book FC head Flashcards

(62 cards)

1
Q

what artery lies beneath the pterion

A

middle meningeal artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what runs through the foramen magnum

A

spinal cord, meninges, vertebral arteries, anterior/posterior spinal arteries, and CN IX, X, X1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what runs through the foramen cecum

A

nasal emissary vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what runs through the cribriform foramina in cribriform plate

A

axons of olfactory cells in olfactory epithelium that forms olfactory nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what runs through the optic canals

A

optic nerve (CN 2) and ophthalmic arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what runs through the superior orbital fissure

A

ophthalmic veins; CN 3, 4, V1, and 6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what runs through the foramen rotunda

A

maxillary nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what runs through the foramen ovale

A

mandibular nerve and accessory meningeal artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what runs through the foramen spinosum

A

middle meningeal artery and vein and meningeal branch of V3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what runs through foramen lacerum

A

deep petrosal nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what runs through the condylar canal

A

emissary vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what runs through the internal acoustic meatus

A

CN VII, CN VIII, and labyrinthine artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what fractures of the mandible are typically single and uncommon

A

fractures of the coronoid process of the mandible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

where do fractures of the body of the mandible typically pass through

A

socket of a canine tooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what occurs with a craniotomy

A

a section of the neurocranium is elevated or removed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what has occurred when there is a anterior fontanelle that is small or absent, resulting in a long, narrow, wedge-shaped cranium

A

scaphocephaly due to premature closure of the sagittal suture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what occurs when there is a loss of tons of the orbiculares oculi

A

inferior eyelid everts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

where is anesthetic injected in order to anesthetize one side of the skin and mucous membrane of lower lip and skin of cheek

A

into the mental foramen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what division of the trigeminal is most oftenly affected with herpes zoster virus infection

A

ophthalmic division

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what do lesions near the origin of CN VII from the pons of the brain or proximal to the origin of the greater petrosal nerve result in

A

loss of motor, gustatory (taste) and autonomic functions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what do lesson distal to the geniculate ganglia but proximal to the origin of the chorda tympani nerve produce

A

loss of motor, taste, but lacrimal secretion is not affected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what nerve can be injured most likely with fracture of the temporal bone

A

facial nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

where do cancer cells of the lateral parts of the lower lip drain

A

submandibular lymph nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what layers of the cranial meninges make up the leptomeninx

A

arachnoid and pia mater

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
what lies in the longitudinal cerebral fissure that separates the right and left cerebral hemispheres
falx cerebri
26
what separates the occipital lobes of the cerebral hemispheres from the cerebellum
tentorium cerebelli
27
what forms the straight sinus
union of the inferior sagittal sinus and the great cerebral vein
28
what connects the dural venous sinuses with the veins outside the cranium
emissary veins
29
what is the middle meningeal artery a branch of
maxillary artery
30
what foramen does the middle meningeal artery run through
foramen spinosum
31
what cranial nerve provides the most innervation to the dura mater
trigeminal
32
what typically drains the blood from the medial angle of the eye, nose and lips (inferiorly)
facial vein
33
what nerve can likely be injured with tectorial herniation
CN III
34
how do the facial veins make clinically important connections with the cavernous sinus
through the superior ophthalmic veins
35
what do the vascular and occipital sinuses communicate through
foramen magnum with the internal vertebral venous plexuses
36
what cranial nerves lie in or close to the lateral wall of the cavernous sinus
CN III, CN IV, CN V1, CN V2, and CN VI
37
what is the origin of extradural (epidural) hemorrhage
arterial (middle meningeal)
38
what is the origin of dural border hemorrhage
venous (superior cerebral vein)
39
what is the origin of subarachnoid hemorrhage typically
rupture of a saccular aneurysm (i.e.: of the internal carotid artery)
40
what is the site of choice for cisternal puncture in infants and young children
cerebellomedullary cistern
41
what is the site of choice for cisternal puncture in adults
lumbar cistern
42
where does blockage typically occur with a obstructive hydrocephalus
cerebral aqueduct or inter ventricular foramen
43
what do fractures of the medial wall of the orbit effect
ethmoidal and sphenoidal sinuses
44
what do fractures of the orbital wall sometimes effect
maxillary sinus
45
what is the easiest way to enter the orbital cavity for a tumor of the middle cranial fossa
superior orbital fissure
46
what nerve is being tested with the blink reflex
CN V1
47
what nerve is closely related to the medial aspect of the 3rd molar teeth
lingual nerve
48
where does the greater palatine nerve emerge
between the 2nd and 3rd molar teeth
49
where does a lingual carcinoma in the posterior tongue metastasize
superior deep cervical lymph nodes on both sides
50
what is access to the deeply placed pterygopalatine fossa gained through
maxillary sinus
51
what does the nasolacrimal duct open into
inferior part of the inferior nasal meatus
52
what is the chief nerve supply to the postern-inferior portion of the nasal mucosa
maxillary nerve via the nasaopalatine nerve
53
what is the chief nerve supply to the anterosuperior portion of the nasal mucosa
ophthalmic nerve via the anterior and posterior ethmoidal nerves (branches of nasociliary nerve)
54
where do the posterior ethmoidal cells open directly into
superior meatus
55
where do the middle ethmoidal cells open into
directly into middle meatus
56
where do the anterior ethmoidal cells open into
directly or indirectly into the middle nasal meatus through the ethmoidal infundibulum
57
where does the maxillary sinus open into
middle nasal meatus of the nasal cavity by way of the semilunar hiatus
58
which nasal sinuses are the most commonly infected
maxillary
59
how do you manipulate an adult ear during physical exam
up, out and back
60
how do you manipulate an infant or child ear during physical exam
down and back
61
what is infection of the middle ear typically secondarily due to
upper respiratory infections
62
what provides the primary sensory innervation to the external ear
CN V and X