Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

ABIM IM Recert > Board Vitals Hematology > Flashcards

Board Vitals Hematology Flashcards

(97 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

Patient has low serum iron, low total iron-binding capacity, and increased ferritin - what type of anemia do they have?

A

Anemia of chronic disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What stimulates megakaryocytes and gives rise to platelets?

A

Thrombopoietin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Does folate deficiency cause neurologic symptoms?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What should you do if you suspect a blood transfusion reaction?

A

Stop the transfusion and investigate the cause.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which anticoagulant works by inhibiting epoxide reductase?

A

Warfarin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does rivaroxaban inhibit?

A

Factor Xa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Where does dabigatran bind to exert its action?

A

Active site of both free and bound thrombin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Bone marrow biopsy shows hypocellular bone marrow with fatty infiltration.

Diagnosis?

A

Aplastic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Bone marrow biopsy shows hypercellular bone marrow with lymphoblastic infiltration.

Diagnosis?

A

Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Bone marrow biopsy shows hypercellular bone marrow with myeloblastic infiltration.

Diagnosis?

A

Acute myeloblastic leukemia (AML)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Bone marrow biopsy shows fibrotic bone marrow.

Diagnosis?

A

Myelofibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Schistocytes are associated with which condition?

A

Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Dacrocytes (teardrop cells) are associated with which condition?

A
  • Bone marrow infiltration and fibrosis
  • Thalassemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Echinocytes (burr cells) are associated with which condition?

A
  • End stage renal disease
  • End stage liver disease
  • Pyruvate kinase deficiency
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the first line treatment for polycythemia vera?

A

Hydroxyurea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How do you diagnose paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria?

A

Flow cytometry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Is glucose-6-phosphate-dehydrogenase deficiency associated with thrombosis?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Is paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria associated with thrombosis?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the treatment of paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria?

A

Eculizumab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Does paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria cause renal impairment?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

In obese patients, which anti-coagulation agent is preferred? Unfractionated heparin or low molecular weight heparin?

A

Unfractionated heparin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which intrinsic endothelial cell property keeps blood from clotting inside human arteries?

A

Expression of heparin or thrombomodulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Transfusion related acute lung injury occurs within how many hours of blood transfusion?

A

6 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Patient presents with heart failure, diabetes mellitus, joint pain, darkening of skin, and cirrhosis of the liver with portal hypertension.

Diagnosis?

A

Hemochromatosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Is lupus anticoagulant associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism?
Yes
26
Do patients with factor V Leiden have prolonged aPTT?
No
27
Does hereditary hemophilia A increase risk of venous thromboembolism?
No
28
Is lupus anticoagulant associated with increased aPTT?
Yes
29
Do patients with factor VIII inhibitors experience correction of aPTT on mixing?
No
30
Peripheral smear shows microcytic, hypochromic red cells, with occasional target cells. Diagnosis?
Thalassemia
31
What is the treatment of an asymptomatic ITP patient with platelet above 30,000?
Observation
32
What does the platelet count need to be to consider steroids for ITP?
Less than 10,000
33
Which one - folate or vitamin B12 deficiency - causes neurological symptoms?
Vitamin B12 deficiency
34
Folate replacement can correct cobalamin deficiency-induced megaloblastic anemia without altering neurological symptoms. True or false?
True
35
Is there any role for iron replacement in case of megaloblastic anemia?
No
36
Smudge cells in peripheral smear. Diagnosis?
Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)
37
Does hypogammaglobulinemia occur in up to 25% of patients with CLL or CML?
CLL
38
Which is the most common inherited hypercoagulable condition in Americans of European descent?
Factor V Leiden
39
What is the treatment of uremic bleeding?
Desmopressin
40
Are fibrin degradation products affected by Von Willebrand disease?
No
41
Is the plasma volume high, normal or low in polycythemia vera?
High
42
Is the RBC mass high, normal or low in polycythemia vera?
High
43
Is the EPO high, normal or low in polycythemia vera?
Low
44
Is the SaO2 high, normal or low in polycythemia vera?
Normal
45
What kind of anemia occurs in glucose-6-phosphate deficiency?
Hemolytic anemia
46
What's the first line treatment for acute chest syndrome in sickle cell disease?
Exchange or simple transfusion
47
What is the paraneoplastic syndrome, pure red cell aplasia associated with?
Thymoma
48
Which anemia has RBCs that are sensitive to osmotic stress (positive osmotic fragility test)?
Hereditary spherocytosis
49
What is the treatment of mild hereditary spherocytosis?
Folic acid supplementation
50
What is the treatment of severe hereditary spherocytosis?
Splenectomy
51
What is the treatment of paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH)?
Corticosteroids
52
What sequence contains the AUG start codon for initiation of mRNA start codon?
Kozak consensus sequence
53
What should you use for monitoring heparin therapy in patients who have lupus anticoagulant?
Anti-factor Xa levels
54
What is the treatment of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)?
Plasma exchange
55
The classic cardinal "pentad" indicates which disease? Pentad: fever, thrombocytopenia, hemolytic anemia, renal and neurological dysfunction.
Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)
56
What happens to the lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) in essential thrombocythemia?
Increases
57
What happens to the uric acid in essential thrombocythemia?
Increases
58
What prevents thromboembolism in essential thrombocythemia?
Low dose aspirin
59
What is the treatment of essential thrombocythemia?
Hydroxyurea Interferon-alpha
60
What are the four variables (4 Ts) used to diagnose possible heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) that are widely used in clinical practice?
- Thrombocytopenia - Timing (of falls of platelets) - Thrombosis and sequelae - Other causes of Thrombocytopenia
61
Patients with which condition have a higher risk of allergic transfusion reactions?
IgA deficiency
62
What type of anemia do patients with chronic alcohol use disorder typically have?
Macrocytic anemia (deficiency of folate and vitamin B12).
63
What is the characteristic peripheral smear finding in megaloblastic anemia?
Hypersegmented polymorphonuclear neutrophils (PMNs)
64
Burr cells on peripheral smear. Diagnosis?
Intravascular hemolytic anemia
65
The PF4/heparin ELISA test is a quantitative immunoassay with a sensitivity of near 100%. Thus a negative test is useful in excluding HIT. True or false?
True
66
Hemophilia A is a deficiency of which factor?
Factor VIII
67
Hemophilia B is a deficiency of which factor?
Factor IX
68
Is the PTT or the PT prolonged in von Willebrand disease?
PT
69
Is the PTT or the PT prolonged in hemophila?
PTT
70
Which condition is more severe, hemophilia A or hemophilia B?
Hemophilia A
71
How is hemophilia genetically transmitted?
X-lined autosomal disorder
72
Which score is used to estimate the likelihood of thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)?
PLASMIC score
73
What is the next step when thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) is suspected?
Peripheral smear
74
What is the immediate treatment of thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)?
Plasma exchange
75
What does severe ADAMT13 deficiency (<10%) cause?
Thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)
76
Can you have anemia of chronic disease with a normal MCV?
Yes
77
Is folate deficiency likely if the folate levels are normal?
No
78
How do you prevent hemophilic arthropathy?
Factor VIII or IX concentrate replacement therapy
79
What is the preferred anti-coagulant in renal failure?
Warfarin Heparin
80
What condition has tear drop cells on peripheral smear?
Thalassemia
81
What is the most common cause of neutropenia?
Drug-induced
82
What is the treatment of skin necrosis secondary to warfarin?
Fresh frozen plasma or protein C concentrate
83
Patient presents with fever, hypercalcemia, renal failure, anemia, bone lesions, and pain. DIagnosis?
Multiple myeloma
84
What is the most specific test to establish the diagnosis of polycythemia vera?
Sequential analysis of JAK2, CALR, or LNK mutations
85
Does factor V Leiden increase risk of venous or arterial thromboembolism?
Venous
86
Does antiphospholipid antibody syndrome increase risk of venous or arterial thromboembolism?
Both
87
What kind of microangiopathic hemolytic anemia is caused by placental abruption?
Disseminated intravascular clotting (DIC)
88
What is the pathogenesis of DIC?
Release of tissue factor
89
What is the difference between disseminated intravascular clotting (DIC) and thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) on blood tests?
The PT and PTT are normal in TTP and prolonged in DIC
90
Does thalassemia result in insufficient translation or transcription?
Transcription
91
What should you think of in patients with both hemolytic anemia and thrombosis?
Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH)
92
Can APS give a false negative VDRL/RPR test?
Yes
93
t(15;17)
AML
94
Is the direct antiglobulin test positive or negative in G6PD deficiency?
Negative
95
Reactive leukemoid reactions have more granulocyte production (metamyelocytes, myelocytes, immature bands). True or false?
True
96
Patient treated for APML with all-trans retinioc acid presents with volume overload, respiratory failure, hypotension, elevated bilrubin. Diagnosis?
Differentiation syndrome
97
What is the treatment of differentiation syndrome that occurs in patients treated for APML with all-trans retinioc acid?
Dexamethasone

ABIM IM Recert (42 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions