Rosh Review Infectious Disease

Question 1

What is the treatment of primary syphilis?

Answer 1

One-time intramuscular injection of benzathine penicillin G 2.4 million units.

Question 2

What is the treatment of secondary syphilis?

Answer 2

One-time intramuscular injection of benzathine penicillin G 2.4 million units.

Question 3

What is the treatment of tertiary syphilis?

Answer 3

Weekly intramuscular injection of benzathine penicillin G 2.4 million units, for 3 weeks.

Question 4

What is the treatment of neurosyphilis?

Answer 4

IV penicillin G 3 -4 million units every 4 hours OR continuous infusion for 10 - 14 days.

Question 5

An acute self-limited reaction occurring within 24 hours after syphilis treatment is begun, characterized by fever, headache, myalgias, and other symptoms.

Diagnosis?

Answer 5

Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction

Question 6

What are 3 common causes of infectious granulomas?

Answer 6

• Mycobacteria
• Histoplasmosis
• Coccidioidomycosis

Question 7

Should patients with progressive erythema from cellulitis get oral or parenteral antibiotics?

Answer 7

Parenteral

Question 8

What is the treatment of progressive cellulitis?

Answer 8

IV cefazolin

Question 9

Is obesity a common risk factors for cellulitis?

Answer 9

Yes

Question 10

Is venous insufficiency a common risk factors for cellulitis?

Answer 10

Yes

Question 11

Is poor lymphatic drainage a common risk factors for cellulitis?

Answer 11

Yes

Question 12

Is immunosuppression a common risk factors for cellulitis?

Answer 12

Yes

Question 13

Is a pre-existing skin infection a common risk factors for cellulitis?

Answer 13

Yes

Question 14

Is toe web intertrigo a common risk factors for cellulitis?

Answer 14

Yes

Question 15

Is trauma a common risk factors for cellulitis?

Answer 15

Yes

Question 16

What should patients with bacterial meningitis be given in addition to empiric antibiotics until the causative agent is known?

Answer 16

Dexamethasone

Question 17

Negative hepatitis B surface antigen
Positive total hepatitis B core antibody
Negative IgM antibody to hepatitis B core antigen
Positive hepatitis B surface antibody

What’s the status of the patient?

Answer 17

Immunity against hepatitis B due to prior infection

Question 18

Positive hepatitis B surface antigen
Positive total hepatitis B core antibody
Positive IgM antibody to hepatitis B core antigen
Negative hepatitis B surface antibody

What’s the status of the patient?

Answer 18

Acute hepatitis B infection

Question 19

Positive hepatitis B surface antigen
Positive total hepatitis B core antibody
Negative IgM antibody to hepatitis B core antigen
Negative hepatitis B surface antibody

What’s the status of the patient?

Answer 19

Chronic hepatitis B infection

Question 20

Negative hepatitis B surface antigen
Negative total hepatitis B core antibody
Negative IgM antibody to hepatitis B core antigen
Positive hepatitis B surface antibody

What’s the status of the patient?

Answer 20

Immunity to hepatitis B due to vaccination

Question 21

A secretory protein processed from the precore protein that is a marker of hepatitis B infectivity and replication.

What is this called?

Answer 21

Hepatitis B e antigen

Question 22

What is the most appropriate treatment for cryptococcal meningitis?

Answer 22

Liposomal amphotericin B and flucytosine

Question 23

What is a common central nervous system adverse effect of fluconazole therapy?

Answer 23

Headache

Question 24

What should be suspected in a patient presenting with fever, rash, or joint involvement, most commonly acute onset symmetrical polyarticular arthritis involving the proximal interphalangeal and metacarpophalangeal joints with associated joint stiffness?

Answer 24

Parvovirus B19 infection

Question 25

What is the treatment of parvovirus arthritis?

Answer 25

NSAIDS

Question 26

What is the best diagnostic test for acute parvovirus B19 infection?

Answer 26

Parvovirus B19 IgM antibodies, which can be performed in patients when etiologic confirmation would change management.

Question 27

What is the preferred antibiotic if patient has MRSA and is allergic to vancomycin?

Answer 27

Linezolid

Question 28

Is daptomycin good for respiratory tract infections?

Answer 28

No

Question 29

Which score determines the severity on pneumonia by estimating mortality from community-acquired pneumonia to help determine inpatient versus outpatient treatment?

Answer 29

CURB-65 score

Question 30

What is the first-line therapy for herpes zoster ophthalmicus in an immunocompetent patient?

Answer 30

Oral acyclovir, valacyclovir, or famciclovir for 7 to 10 days.

Question 31

What is the first-line therapy for herpes zoster ophthalmicus in an immunocompromised patient?

Answer 31

IV acyclovir

Question 32

What is the first-line therapy for herpes zoster ophthalmicus in an immunocompromised patient, who also has ocular keratitis?

Answer 32

Intravenous acyclovir and topical corticosteroid therapy

Question 33

In patients with herpes zoster ophthalmicus involving the cornea, what is the most common corneal finding?

Answer 33

Punctate epithelial keratitis and pseudodendrite (composed of heaps of epithelial cells with negative fluorescein staining).

Question 34

Which test is required prior to treatment with an anti-tumor necrosis factor alpha inhibitor?

Answer 34

A tuberculin skin test or an interferon gamma release assay for tuberculosis screening

Question 35

Which disease is erythema migrans associated with?

Answer 35

Lyme disease

Question 36

What are causes of chronic diarrhea in patients with common variable immunodeficiency?

Answer 36

Giardia, Cryptosporidium, and cytomegalovirus.

Question 37

What should be coadministered with isoniazid to prevent peripheral neuropathy?

Answer 37

Daily oral low-dose pyridoxine (vitamin B6)