells are taken from a donor and infused into a patient
blood transfusion
103
microscopic examination of a core of bone marrow removed with a needle
bone marrow biopsy
104
peripheral stem cells from compatible donor are administered to a recipient
hematopoietic stem cell transplantation
105
bone marrow cells used rather than peripheral stem cell
bone marrow transplantation
106
Whole blood can be dividedinto two main components:
1. the liquid portion, or plasma (55%)2. formed elements, or bloodcells (45%).
107
Plasma is about __% water. The remaining __% contains nutrients, electrolytes (dissolved salts), gases,albumin (a protein), clotting factors, antibodies, wastes, enzymes, and hormones.
90% water, 10% nutrients electrolytes (dissolved salts), gases, albumin, clotting factors, antibodies, wastes, enzymes and hormones.
108
The pH (relative acidity) of the plasma remains steady atabout ___.
7.4
109
The blood cells are _____, or red blood cells; _____, or white blood cells; and platelets,also called _____.
erythrocytes, leukocytes, thrombocytes
110
All blood cells are produced in ______.
red bone marrow
111
Some white blood cells multiplyin _____ as well.
lymphoid tissue
112
The major function of erythrocytes is to _______.
carry oxygen to cells
113
Oxygen from red blood cells is bound to an iron-containing pigment within the cells called ______.
hemoglobin
114
T or F. Erythrocytes are small, disk-shaped cells with no nucleus.
True
115
T or F. Red blood cell concentration of about 5 million per µL (cubic millimeter) of blood makes them by far the most numerousof the blood cells.
True
116
A red blood cell gradually wears out and dies in about ___ days, so these cells must be constantly replaced.
120
117
Production of red cells in the bone marrow is regulated by the hormone ______, which ismade in the kidneys.
erythropoietin (EPO)
118
T or F. White blood cells all show prominent nuclei when stained.
True.
119
Leukocytes are identified bythe ____, _____ and by their _____ properties.
1. size2. appearance of the nucleus3. staining properties
120
List the five different types of leukocytes.
1. granular leukocytes/granulocytes2. agranulocytes
121
These leukocytes have visible granules in the cytoplasm when stained
Granulocytes
122
These leukocytes don't have visible granules when stained.
Agranulocytes
123
List the three types of granulocytes:
1. neutrophils,2. eosinophils3. basophilsBENG baso, eosino, neutro, granulocytes
124
Neutrophils, eosinophils and basophils are named for ____
the kind of stain they take up
125
List two types of agranulocytes. lymphocytes and monocytes.
1. lymphocytes2. monocytesgrand MAL, monocytes, agranuloctes, lymphocytes
126
T or F. White blood cells protect against foreign substances.
True
127
Some white blood cells engulf foreign material by the process of _____.
phagocytosis
128
T or F. In diagnosis it isn't important to know the total number of leukocytes and the relative number of each type
False. It is important to know these because these numbers can change in different disease conditions.
129
The most numerous white blood cells
neutrophils
130
Neutrophils are also called _____ because of their various-shaped nuclei. They are also referred to as:
polymorphs. Also called segs, polys, or PMNs (polymorphonuclear leukocytes)
131
An immature neutrophil with a solid curved nucleus, large numbers of which indicate an active infection.
A band cell, also called a stab or staff cell
132
What is the function of neutrophils?
phagocytosis
133
What is the function of eosinophils?
allergic reactions; defense against parasites
134
What is the function of basophils?
allergic reactions
135
What is the function of lymphocytes?
immunity
136
What is the function of monocytes?
phagocytosis
137
Fragments of larger cells formed in the bone marrow.
blood platelets or thrombocytes
138
Platelets are important in ____ and ____.
1. hemostasis2. coagulation.
139
The prevention of blood loss
hemostasis
140
Process of blood clotting
coagulation
141
When a vessel is injured, platelets _____ to form a ____ at the site.
When a vessel is injured, platelets stick together to form a plug at the site.
142
Substances released from the_____ and _____ interact with clotting factors in the plasma to produce a wound-sealingclot.
platelets and damaged tissue
143
Clotting factors are ____ in the blood until an injury occurs.
inactive
144
To protect against unwanted clot formation, _____ must interact before blood coagulates.
12 different factors
145
The final reaction is the conversion of _____ to ____ that trap blood cells and plasma to produce the clot.
fibrinogen to threads of fibrin
146
What remains of the plasma after blood coagulates
serum
147
__________ on the surface of red blood cells determine blood type.
genetically inherited proteins
148
20+ groups of blood type proteins have now been identified, but the most familiar are the __ and __ blood groups.
ABO and Rh
149
List the types in the ABO system.
ABABO
150
List the two Rh types.
1. Rh positive (Rh+)2. Rh negative (Rh−)
151
T or F. In giving blood transfusions, it is important to use blood that is the same type as the recipient’s blood or a type to which the recipient will not show an immune reaction.
True.
152
Compatible blood types are determined by _______.
cross-matching
153
______ may be used to replace a large volume of bloodlost.
whole blood
154
In most cases requiring blood transfusion, a _____ such as packed red cells, platelets, plasma, or specific clotting factors is administered.
blood fraction
155
Some defenses against foreign matter are _____, that is,they protect against any intruder.
nonspecific
156
List some nonspecific defenses.
1. unbroken SKIN2. blood-filtering LYMPHOID TISSUE3. CILIA and MUCUS that trap foreign material4. bactericidal body SECRETIONS4. REFLEXES eg coughing and sneezingsslcmr
157
Specific attacks on disease organisms are mounted by the ________.
immune system
158
The immune response involvescomplex interactions between ________ and _____.
components of the lymphatic system and blood
159
Any foreign particle mayact as an _____, that is, a substance that provokes a response by the immune system.
antigen
160
Immune system responses comefrom these two types of lymphocytes that circulate in the blood and lymphatic system.
1. T cells (T lymphocytes)2. B cells(B lymphocytes)
161
T cells mature in the _______.
thymus gland
162
T-cells are capable of attacking a foreign cell ______, producing _______.
T cells are capable of attacking a foreign cell directly, producing cell-mediated immunity.
163
Descendants of monocytes and are important in the function of T cells.
macrophages
164
Macrophages take in and process ______.
foreign antigens
165
A T cell is activated when it contacts an _____ on thesurface of a _____ in combination with some of the body’s own proteins.
antigen, macrophage
166
The B cells mature in ______.
lymphoid tissue
167
When B-cells meet a foreign antigen they _____, transforming into _____.
multiply rapidly, plasma cells
168
B cells produce ______that inactivate an antigen.
antibodies (also called immunoglobulins (Ig)
169
Antibodies remain in the blood, often providing ______ to the specific organism against which they were formed.
long-term immunity
170
Antibody-based immunity is referred to as ______.
humoral immunity
171
What are the three functions of blood?
1. transportation2. protection3. regulation
172
Blood is a _____ tissue
connective
173
What are the 3 steps in clotting?
1. vasoconstriction2. platelet plug formation3. coagulation
174
Coagulation needs ____ ions
calcium
175
What are the 3 steps in coagulation?
1. prothrombin > thrombin2. thrombin converts fibrinogen > fibrin3. fibrin threads > mesh > clot
176
Clot is dissolved after healing has taken place
fibrinolysis
177
T or F. Rh - blood is given to Rh- patients and Rh+ blood is given to Rh+ patients
true
178
If your blood cells stick together when mixed with anti-A serum, you have type _ blood.
A
179
If your blood cells stick together when mixed with anti-B serum, you have type _ blood.
B
180
If your blood cells stick together when mixed with anti-A and anti-B serum, you have type _ blood.
AB
181
If your blood cells do not stick together when mixed with anti-A serum, you have type _ blood.
O
182
Reduction in the amount of hemoglobin due to blood loss, hemolysis, improper formation of new RBCs due to iron or vitamin deficiency
anemia
183
Inability to clot blood
hemophelia
184
Large number of cancerous WBCs
leukemia
185
A cell that is formed from a B cell that produces antibodies
platelet
186
The cellular components of blood
formed elements
187
-emia, -hemia
condition of blood
188
-penia
decrease in, deficiency of
189
-poiesis
formation, production
190
myel/o
bone marrow
191
hem/o, hemat/o
blood
192
erythr/o, erythrocyt/o
red blood cell
193
leuk/o, leukocyt/o
white blood cell
194
lymph/o, lymphocyt/o
lymphocyte
195
thromb/o
blood clot
196
thrombocyt/o
platelet, thrombocyte
197
immun/o
immunity, immune system
198
azot/o
nitrogen compounds
199
calc/i
calcium
200
ferr/o, ferr/i
iron
201
sider/o
iron
202
kali
potassium
203
natri
sodium
204
ox/y
oxygen
205
AIDS
acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
206
Nonspecific line of defense found in skin and mucous membranes
first line of defense or innate immunity
207
Natural killer cells and phagocytosis are considered the ____ line of defense in innate immunity
second line of defense
208
Line of defense specific towards a disease or other foreign substance. Has a memory
third line of defense or adaptive immunity
209
T or F. Memory T-cells activate quicker during a second encounter with a specific antigen.
True
210
What are the 2 types of adaptive immunity?
1. natural adaptive immunity2. artificial adaptive immunityboth types can be active or passive
211
Anemia can be a reduction of these 2 mechanisms
1. quantity of rbc2. quantity of hemoglobin
212
Anemia can be classified by what three characteristics
1. colour2. size3. cause
213
3 classifications of colour in anemia
1. hypochromic2. normochromic3. hyperchromic
214
3 classifications of size in anemia
1. microcytic2. normocytic3. macrocytic
215
2 main causes of iron deficiency anemia
1. blood loss2. insufficient dietary intake of iron
216
What type of blood loss occurs in iron deficiency anemia?
slow, chronic hemorrhage
217
In folic acid deficiency anemia, red blood cells are prevented from maturing as there is not enough folic acid available for _____
DNA synthesis
218
Aplastic anemia is caused by an insult to the ____ cells in the bone marrow
hematopoietic
219
Sickle cell anemia can be caused by heredity; there is an inherited trait that causes red blood cells to acquire a sickle or elongated shape on _____
deoxygenation
220
Hemorrhagic anemia is caused by an acute, large decline in ____ in a short time
blood volume
221
Hemolytic anemia is caused by ____ of the red blood cells
abnormal destruction
222
Another term for agrunolocytosis
neutropenia
223
2 causes of agrunolocytosis
1. drug toxicity2. hypersensitivity
224
Polycythemia vera is an absolute increase in red blood cell mass due to an increase of what 3 substances?
1. hemoglobin2. rbc count3. hematocrit
225
Cause of primary (absolute) polycythemia
unknown
226
Cause of relative polycythemia
reduction of plasma volume
227
Leukemia is classified by the ___ type and the degree of ___ of the ____ cells
cell type, degree of differentiation, neoplastic cells
228
Leukemia with a rapid onset and progression
acute leukemias
229
Leukemia where progression is slower, measured in years rather than months
chronic leukemias
230
ALL is an overproduction of ____ cells in the bone marrow and lymph nodes
immature lymphoid cells (lymphoblasts)
231
CLL causes an excess of _____ which are hypofunctional
mature-appearing lymphocytes
232
Most common staging system used for CLL
Rai system
233
Acute myelogenous leukemia is divided into seven subtypes using this classification
French-American-British (FAB) classification
234
3 phases of chronic myelogenous leukemia
1. chronic phase2. accelerated phase3. blast crisis
235
Drug that can induce and maintain a remission of chronic myelogenous leukemia
Gleevec
236
Only risk factor for CML
exposure to radiation
237
Part of the body where the lymph normally collects in lymphedema
usually in the extremities
238
Lymphangitis is caused by a ____ at the site of local trauma or ulceration
bacterial invasion
239
2 main types of lymphoma
1. Hodgkin's disease2. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma (NHL)
240
Staging system used to evaluate both types of lymphoma
Ann Arbor-Cotswolds staging system
241
What are the 3 "B symptoms" of lymphoma?
1. unexplained weight loss2. persistent or recurrent fevers3. night sweats
242
The presence of ___ cells differentiates Hodgkin's disease from other types of lymphoma
Reed-Sternberg cells
243
Treatment for multiple relapses of Hodgkin's disease
bone marrow transplant
244
3 categories for Non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma based on aggression
1. indolent lymphomas2. aggressive3. highly aggressive
245
What is the effect on the red blood cells of an antigen-antibody incompatibility reaction?
hemolysis or agglutination of the RBCs that obstructs the flow of blood through capillaries
246
Most common type of hemophilia
classic hemophilia
247
Clotting factor that is deficient in classic hemophilia
Factor VIII
248
Cause of classic hemophilia
X-linked genetic inheritance (affects males)
249
Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) causes these 2 process to occur simultaneously
1. hemorrhage2. thrombosis
250
DIC occurs secondary to a ____
major event (obstetric complications, septicemia, trauma, etc.)
251
reduction in quantity of either RBCs or hemoglobin
anemias
252
anemia is not a disease, it is a ____ of various diseases
symptom
253
3 color classifications of RBCs
1. hypochromic2. normochromic3. hyperchromic
254
3 size classifications of RBCs
1. microcytic2. normocytic3. macrocytic
255
4 causes of anemia
1. acute or chronic blood loss2. impaired production of RBCs3. inherited hemolytic conditions4. anorexia nervosa
256
6 types of anemia
1. iron-deficiency2. folic-acid deficiency3. aplastic4. sickle cell5. hemorrhagic6. hemolytic
257
type of anemia: secondary to blood loss through hemorrhage; insidious bleed and even heavy menstrual flow or insufficient intake of dietary iron
iron deficiency
258
type of anemia: results when insufficient amounts of folic acid are available for DNA synthesis, thus preventing the maturation of blood cells
folic acid deficiency
259
folic acid deficiency is clinically similar to ___ anemia
pernicious
260
type of anemia: results from an insult to hematopoietic cells in the bone marrow
aplastic
261
in aplastic anemia, production of these 3 cells are reduced
1. erythrocyte2. leukocyte3. thrombocyte
262
type of anemia: chronic HEREDITARY hemolytic form of anemia
sickle cell
263
in sickle cell anemia, sickle or elongated shaped cells obstruct ____ and lead to tissue hypoxia
capillary flow
264
type of anemia: results from large decline in blood volume or hypovolemia in a short time
hemorrhagic
265
type of anemia: caused by abnormal destruction of RBCs
hemolytic
266
3 other causes of hemolytic anemia
1. heredity2. toxins3. certain bacteria
267
blood dyscrasia in which leukocyte levels become extremely low; can have a rapid onset
agranulocytosis
268
aagranulocytosis is also called ____
neutropenia
269
2 causes of agranulocytosis
1. drug toxicity2. hypersensitivity
270
agranulocytosis is treated with aggressive ____ therapy
anti-microbial
271
abnormal increase in amount of hemoglobin, RBC count, or hematocrit, causing an increase in RBC mass
polycythemia
272
polycythemia is also known as ____
polycythemia vera
273
polycythemia is caused by a sustained increase in _____ of bone marrow
hematopoiesis
274
polycythemia is also caused when ____ is reduced by dehydration, plasma loss, burns, fluid and electrolyte imbalance
plasma volume
275
family of drugs to treat polycythemia
myelosuppressive drugs
276
polycythemia is treated through ____ to reduce blood volume
periodic phlebotomy
277
overproduction of immature lymphoid cells in bone marrow and lymph nodes
acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)
278
ALL tends to occur in ____ or those older than ____
children; 65
279
contributing factors in ALL
radiation, exposure, chemicals, drugs, smoking, genetic factor
280
diagnostic test for ALL
peripheral blood smear
281
in ALL, aggressive chemo is used for 2 to 3 years and the central nervous system is treated ____
prophylactically
282
type of radiation therapy to treat ALL
intracranial
283
type of transplantation for adult ALL patients with poor prognostic features
allogenic bone marrow transplantation
284
slowly progressing disease; neoplasm that involves lymphocytes; most patients are males
chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)
285
CLL is caused by _____ changes
chromosomal
286
CLL is caused by the deletion of chromosome #__
13
287
2 diagnostic tests for CLL
1. peripheral blood smear2. bone marrow studies
288
treatment for CLL is held until ____
symptomatic
289
rapidly progressive neoplasm of cells committed to the myeloid line of development
acute myelogenous leukemia (AML)
290
in AML, leukemic cells accumulate in these 3 areas
1. bone marrow2. peripheral blood3. other tissues
291
3 other names for AML
1. acute myeloid2. myelocytic3. granulocytic
292
rapid accumulation of myeloblasts in AML lead to these 2 conditions
1. pancytopenia2. anemia
293
most common adult leukemia
AML
294
risk factors for AML include family Hx, previous treatment with ionizing radiation, chemo, ovarian cancer, breast cancer and chronic exposure to _____
benzene
295
many cases of AML are related to _____
treatment such as chemotherapy or radiation
296
chemo is the first treatment approach to AML and ____ during the first remission may improve survival
bone marrow transplantation
297
slowly progressing neoplasm arising in hematopoeitic stem cell or early progenitor cell
chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML)
298
2 other names for CML
1. chronic myeloid2. myelocytic
299
CML results in excess of mature-appearing but hypofunctioning ____
neutrophils
300
CML occurs most often in adults over age ___
40
301
CML is caused by exposure to ____ radiation
ionizing
302
CML is associated with abnormal chromosome #___
22
303
triphasic course for CML
1. chronic2. accelerated3. blast
304
only chance for complete CML cure
bone marrow transplantation
305
bone marrow transplantation is an option for about __% of patients
25
306
abnormal collection of lymph; usually in extremities
lymphedema
307
in lymphedema, patient experiences no pain but extremities become swollen and ____
grossly distended
308
t or f. lymphedema can only be inflammatory
f. lymphedema may be inflammatory or mechanical
309
t or f. if untreated, lymphedema becomes permanent
t
310
treatment for lymphedema is aimed at reducing ____
swelling
311
the affected limb in lymphedema is elevated above the heart to encourage ____
drainage of lymph
312
inflammation of lymph vessels
lymphangitis
313
in lymphangitis, ____ may develop in surrounding tissue
cellulitis
314
lymphangitis is caused by ____ into lymph vessels at the site of local trauma or ulceration
bacterial invasion
315
t or f. occasionally, no portal of entry is detectable in lymphangitis
t
316
family of drugs to treat lymphangitis
systemic antibiotics
317
2 types of lymphoma
1. hodgkins2. non-hodgkins
318
cancer of the body’s lymphatic system in which tumors arise in lymph tissue and spread to other lymph nodes, spleen, liver and bone marrow
hodgkin's disease
319
2 peaks of incidence in hodgkin's disease
1. patients in their 20s2. patients over the age of 50
320
4 risk factors in hodgkin's disease
1. previous Hx of malignancy2. prior chemo/radiation3. family Hx4. exposure to EPV
321
stage 1 and 2 of hodgkin's disease may be treated with ____ alone
radiation
322
stages 1, 2, and 3 of hodgkin's disease is treated with ____
combined chemoradiotherapy
323
higher stages of hodgkins is treated with ____ alone
chemo
324
preferred therapy for hodgkin's
ABVC therapy
325
number of heterogenous neoplasms of lymphoid cells
non-hodgkin's disease (NHL)
326
incidence of NHL reaches a peak in this group
preadolescents
327
2 risk factors of NHL
1. personal Hx2. family Hx3. previous chemo/radiation/immune therapy
328
lymphomas where treatment is put on hold until symptomatic
indolent lymphomas
329
type of chemotherapy to treat aggressive lymphomas
CHOP chemotherapy
330
transfused blood has antibodies to the recipient's RBCS; the recipient has antibodies to the donor RBCs
transfusion incompatibility reaction
331
most severe transfusion incompatibility reactions are related and characterized by ____ or ____
hemolysis; agglutination
332
ABO- and Rh- incompatible blood and antigens are not revealed in screening
transfusion incompatibility reaction
333
reaction that produces hemolysis or agglutination
antigen-antibody reaction
334
treatment for transfusion incompatibility reaction include ___ before a transfusion
transfusion protocol mandates
335
family of drugs to treat mild transfusion incompatibility reaction
antihistamines
336
hereditary bleeding disorder resulting from deficiency of clotting factors
classic hemophilia
337
classic hemophilia is caused by this type of genetic disorder in males
x-linked
338
classic hemophilia may also be caused when hemophilia is transmitted from asymptomatic carrier ____ to ____
mother to son
339
classic hemophilia may also be caused when ____ is functionally inactive; any minor trauma can initiate a bleeding episode
clotting factor (factor viii)
340
t or f. there is no cure for classic hemophilia
t
341
treatment in classic hemophilia is to prevent ____
crippling deformities
342
condition of simultaneous hemorrhage and thrombosis
disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
343
disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) occurs when ____ activates ____
thrombin; fibrin
344
in disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) thrombin activating fibrin causes ____ to form where it is not needed
clots
345
thrombin in clots causes excessive ____ and additional bleeding
fibrinolysis
346
4 predisposing factors
1. hypotension2. hypoxemia3. acidosis4. stasis of capillary blood
347
disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is treated with IV _____
heparin
348
2 other treatment options for disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) when serious hemorrhage is present
1. platelet replacement2. plasma clotting factors
349
progressive impairment of immune system caused by HIV
acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)
350
acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) directly damages the _____ and is ultimately life threatening
nervous system
351
cause for acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)
HIV types 1 or 2
352
in acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS), HIV attacks ____, leaving the body defenseless against infection and malignancy
helper T lymphocytes
353
t or f. acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is cureable
t
354
upon diagnosis of AIDS, the number of ___ and ___ present is measured to determine when to begin treatment
1. CD4 T2. HIV RNA
355
treatment for acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS); classification of drugs
HAART drugs
356
there are __ drug combinations in HAART treatment
3
357
HAART is a combination of 2 ___ and 1 ___
nucleoside reductase inhibitors; protease inhibitor
358
acquired b-cell deficiency resulting in decreased antibody production and/or function
common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)
359
another name for common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)
acquired hypogammaglobulinemia
360
in common variable immunodeficiency (CVID), the patient has a Hx of ____
chronic or current infections
361
common symptom of common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)
GI disease
362
2 peaks of incidence in common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)
1. ages 18-252. ages 1-5
363
common variable immunodeficiency (CVID) is thought to be the result of genetic defects leading to these 2 conditions
1. immune system dysregulation2. failure of B-cell differentiation
364
t or f. common variable immunodeficiency (CVID) treatment is aimed at preventing ____
infections
365
failure to produce normal levels of IgA
selective immunoglobin A (IgA) deficiency
366
t or f. the majority of IgA deficiency is symptomatic
t. asymptomatic
367
inheritance that plays a role in IgA deficiency
autosomal dominant or recessive
368
IgA deficiency is thought to progress to ______
common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)
369
t or f. there is no cure for IgA deficiency
t
370
near absence of serum immunoglobulins and increased susceptibility to infection
x-linked agammaglobulinemia
371
another term for x-linked agammaglobulinemia
bruton's agammaglobulinemia
372
infants with agammaglobulinemia have absent or near absent ____
tonsils and adenoids
373
in x-linked agammaglobulinemia, congenital x-linked disorder only affects ____
males
374
x-linked agammaglobulinemia occurs due to a defect in the ____ gene
bruton tyrosine kinase (BTK)
375
treatment for x-linked agammaglobulinemia is aimed at improving child's ____
immune defenses
376
group of disorders that result from a disturbance in the development and function of both T and B cells
severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)
377
severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) manifests as severe, recurrent infections with these 6 factors
1. bacteria2. viruses3. fungi4. protozoa5. chronic diarrhea6. failure to thrive
378
2 common infections associated with severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)
1. pneumocystis pneumonia2. mucocutaneous candidiasis
379
2 types of severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)
1. x-linked2. autosomal recessive
380
both types of severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) are due to ____
genetic mutations
381
genetic mutations in severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) lead to defects in ____ into B and T cells
stem cell differentiation
382
only curative treatment for most types of severe combined immunodeficiencies (SCIDs)
bone marrow transplantation
383
congenital condition of immunodeficiency that results from defective development of the pharyngeal pouch system
DiGeorge's anomaly
384
another term for DiGeorge's anomaly
thymic hypoplasia or aplasia
385
children with DiGeorge's anomaly have these 4 structural abnormalities
1. abnormally wide set eyes2. downward slanting eyes3. low set ears with notched pinnas4. small mouth
386
DiGeorge's anomaly is the result of abnormal development of the _____ during the 12th week of gestation
third and fourth pharyngeal punches
387
DiGeorge's anomaly causes these 3 conditions
1. cardiac anomalies2. hypoplastic thymus3. hypocalcemia
388
in DiGeorge's anomaly, ____ is treated to restore electrolyte balance and reduce risk of seizures
hypocalcemia
389
2 types of transplantation to treat DiGeorge's anomaly
1. thymic 2. bone marrow
390
group of disorders characterized by persistent and recurrent candidal (fungal) infections of the skin, nails and mucous membranes
chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis (CMC)
391
in chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis (CMC), symptoms develop during the first ___ years of life
2 to 3
392
individuals with chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis (CMC) have a ____ deficit specific to ____ making them susceptible to infection
t-cell deficit; candida albicans
393
treatment for chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis (CMC) is directed at eliminating infections along with correcting _____
immunologic defects
394
congenital disorder characterized by inadequate B and T cell function
Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
395
in Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome, the child expereinces these 3 conditions
1. eczema2. thrombocytopenia3. increased susceptibility to bacterial/viral infections
396
Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome is an ____ trait affecting only males
x-linked inherited trait
397
Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome is caused by mutations in gene encoding the _____
Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome Protein (WASP)
398
the only curative therapy for Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
bone marrow transplantation
399
2 diagnostic tests for HIV/AIDS
1. ELISA2. Western Blot Test
400
diagnotistic test for HIV/AIDS: enzyme linked immunosorbent assay
ELISA
401
diagnotistic test for HIV/AIDS: done to confirm positive ELISA result
Western Blot Test
402
autoimmune condition where RBCs are destroyed by antibodies
autoimmune hemolytic anemia
403
2 types of autoimmune hemolytic anemia
1. warm antibody anemia2. cold antibody anemia
404
in autoimmune hemolytic anemia, RBC's are destroyed by antibodies which causes ____ to the cells
agglutination
405
diagnostic test for autoimmune hemolytic anemia
Coombs test
406
warm anemia is treated with these 2 families of drugs
1. corticosteroids2. cytotoxic drugs
407
2 warm anemia treatments
1. splenectomy2. IV immune globulin administration
408
cold anemia is treated by avoiding ____
cold
409
in cold anemia, _____ is helpful for reducing hemolysis
plasmapheresis
410
anemia caused by chronic atrophic gastritis
pernicious anemia
411
in pernicious anemia, production of ____ and ____ are decreased
1. HCI acid2. intrinsic factor
412
pernicious anemia results in ___ deficiency
vitamin B12
413
vitamin B12 required for ____ is deficient; causing RBCs to be deformed and reduced in number
RBC formation
414
majority of patients with pernicious anemia have ____ which are cytotoxic to the ____
antiparietal cell antibodies; parietal cells
415
pernicious anemia is associated with these 2 other diseases
1. Grave's disease2. Hashimoto's thyroiditis
416
diagnostic test for pernicious anemia
schilling test
417
treatment for pernicious anemia
B12 injection
418
acquired disorder that results from isolated deficiency of platelets
idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
419
_____ with unknown cause in a patient with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) requires medical attention
multiple bruising
420
idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) may occur after ____
viral infections like rubella or mumps
421
in idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP), ____ is administered to help with clotting
vitamin K
422
decreased number of circulating neutrophils caused by production of *anti-neutrophil antibodies*
immune neutropenia
423
in immune neutropenia, there is an almost complete absence of ____ in the blood
neutrophils
424
rare disorder caused by trans-placental transfer of maternal IgG that reacts with fetal neutrophils
isoimmune neutropenia
425
immune neutropenia is often associated with this
accelerated turnover of neutrophils or increased neutrophil production
426
3 treatment options for immune neutropenia
1. corticosteroids2. immune globulin3. G-CSF
427
autoimmune kidney disease characterized by presence of antibodies directed against an antigen in glomerular basement membrane (GBM)
Goodpasture's syndrome
428
another name for Goodpasture's syndrome
anti-GBM antibody disease
429
t or f. there is no known cause for Goodpasture's syndrome
t
430
3 treatment options for Goodpasture's syndrome
1. plasmapheresis with immunosuppressive agents2. hemodialysis 3. kidney transplants
431
chronic, autoimmune disease characterized by unusual autoantibodies in the blood that target tissues of the body
systemic lupus erythemaosus (SLE)
432
systemic lupus erythemaosus (SLE) is informally known as ____
lupus
433
3 factors that may predispose individuals to lupus
1. genetic2. hormonal3. environmental
434
to prevent the exacerbation of lupus, avoid unnecessary _____
light exposure
435
patterns of ____ occurs with SLE
butterfly rash
436
immunosuppressive meds would be required to treat SLE when _____ is present
organ-threatening disease
437
Chronic, progressive disease characterized by mostly sclerosis (hardening) of skin, with scarring of certain internal organs.
scleroderma
438
another term for scleroderma
systemic sclerosis
439
scleroderma is classified these 2 ways
1. diffuse2. limited
440
scleroderma that involves symmetric thickening of skin of extremities, face and trunk
diffuse
441
scleroderma that tends to be confined to the skin of fingers and face
limited
442
t or f. scleroderma is an autoimmune disease
t
443
prognosis of scleroderma depends on the ____ affected
organs
444
autoimmune disease featuring inflammation in various glands of the body
Sjögren’s syndrome
445
in Sjögren’s syndrome, this is the main result of inflammation of the glands
dryness
446
Sjögren’s syndrome is often associated with this condition
rheumatoid arthritis
447
Sjögren’s syndrome is more common in families that have a member with an _____
autoimmune disorder
448
treatment for Sjögren’s syndrome include relieving symptoms where there is____, such as increasing fluid intake, chewing gum and using oral sprays
dryness
449
2 families of drugs to lessen immune inflammation in Sjögren’s syndrome
1. prednisone2. antimalarial medications
450
chronic inflammatory, systemic disease that affects the joints
rheumatoid arthritis (RA)
451
one of the most severe forms of arthritis causing deformity and disability
rheumatoid arthritis (RA)
452
rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is __ times more common in females than maes
3x
453
if untreated, rheumatoid arthritis (RA) can cause these 3 conditions
1. destruction of cartilage2. joint deformity3. destruction of adjacent bone
454
form of rheumatoid arthritis that affects children less than 16 years old
juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA)
455
juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA) begins most commonly between the ages ____
2 to 5
456
in juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA), it is believed that the _____ in the joints are related to an autoimmune disease
pathologic changes
457
heredity may play a role in some children with juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA), particularly those with this condition
spondylitis
458
in juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA), braces or splints may be needed to correct ____ and _____
1. growth disturbances2. joint contracture
459
t or f. juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA) is treated exactly as adult rheumatoid arthritis
t
460
systemic, usually progressive inflammatory disease affecting primarily the spinal column
ankylosing spondylitis
461
ankylosing spondylitis typically affects the ____ area of the spine first
sacroiliac
462
in ankylosing spondylitis, periods of _____ occur
exacerbation; remission
463
ankylosing spondylitis may be related to genetic basis and an association with these genes
HLA-B27
464
disease of muscle that features inflammation of the muscle fibres
polymositis
465
in polymositis, muscle fibers affected are mostly closest to the ____
trunk and torso
466
polymositis is ____; there are cycles of flares, relapses and remissions
cyclical
467
polymositis occurs when ____ spontaneously invade and injure muscles
WBC
468
screening for polymositis must rule out ____
cancer
469
inflammatory disease of the CNS that attacks the myelin sheath
multiple sclerosis
470
4 types of multiple sclerosis
1. relapsing-remitting-relapsing2. primary-progressive3. secondary-progressive4. progressive-relapsing-progressive
471
multiple sclerosis is an ____ that increases one's susceptibility to the disease
inherited trait
472
2/3rds of multiple sclerosis develop from ages ____
20 to 40
473
therapy used to treat multiple sclerosis
immunosuppressive
474
chronic progressive neuromuscular disease that stem from the presence of autoantibodies to the *acetylcholine* receptor
myasthenia gravis
475
myasthenia gravis is characterized by extreme muscular weakness without ____
atrophy
476
myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune mechanism in which a faulty transmission of nerve impulse to and from the CNS, especially in the ____
neuromuscular junction
477
myasthenia gravis is associated with these 2 conditions
1. thymus hyperplasia2. thymoma
478
family of drugs to treat myasthenia gravis
anticholinesterase drugs
479
surgical intervention to treat the tumor in the thymus gland in myasthenia gravis
thymectomy
480
inflammation in the walls of the blood vessels
vasculitis
481
2 types of vasculitis
1. small vessel2. systemic necrotizing
482
vasiculitis in which the affected vessel becomes necrotic when it is obstructed by a thrombus and results in an infarct of adjacent tissue
small vessel vasculitis
483
small vessel vasculitis affects these 3 areas
1. capillaries2. arterioles3. venules
484
vasculitis that primarily affects medium and large arteries
systemic necrotizing vasculitis
485
systemic necrotizing vasculitis occurs in ____ and ____ conditions
cutaneous; systemic
486
systemic necrotizing vasculitis can result in these 2 conditions
1. ulceration2. paralysis of an affected nerve
487
some forms of systemic necrotizing vasculitis are related to these 2 factors
1. amphetamine use2. development of hepatitis b and c
488
2 tests to diagnose systemic necrotizing vasculitis
1. CBC ESR RA factor determinaton2. serum tests for immunoglobulin
489
treatment for systemic necrotizing vasculitis involves decreasing the ____ of the arteries
inflammaton
