Book Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the two ways used to conceptualize light.

A

One way is to think of it as a wave that travels through a medium. Another is to think of it as a stream of photons, tiny particles, each consisting of one quantum of energy.

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2
Q

Describe the difference between light that is reflected and light that is transmitted.

A

Reflected light occurs when a ray of light strikes a light-colored surface and then bounces back towards its point of origin. Transmitted light occurs when light is neither reflected nor absorbed by a surface. An example is a transparent window; light passes through the surface and is transmitted to the other side.

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3
Q

What is the purpose of the cornea?

A

The cornea is a transparent surface on the exterior of the eye. It protects the eye from the outside world. Being transparent, it allows light to be transmitted through it and into the eye.

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4
Q

What is the purpose of the retina?

A

The retina is a light-sensitive membrane in the back of the eye that contains rods and cones, which receive an image from the lens and send it to the brain through the optic nerve.

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5
Q

How does the process of accommodation take place in the eye?

A

Accommodation takes place in the lens of the eye. The lens changes its refractive power by changing its shape. This causes the eye to be able to focus on a given object, whether it is near or far.

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6
Q

What is astigmatism and how can it be fixed?

A

Astigmatism is a visual defect caused by the unequal curving of one or more of the refractive surfaces of the eye, usually the cornea. It can be fixed by wearing lenses that have two focal points (that provide different amounts of focusing power in the horizontal and vertical planes).

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7
Q

Why are photoreceptors important in the process of seeing?

A

Photoreceptors are the cells that make up the backmost layer of the retina. They are sensitive to light, and as soon as they sense it, they can cause neurons in the intermediate layers to fire action potentials. Photoreceptors are important in the process of seeing because they transduce the physical energy of light into neural energy that our brains can analyze.

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8
Q

What are rods and cones?

A

Rods and cones are photoreceptors present in the retina. Rods are specialized for night vision, while cones are specialized for daylight vision, fine visual acuity, and color.

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9
Q

Explain what happens in the process of hyperpolarization.

A

Hyperpolarization is an increase in membrane potential in which the inner membrane surface becomes more negative than the outer membrane surface. This process is one in a sequence of events that occur once light is sensed by the photoreceptors

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10
Q

Why can’t rods signal differences in color?

A

Rods cannot signal differences in color because they only have one type of photopigment. Cones, on the other hand, have three types of photopigments, which help them differentiate between colors.

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11
Q

Describe age-related macular degeneration (AMD) and how it affects one’s vision.

A

AMD is a disease that affects the macula, gradually destroying high resolution central vision. This degeneration in vision makes it difficult to read, drive, or recognize faces.

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12
Q

What is the difference between wet and dry age-related macular degeneration (AMD)?

A

In wet AMD, abnormal blood vessels behind the retina start to grow under the macula and leak blood and fluid. The blood and fluid raise the macula and cause a rapid loss of central vision. In dry AMD (the more common form), cones in the macula degenerate slowly over time. Once dry AMD becomes too advanced, vision loss becomes permanent, however there are treatments to prevent the advancement of dry AMD.

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13
Q

What is the role of horizontal cells?

A

Horizontal cells are specialized retinal cells that contact both photoreceptors and bipolar cells. They produce lateral inhibition, which allows the signals that reach retinal ganglion cells to be based on differences in activations between nearby photoreceptors rather than absolute levels of activation.

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14
Q

What is visual acuity?

A

Visual acuity is a measure of the finest detail that one can resolve.

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15
Q

What is the difference between an “ON” bipolar cell and an “OFF” bipolar cell?

A

An “ON” bipolar cell is a cone bipolar cell that depolarizes in response to an increase in light intensity. An “OFF” bipolar cell is a cone bipolar cell that depolarizes in response to a decrease in light intensity. These two cells have opposite reactions to light.

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16
Q

What is a receptive field?

A

A receptive field is the region on the retina in which stimuli will activate a neuron. Receptive fields vary in size, shape, and complexity.

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17
Q

Why is the center–surround organization of retinal ganglion cells so important?

A

The center–surround organization of retinal ganglion cells is important because it allows for sensitivity to contrast rather than absolute illumination levels. Ganglion cells are most sensitive to differences in the intensity of light in the center and in the surround, and they are relatively unaffected by the average intensity of light. This is useful because the average intensity of light falling on the retina will be quite variable, depending on whether the observer is indoors, outdoors, etc., but contrasts of light are relatively constant.

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18
Q

What is a filter and how is it important in vision?

A

A filter is an acoustic, electrical, electronic, biological, or optical device, instrument, or computer program that allows the passage of some frequencies or digital elements and blocks others. Filters are important in vision because they allow the transformation of raw images into representations in the brain. Filters highlight certain important visual information while eliminating other unimportant information. The center–surround receptive fields of retinal ganglion cells are filters.

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19
Q

What are some consequences of the differing sizes of M ganglion cell and P ganglion cell receptive fields?

A

P ganglion cells have smaller receptive fields than M ganglion cells at all eccentricities. This allows the M ganglion cells to respond to a larger portion of the visual field. In addition, they are much more sensitive to visual stimuli under low lighting conditions than P ganglion cells. P ganglion cells, on the other hand, provide finer resolution (greater acuity) than M ganglion cells, as long as there is enough light for them to operate.

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20
Q

Explain how the pupil adapts to dark and light conditions.

A

The pupil has the ability to dilate and constrict, depending on amount of light. For example, under well-lit conditions, the pupil tends to constrict to let less light into the eye. Under dark conditions, the pupil dilates to allow more light into the eye.

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21
Q

Explain how the pupil adapts to dark and light conditions.

A

The pupil has the ability to dilate and constrict, depending on amount of light. For example, under well-lit conditions, the pupil tends to constrict to let less light into the eye. Under dark conditions, the pupil dilates to allow more light into the eye.

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22
Q

Explain why it is that we are generally not bothered by variations in overall light levels.

A

We are generally not bothered by variations in overall light levels because we have several mechanisms for regulating how much light enters the eye. One mechanism is the pupil size. Another is the regeneration rates of pigments in our photoreceptors. Yet another is the rod/cone dichotomy—cones operate at moderate and high light levels while rods take over for low light levels. Finally, the neural circuitry of the retina itself helps stabilize external light variations by emphasizing contrasts in luminance rather than absolute light levels.

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23
Q

What is visual acuity and how can it be measured?

A

Visual acuity is the smallest spatial detail that can be seen accurately. It can be measured by doing a visual acuity test, which requires looking at figures from a distance and identifying them.

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24
Q

Explain what happens during the phenomenon of aliasing.

A

Aliasing is the misperception of a grating due to undersampling. When looking at gratings, the visual system “samples” the grating discretely via the array of receptors at the back of the retina. If the receptors are spaced such that the lightest and darkest parts of the grating fall on separate cones, the observer can detect the grating. However, if the lightest and darkest parts of the grating both fall on the same cones, then the grating will be aliased and appear gray.

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25
Q

Explain the meaning of being able to see 20/20.

A

Being able to see 20/20 means that the observer can identify an object at 20 feet as well as a “normal” observer would be able to identify it at 20 feet. If the observer’s vision is 20/40, that means that the observer can see at 20 feet what somebody with normal vision can see at 40 feet (meaning the observer needs glasses!).

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26
Q

What can we infer from the contrast sensitivity function?

A

The contrast sensitivity function describes our window of visibility. Any object whose spatial frequencies and contrast fall within the region specified by the contrast sensitivity function will be visible. Those objects outside the region are outside our window of visibility. We can infer from this function that sensitivity to contrast depends on the spatial frequency of the stimulus.

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27
Q

Explain how retinal ganglion cells respond to stripes.

A

Each ganglion cell responds to certain types of stripes or gratings. For instance, an ON ganglion cell responds to gratings with spatial frequencies and phases that make the lightest part of the grating fall on the center of the cell and the darkest part of the grating fall on the surround. When the spatial frequency of the grating is too low, the ganglion cell responds weakly because part of the bar of the grating lands in the inhibitory surround, dampening the cell’s response. Similarly, when the grating’s spatial frequency is too high, the ganglion cell responds weakly because both dark and light stripes fall within the receptive field’s center and surround, washing out the response. When the frequency is just right, the cell responds vigorously.

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28
Q

What is the role of the lateral geniculate nucleus?

A

The lateral geniculate nucleus is a nucleus in the midbrain that shares connections with both the retina and visual cortex.

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29
Q

What are the two types of layers in the LGN and how are they different from each other?

A

The two types of layers in the LGN are the magnocellular layers and the parvocellular layers. The magnocellular layers are the two bottom layers of the LGN, and contain neurons that are physically larger than those in the parvocellular layers. Neurons in these layers respond to large, fast-moving objects. The parvocellular layers are the top four layers of the LGN. They contain neurons that respond to details of stationary objects.

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30
Q

Explain the notion of topographical mapping.

A

Topographical mapping is the orderly mapping of the world in the lateral geniculate nucleus and the visual cortex. Points of light that are near each other in the world fall on parts of the retina that are near each other and will be processed by neurons that are near each other in the brain. This orderly representation provides us with a neural basis of knowing where things are in space.

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31
Q

What are two important features of the visual cortex? Explain.

A

One important feature of the visual cortex is topographical mapping, which is the orderly mapping of the world in the brain. The second feature is the dramatic scaling of information from different parts of the visual field. Objects on or near the fovea are processed by neurons in a large part of the striate cortex, whereas objects imaged in the periphery are allocated a much smaller portion of the striate cortex. This feature is known as cortical magnification.

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32
Q

What is orientation tuning?

A

Orientation tuning is the tendency of neurons in striate cortex to respond optimally to certain orientations, and less to others.

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33
Q

In what way do striate cortex neurons function as filters?

A

Each striate cortex neuron responds to a particular location and is tuned to a particular spatial frequency, orientation, and phase. These narrow tuning functions mean that each striate cortex neuron functions as a filter for the portion of the image that excites the cell.

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34
Q

What is ocular dominance?

A

Ocular dominance is the property of the receptive fields of striate cortex neurons by which they respond more vigorously when a stimulus is presented in one eye than when it is presented in the other.

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35
Q

What is the difference between simple and complex cells?

A

Simple cells are cortical neurons with clearly defined excitatory and inhibitory regions, whereas complex cells are neurons whose receptive field responds to any properly oriented bar of light, regardless of whether it is light or dark.

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36
Q

What is the role of end stopping?

A

End stopping refers to a property of certain cortical neurons in which they respond vigorously when the end of a bar of light falls within their receptive field. It plays an important role in our ability to detect luminance boundaries and discontinuities.

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37
Q

What does a hypercolumn contain?

A

A hypercolumn contains at least two sets of columns, each covering every possible orientation, with one set preferring input from the left eye and one set preferring input from the right eye.

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38
Q

What is the enzyme cytochrome oxidase (CO) used for?

A

This enzyme is used to reveal the regular array of “CO blobs,” which are spaced about 0.5 mm apart in the primary visual cortex. These blobs have been implicated in processing color, motion, and spatial structure.

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39
Q

How can adaptation provide insights into the properties of cortical neurons?

A

Adaptation is the diminishing response of a sense organ to a sustained stimulus. It is helpful in learning about the properties of cortical neurons because, by exposing an observer to a particular stimulus for an extended period of time, the experimenter can make inferences about the visual system due to the observer’s changing responses. If two stimuli are processed by unrelated sets of neurons, then selectively adapting one set of neurons should have no effect on the other set.

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40
Q

What idea does the tilt aftereffect support?

A

The tilt aftereffect supports the idea that the human visual system contains individual neurons selective for different orientations.

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41
Q

What are spatial-frequency channels?

A

Spatial-frequency channels are pattern analyzers, implemented by ensembles of cortical neurons, with each set of neurons tuned to a limited range of spatial frequencies.

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42
Q

How do psychologists study visual processing in infants?

A

Infants tend to look more at complex scenes than at simple scenes. If presented with the choice of looking at a series of stripes or a uniform gray field, infants will look more often and longer at the stripes. If the stripes are low contrast and the baby cannot see the difference between the stripes and the gray field, he or she will stare equally often at the two stimuli. Thus, through careful observation of infants’ preferential looking, psychologists can tell which stimuli they can see and which they can’t.

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43
Q

What cortical brain structures does visual information pass through as it is processed?

A

Information first reaches the cortex in a region called striate cortex, so-called because it has a distinctive striped pattern under the microscope. Early vision processes are carried out here, then information is passed to extrastriate cortex, where the tasks of middle vision are carried out (for example, this is where illusory contours are processed). From here, information travels via two separate pathways, one that ends in the parietal lobe, and one that terminates in inferotemporal (IT; lower temporal lobe) cortex. It is in IT cortex that the end-stage processing of face and object recognition is carried out.

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44
Q

What are the receptive field characteristics of cells in IT cortex?

A

Many neurons in IT have been shown to respond most actively to particular objects or faces. The term “grandmother cell” was coined to describe these neurons, the implication being that a single cell might be ultimately responsible for deciding whether an image was of one’s grandmother’s face.

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45
Q

What methods are used to study the function of brain areas such as IT?

A

Some labs lesion (surgically remove) parts of the brains in nonhuman subjects to see what functions are impaired following the surgery. The results of such studies are often compared to deficits shown by human patients who have had homologous regions of their brains damaged by accident. Other labs use single-cell recording techniques to determine the responses of individual neurons to different types of stimuli (it was in these labs that grandmother cells were found). Recently, many resources have been poured into laboratories employing noninvasive techniques such as functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI), which can take snapshots of neural activity in human’s brains as they perform different tasks.

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46
Q

Why can’t we apply a simple rule like “homogeneous areas belong to the same object” in order to find an object’s contours?

A

Because humans sometimes perceive object contours even in areas of an image where there is no physical difference between the object and its background (see Figure 4.9).

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47
Q

Draw a figure that includes an illusory contour.

A

An illusory contour is one that is perceived even though it is not present in the physical stimulus. The Kanisza triangle (left) is one famous example; another illusory contour is shown below.

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48
Q

What is the guiding philosophy behind Gestalt psychology? How does it contrast with the earlier approach known as structuralism?

A

The structuralists believed that perception of a complex scene was simply the sum of the basic “atoms” of perception (color, orientation, etc.) in the scene. Gestalt psychologists reacted to this position, arguing that a perceptual whole was much more than the sum of its elemental parts.

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49
Q

What do the Gestalt grouping principles seek to describe?

A

The grouping principles provide rules for how different individual elements in an image tend to be combined by the visual system into wholes (i.e., objects).

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50
Q

Why is it important to include the phrase “all else being equal” when stating the Gestalt grouping principles?

A

Because we can only be absolutely sure that a principle will adequately predict how elements will be grouped if no other principles can also be applied. For example, at right we see a display in which the proximity grouping principle would suggest that we organize the elements into four columns, while the similarity principle suggests we should perceive five rows. Only one principle can “win” (in this case, most people probably see rows rather than columns).

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51
Q

How are the Gestalt grouping principles related to texture segmentation?

A

A texture is really just a collection of many perceptual elements that are similar to each other and arranged fairly close together. Therefore, stating that areas of an image with different textures are segmented from each other (the definition of texture segmentation) is really the same thing as saying that areas of an image in which elements are similar to each other and/or close together group together.

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52
Q

How is camouflage related to grouping principles?

A

To camouflage yourself, you have to make your features (that is, the visual elements that are visible to anyone who might observe you) group with the features present in your environment.

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53
Q

What is the basic idea behind the “perception by committee” metaphor?

A

The visual world is a complicated place, and no one rule for interpreting the world can possibly do an adequate job. But once we introduce multiple rules, conflicts between interpretations will inevitably arise. Various parts of our visual system act like perceptual committees, considering which rules conflict and which agree in a given situation and eventually arriving at a single interpretation for the scene.

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54
Q

What are ambiguous figures, and how do they relate to the perception by committee metaphor?

A

Ambiguous figures, such as the Necker cube seen at left, have more than one valid interpretation. Our perceptual committees settle on one and only one of these interpretations at a time, but the interpretation may “flip” from time to time.

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55
Q

What are some of the assumptions that perceptual committees make?

A

First, the committees must “know” something about physics; for example, understanding that opaque objects block light is a prerequisite for perceiving the illusory edges of the triangle in the Kanisza triangle. Second, the committees assume that we are not viewing a scene from an accidental viewpoint, which would mask the true structure of the objects in the scene.

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56
Q

What is figure–ground assignment?

A

The process of determining which areas of an image constitute a to-be-recognized object (the “figure”) and which areas form the background (the “ground”).

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57
Q

What is the notion of relatability and why is it important?

A

Relatability is the notion that line segments on either side of an occluding surface will look like they are part of a single object if they can be connected by a smooth curve that only bends once. This concept is important because it describes the constraints our brains use to fill in edge information that is missing from objects due to occlusion.

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58
Q

What do nonaccidental features tell us about a scene?

A

Certain arrangements of edges can be interpreted as providing important information about segmenting objects in a scene, provided we are seeing the edges from a nonaccidental viewpoint. For example, a “T-junction” (a place where one edge abuts another straight edge in a T-like fashion; the arrow in the figure at left points to a T-junction) strongly indicates that the two edges are parts of different objects.

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59
Q

What rules do our perceptual committees use to divide objects into parts?

A

One widely accepted proposal is that we use valleys, rather than bumps, in an object as clues to where to divide the object into parts, cutting the object by connecting pairs of valleys (see figure at left).

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60
Q

What evidence is there that the visual system starts with large objects and then divides them into smaller parts, rather than processing scenes the other way around?

A

Evidence for this proposition comes from the global superiority effect: In displays like those at the left, it was found that identifying the small (local) letters took longer than identifying the larger (global) letter, indicating that the global information is more readily available than the local information. That is, in the figure at left, you tend to see the E before the Gs.

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61
Q

What is the fundamental goal of object recognition?

A

To match a representation of a perceived visual stimulus to a representation of a previously-encountered object encoded in memory.

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62
Q

What is a naïve template theory, and why can such theories be rejected as a complete theory of object recognition?

A

The formal definition of a template is complicated, but template theories essentially follow a “lock and key” principle: The perceived image is the key, and the template is the lock. The naïve template approach says that we store templates for all the images of all the objects we have ever seen. When we perceive an object that we want to recognize, we try to match this perception to all the templates stored in memory until we find a lock in which the key fits exactly. This doesn’t strike most people as being a very efficient process. One of the most important problems is that it seems unlikely that we have enough brain capacity to store templates to match every single object that we are likely to encounter in our lives.

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63
Q

What is the basic idea behind a structural description, and how do structural description theories improve on template theories?

A

Straightforwardly enough, a structural description describes the structure of an object in a more abstract way than a template. Different theories propose different sets of building blocks with which to What is a geon?create the descriptions, and most structural description theories also propose some way to describe how parts are related to each other. The advantage over templates is that a single structural description can potentially match a large number of slightly different shapes. For example, if an X is described as two oblique lines that cross near their centers, this description will match all the figures at left; however, each would require a different template in a naïve template theory.

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64
Q

Describe the essence of the viewpoint invariance versus viewpoint dependence debate in the object recognition literature.

A

Many structural description theories, such as recognition by components, predict that in most circumstances, object recognition should be equally efficient (i.e., equally fast) regardless of what viewpoint you see the object from. Such a pattern of performance, in which recognition time does not vary across changes in viewpoints, is known as viewpoint invariance. However, many empirical studies have revealed that object recognition times are in fact dependent on viewpoint: If subjects study a novel object from a single viewpoint, they are usually slower at recognizing the object later when shown from a new viewpoint than when shown from the trained viewpoint. These findings have cast doubt on structural description theories and led to a resurgence of interest in theories that use template-like representations.

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65
Q

What do we mean when we say that objects can be recognized at different levels?

A

Object recognition is essentially a categorization process: Identifying an object means deciding what category the object belongs in. Most objects actually have a number of categories that they could be placed in. The level of recognition refers to the specificity of the category you use when identifying an object. For instance, you can recognize a chair as a “barber chair,” “chair,” or “furniture,” depending on what category you are using.

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66
Q

What are basic, subordinate, and superordinate categories?

A

These terms are best described in relation to each other. A subordinate level category is one that is quite specific, referring to a relatively small number of objects. A superordinate level category, on the other hand, is much more general; superordinate categories are often defined by functional or conceptual, rather than shape-based, qualities. Basic level categories are in between. Some examples of subordinate basic superordinate triplets are: schnauzer–dog–animal; office chair–chair–furniture; and iMac–computer–machine.

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67
Q

What is the difference between an entry level and a basic level category?

A

The entry level term for an object is operationally defined as the first word that comes to mind when someone is asked to name the object. The formal definition of the basic level is more complicated and somewhat more vague. Usually, an object’s entry level term is the same as its basic level term, but exceptions occur for strangely-shaped objects, such as penguins and bean bag chairs.

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68
Q

Why is face recognition thought be accomplished via different mechanisms than the recognition of other objects?

A

Most objects require considerably more time to recognize at the subordinate than at the basic level. However, recognition of individual faces, which is a subordinate-level task, is a very fast process—so fast that many researchers believe the visual system must use “special” mechanisms to recognize faces. Also, face recognition and object recognition can be doubly dissociated—people with object agnosia can recognize faces but not objects whereas people with prosopagnosia can recognize objects but not faces.

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69
Q

What is the inversion effect, and how does it relate to the special mechanisms thought to be operating when we recognize faces?

A

Faces are more difficult than other objects to recognize when inverted (turned upside-down). Researchers have proposed that when faces are inverted, the special processes that are usually brought to bear in recognizing faces cannot operate, so we are forced to rely on our “normal” object recognition processes, which are not as efficient for subordinate-level objects, like faces.

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70
Q

What is prosopagnosia, and what does it say about special face recognition processes?

A

Prosopagnosia is a neuropsychological disorder in which people cannot recognize faces, although they can recognize other objects normally. It is thought that this disorder is due to damage in the portion of the brain where special face recognition processes are carried out.

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71
Q

achromatic

A

Referring to any color that lacks a chromatic (hue) component. Black, white, or gray.

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72
Q

What is the problem of univariance?

A

The problem of univariance is the fact that an infinite set of different wavelength–intensity combinations can elicit exactly the same response from a single type of photoreceptor. One photoreceptor type cannot make accurate color discriminations based on wavelength.

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73
Q

Describe the three types of cones in the human visual system and explain the differences between them.

A

The three types of cones in the human visual system are: S-cones, M-cones, and L-cones. They are all collectively responsible for discriminating between different colors. The S-cones are preferentially sensitive to short wavelengths, the M-cones are preferentially sensitive to middle wavelengths, and the L-cones are preferentially sensitive to long wavelengths.

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74
Q

What does the trichromatic theory of color vision tell us about color perception?

A

The trichromatic theory of color vision tells us that the color of any light is defined in our visual system by the relationships between the outputs of the three cone types.

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75
Q

Why do metamers produce the same perceived color?

A

Metamers are different mixtures of wavelengths that nonetheless look identical. Even though the wavelength mixtures are different, they produce the same response from the cones in our visual system, which in turn causes the colors to appear identical.

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76
Q

What is an additive color mixture?

A

An additive color mixture is when two sources of illumination combine to make a new color, as when mixing lights. If light A and light B are both reflected from a surface to the eye, the colors of those two lights add together.

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77
Q

What is a subtractive color mixture?

A

A subtractive color mixture is when one source of illumination is subtracted from another, as when two color filters are placed in front of a light source or when pigments are mixed. If pigments A and B mix, some of the light shining on the surface will be subtracted by A, and some by B. Only the remainder contributes to the perception of color.

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78
Q

What happens if you shine “blue” and “yellow” lights on the same patch of paper?

A

If you shine “blue” and “yellow” lights on the same patch of paper, the wavelengths will add, producing an additive color mixture. Since “yellow” is equivalent to a mix of long and medium wavelengths, and “blue” consists of short wavelengths, the two lights will produce a mixture of short, medium, and long wavelengths. The resulting mixture will therefore look white.

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79
Q

Describe the idea of color space.

A

Color space is a three-dimensional representation of all possible colors. The color space has three dimensions because color perception is based on the outputs of three cone types.

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80
Q

What is the Young–Helmholtz theory?

A

The Young–Helmholtz theory is the trichromatic theory of color vision, which was developed in the nineteenth century by both Young and Helmholtz. It poses that any light is defined in our visual system by the relationships between a set of three numbers, which we now know to be the outputs of three receptor types (cones).

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81
Q

Explain how the LGN is important in color perception.

A

The LGN is a structure in the thalamus of the brain that receives input from retinal ganglion cells and has input and output connections to the visual cortex. Some of its cells are maximally stimulated by spots of light, which are critical to color perception.

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82
Q

What is a color-opponent cell?

A

A color-opponent cell is a neuron whose output is based on a difference between sets of cones.

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83
Q

What are the opponent color sets in the opponent color theory?

A

The opponent color sets in the opponent color theory are red versus green, blue versus yellow, and black versus white.

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84
Q

What is a unique hue? Provide an example.

A

A unique hue is a color that can be described with only a single color term. Red is an example of a unique hue, as opposed to orange, which can be described as a compound (reddish yellow).

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85
Q

What is a negative afterimage?

A

A negative afterimage is a type of afterimage whose polarity is the opposite of the original stimulus. For instance, light stimuli produce dark negative afterimages. Colors are complementary: red produces green afterimages and yellow produces blue afterimages. The negativity of the afterimages arises from the color-opponent cells.

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86
Q

Describe the method of “hue cancellation.”

A

The method of hue cancellation is used to demonstrate the opponent color theory. In this method, the experimenter might start with a light that appears to be a yellowish green. The experimenter then cancels the yellowness by adding its opponent color—blue. The experimenter then measures the amount of blue light needed to just remove all traces of the yellow.

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87
Q

What happens if the red–green and blue–yellow mechanisms are at their neutral points?

A

If these two sets of opponents are at their neutral points, the stimulus will appear achromatic.

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88
Q

What is achromatopsia?

A

Achromatopsia is an inability to perceive colors that is due to damage to the central nervous system.

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89
Q

In what way are color-anomalous individuals and cone monochromats color-blind?

A

Color-anomalous individuals are individuals that can make discriminations based on wavelength, but these discriminations are different from the normal. Cone monochromats are individuals with only one cone type, and therefore they cannot discriminate different colors, leading them to be truly color-blind.

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90
Q

What is cultural relativism?

A

Cultural relativism is the idea that basic perceptual experiences such as color perception may be determined in part by the cultural environment.

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91
Q

Describe the idea of color constancy.

A

Color constancy is the tendency of a surface to appear the same color under a fairly wide range of illuminants.

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92
Q

Describe two physical constraints that make constancy possible.

A

Luminance tends to change abruptly between surfaces and gradually within surfaces, so surface boundaries are an important physical constraint for achieving constancy. The fact that shadow boundaries change the brightness and not the chromatic properties of a surface is also an important physical constraint for constancy.

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93
Q

What is the advantage of binocular summation?

A

The advantage of binocular summation is that detecting a stimulus can be done with two eyes, as opposed to just one, and so this yields more information about the stimulus.

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94
Q

Explain the difference between a monocular depth cue and a binocular depth cue.

A

A monocular depth cue is available when the world is viewed with only one eye. A binocular depth cue requires information from both eyes.

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95
Q

What is the idea behind positivism?

A

Positivism is a philosophical position arguing that all you really have to go on is the evidence of your senses, so the world might be nothing more than an elaborate hallucination.

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96
Q

Name three monocular depth cues.

A

Any three of the following: occlusion, relative size, familiar size, relative height, texture gradients, linear perspective, aerial perspective, motion parallax, accommodation, or convergence.

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97
Q

Explain what a texture gradient is.

A

A texture gradient is a depth cue based on the geometric fact that items of the same size form smaller images when they are farther away. Thus, an array of items that change in size across the image will appear to form a surface in depth.

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98
Q

What kind of information does aerial perspective provide about the stimulus?

A

Aerial perspective is a depth cue that is based on the implicit understanding that light is scattered by the atmosphere. More light is scattered when you look through more atmosphere. Thus, more distant objects are subject to more scatter and appear fainter, bluer, and less distinct. Aerial perspective provides information about the relative distance of objects from the observer

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99
Q

What is a vanishing point?

A

A vanishing point is the apparent point at which parallel lines receding in depth converge.

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100
Q

What kind of movement does motion parallax depend on? Explain.

A

Motion parallax depends on either object movement or head movement. During either type of motion situation, closer objects move faster across the visual field than farther objects, allowing one to determine the depth of objects relative to each other.

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101
Q

What is a pictorial depth cue?

A

A pictorial depth cue is a cue to distance or depth used by artists to depict three-dimensional depth in two-dimensional pictures.

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102
Q

How are convergence and divergence important to depth perception?

A

Convergence and divergence are important to depth perception because they are used to place the two images of a feature in the world on corresponding locations in the two retinal images (typically on the fovea of each eye). They both reduce the disparity of that feature to zero, or nearly zero.

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103
Q

Explain the concept of corresponding retinal points.

A

Corresponding retinal points are points on the retina of each eye where the monocular retinal images of a single object are formed at the same distance from the fovea in each eye. The two foveas are also corresponding points.

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104
Q

Explain the concept of the Vieth-Müller circle, and how it relates to the horopter.

A

The Vieth-Müller circle refers to the location of objects whose images fall on geometrically corresponding points in the two retinas. If the two eyes are looking at one spot, then there will be a surface of zero disparity running through that spot (known as the horopter).

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105
Q

What is the difference between crossed disparity and uncrossed disparity?

A

Crossed disparity is the sign of disparity created by objects in front of the plane of fixation (the horopter). Images of objects that are located in front of the horopter will appear to be displaced to the left in the right eye, and to the right in the left eye. Uncrossed disparity is the sign of disparity created by objects behind the plane of fixation. Images of objects that are located behind the horopter will appear to be displaced to the right in the right eye, and to the left in the left eye.

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106
Q

What is a stereoscope?

A

A stereoscope is a device for presenting one image to one eye and another image to the other eye. Once these two images are fused by the observer, they create a single three-dimensional image with a strong impression of depth.

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107
Q

When is free fusion used?

A

Free fusion is a technique of converging or diverging the eyes in order to view a stereogram without a stereoscope.

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108
Q

What does stereoblindness often result from?

A

Stereoblindness, or the inability to make use of binocular disparity as a depth cue often results from a childhood visual disorder such as a strabismus, in which the two eyes are misaligned.

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109
Q

What is a random dot stereogram?

A

A random dot stereogram is a stereogram made of a large number of randomly placed dots. The random dot stereogram contains no monocular cues to depth.

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110
Q

When does one view cyclopean stimuli?

A

One views cyclopean stimuli when looking at random dot stereograms. These are stimuli that are defined by binocular disparity alone.

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111
Q

Define the correspondence problem.

A

The correspondence problem is the problem of figuring out which bit of the image in the left eye should be matched with which bit in the right eye.

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112
Q

Name two ways of solving the correspondence problem.

A

Any two of the following: 1) Blurring the image to remove high spatial frequencies, so that there are not as many dots to analyze and 2) using the uniqueness constraint, in which a feature in the world will be represented exactly once in each retinal image, or 3) using the continuity constraint which assumes that neighboring points in the world lie at similar distances from the viewer, except at the edges of objects.

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113
Q

What is binocular rivalry?

A

Binocular rivalry is the competition between the two eyes for control of visual perception, which is evident when completely different stimuli are presented to the two eyes.

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114
Q

In what sense does the Bayesian approach take into account past experience? Explain.

A

The Bayesian approach is a statistical model which states that prior knowledge could influence one’s estimates of the probability of a current event. In the case of vision, since the retinal images formed on the two retinas could be a result of an infinite number of scenes, this approach helps to narrow down the possible choices to the ones that are the most likely, based on past experiences.

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115
Q

Describe the idea behind the cueing paradigm.

A

This paradigm measures how fast a subject responds to a target appearing in one of two or more boxes under various cueing conditions in order to infer how attention might affect performance. Generally, there is a “valid cue,” an “invalid cue” and a “neutral cue.” A valid cue signals the correct location where the target will appear, whereas an invalid cue refers to a cue signals the incorrect location. A neutral cue is uninformative. The idea is that when an invalid cue is given, the observer will take longer to respond to the appearance of the target than when a valid cue is given. A neutral cue will result in a response that is slower than that of a valid cue case but quicker than that of an invalid cue case. This demonstrates that response to a target depends on prior attention to information in the visual field.

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116
Q

What is the “Spotlight” theory of attention?

A

It is a metaphor for attention based on the idea that attention can be moved from spot to spot in a manner similar to that of a spotlight beam.

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117
Q

How are visual search experiments useful for studying attention?

A

Visual search experiments provide a closer approximation to the actions of attention in the real world. The typical visual search experiment requires the observer to find a “target” item among some number of “distractor” items. This kind of search occurs regularly in the real world. For instance, looking for faces in a crowd, books on a shelf, etc.

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118
Q

Explain how a search can be inefficient.

A

When the target and distractors in a visual search task contain the same basic features, the search is inefficient. For example, if all the distractors in the task contain the color blue, and the target also contains the color blue, a search can be inefficient in that the observer may have to go through each item in the display in order to locate the target. This is contrasted with a situation in which the target stands out from the distractors, and as a result the observer does not need to attend to each stimulus in the display.

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119
Q

Describe one type of visual search that is efficient.

A

Feature search is an example of an efficient kind of visual search. In this case, the search for a target is defined by a single attribute, such as a salient color or orientation. For instance, imagine having to search for a red car in a parking lot full of white cars. The defining feature (the color red) is sufficiently salient, and it does not matter how many cars are in the parking lot. The red car stands out in the display. In this situation, we process the colors of all of the cars at once, or in parallel, making the search efficient.

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120
Q

Why is conjunction search less efficient than feature search?

A

Conjunction search is less efficient than feature search because conjunction search requires searching for a target defined by the presence of two or more attributes (e.g., a blue, horizontal target among blue vertical and green horizontal distractors), as opposed to feature search, which only requires searching for a target defined by a single attribute.

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121
Q

What is guided search?

A

Guided search is the idea that people find items they are looking for in the real world by restricting their attention to the subset of features that distinguish the target item from the rest of the items around it.

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122
Q

Describe Treisman’s feature integration theory.

A

This theory of visual attention states that a limited set of basic features can be processed in parallel preattentively, but that other properties, including the correct binding of features to objects, require attention.

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123
Q

What is the binding problem?

A

The binding problem is the challenge of tying different attributes of visual stimuli (e.g., color, orientation, motion), which are handled by different brain circuits, to the appropriate object so that we perceive a unified object (e.g., red, vertical, moving right).

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124
Q

How are illusory conjunctions a by-product of conjunction search?

A

An illusory conjunction is an erroneous combination of two features in a visual scene. For instance, seeing a red X when the display contains red letters and Xes, but no red Xes. This error can occur during a recognition task that involves conjunction search, when the observer tries to report which objects were present in a display of items. The observer confuses attributes of one object with attributes of another.

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125
Q

What are the two stages of feature integration theory?

A

The two stages of feature integration theory are: 1) The preattentive stage, which refers to the processing of stimuli that occurs before selective attention is deployed to any particular stimulus. 2) The attentive stage, which refers to processing that requires the deployment of attention to a particular stimulus or location.

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126
Q

Describe one phenomenon where timing is critical to visual attention.

A

One such phenomenon is known as the “attentional blink.” In this case, there is a difficulty in perceiving and responding to the second of two target stimuli amid a rapid stream of distracting stimuli if the observer has responded to the first target stimulus within 200 to 500 ms before the second stimulus is presented.

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127
Q

What is attentional selection, and why is it important?

A

Attentional selection is the ability to attend to specific properties of a display, which may require switching attention from previous properties without moving the eyes. This ability is important because it allows one to focus on the relevant information in a display rather than “getting lost” in the entire display. During attentional selection, different aspects of the display appear more prominent as one shifts attention to the property selected.

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128
Q

What do fMRI studies involving the fusiform face area demonstrate about attention?

A

These studies show that attentional selection can be used to perform one type of specialized processing rather than another. One study showed that the fusiform face area is especially important in the processing of faces and that the parahippocampal place area is especially important in the processing of places. If observers view an image of a face superimposed over an image of a house, the face area becomes more active when the observer is attending to the face, and the place area becomes more active when the observer is attending to the house.

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129
Q

How is response enhancement related to attentional processing on the cellular level?

A

Response enhancement of single cells is one of the ways in which attention could change the response of a cell. For instance, a cell that responds to a specific orientation (e.g., vertical) might give a stronger response in the presence of attention.

130
Q

Describe sharper tuning and its relevance to attentional processing.

A

Sharper tuning is one possible effect of attention on the response of neurons. Attention might cause a neuron to respond more precisely. For instance, a neuron that normally responds to lines with orientations from 20° to +20° might come to respond to ±10° lines instead.

131
Q

What is neglect?

A

Neglect is a disorder of visual attention, in which there is an inability to attend to or respond to stimuli in the contralesional visual field (typically the left visual field after a right parietal damage). Neglect can also involve half of the body or half of an object. The disorder seems to stem from an attentional processing problem rather than from a visual problem: the visual system seems to remain intact.

132
Q

How is extinction related to neglect?

A

Extinction might be neglect in a milder form. Extinction is the inability to perceive a stimulus in the presence of another stimulus, typically in a comparable position in the other visual field. Neglect is a more severe disorder, in which the entire contralesional field might be affected.

133
Q

Describe the symptoms a Balint Syndrome patient might experience.

A

A Balint Syndrome patient usually experiences three symptoms: 1) A hard time trying to reach for an object 2) A tendency to gaze fixedly ahead 3) The inability to perceive more than one object at a time

134
Q

Describe the difference between the selective and nonselective pathways.

A

Early visual processing feeds into two separate pathways—a selective and a nonselective pathway. The selective pathway passes through the bottleneck of attention and thus fully processes all of the features of one or a few objects at a time. The nonselective pathway does not pass through the attentional bottleneck and instead computes the ensemble statistics of a scene rather than the details of any particular objects.

135
Q

What does it mean to compute the ensemble statistics of a scene?

A

The ensemble statistics of a scene are the distribution of properties such as orientation, size, or color over a set of objects in a scene. Importantly, the distribution of these properties is represented holistically—as an ensemble—giving the observer a global description of the entire scene rather than a local description of any of the particular elements in the scene. Such ensemble statistics can be used to quickly process important properties of the world, such as scene gist and layout.

136
Q

Explain how the Flicker paradigm helps to examine the phenomenon of “change blindness.”

A

During the Flicker paradigm, observers are given a picture memory experiment. First, they see a picture of a scene, then it vanishes for a split second, and then it is replaced by a similar image. The task is to determine what changed between the first and second images. The two images continue to flip back and forth (with a blank screen appearing between them) until the observer spots the change, or time runs out. The results of this task show that observers are slow at detecting changes, especially compared to performance on tasks in which the images flip back and forth without a blank screen appearing between them. This failure to notice a change between two scenes is referred to as “change blindness.”

137
Q

Explain the notion of inattentional blindness.

A

Inattentional blindness refers to a failure to notice an unexpected event because the observer is paying attention to other events in the visual field. The unexpected event would typically be quite noticeable to the observer, if he weren’t occupied paying attention to something else. For instance, in Dan Simon’s Gorillas in the Midst” experiment, many subjects were so busy counting the number of times players in white shirts passed a basketball between them that they didn’t notice a person in a black gorilla suit walk through the scene!

138
Q

Describe one challenge in building a motion detector.

A

One challenge is that in such a mechanism, one cell should “listen” to two other cells from two locations in space and then compute the motion.

139
Q

Describe the concept of apparent motion.

A

Apparent motion is the illusory impression of smooth motion resulting from the rapidly alternating presentation of objects that appear in different locations.

140
Q

What is the correspondence problem of motion?

A

The correspondence problem of motion is the problem faced by the motion detection system of knowing which feature in frame 2 corresponds to a particular feature from frame 1.

141
Q

What is the purpose of an aperture?

A

The purpose of an aperture is to allow only a partial view of an object. It is an experimental tool used to illustrate the aperture problem.

142
Q

Describe the aperture problem.

A

The aperture problem is the fact that when a moving object is viewed through an aperture (or a receptive field), the direction of motion of a local feature or part of the object may be ambiguous.

143
Q

What happens when the magnocellular layers of the LGN are lesioned?

A

When the magnocellular layers of the LGN are lesioned there is an impairment of the perception of large, rapidly moving objects.

144
Q

What did Newsome and Pare’s research involving dot motion displays show?

A

Their research showed that monkeys could be trained to recognize the direction of global motion in correlated dot motion displays. Then, when the monkeys’ MT areas were lesioned, their ability to identify the direction of motion was impaired. This supports the idea that MT is critical for motion perception.

145
Q

What does interocular transfer tell us about the locus of motion aftereffects in the visual system?

A

Interocular transfer, which is the transfer of an effect from one eye to the other, tells us that the motion aftereffect must be reflecting the activities of neurons in a part of the visual system where information from the two eyes is combined.

146
Q

What is the difference between first-order and a second-order motion?

A

First-order motion is the motion of an object that is defined by changes in luminance. Second-order motion is the motion of an object that is defined by changes in contrast or texture, but not luminance.

147
Q

What is a texture-defined object?

A

A texture-defined object is an object that is defined by changes in contrast or texture, but not luminance.

148
Q

How does optic flow help us navigate around the world?

A

Optic flow is the changing angular position of points in a perspective image that we experience as we move through the world. By observing optic flow, we can tell what speed and direction we are heading in, allowing us to adjust our locomotion accordingly.

149
Q

What is biological motion?

A

Biological motion is the pattern of movement exhibited by humans and animals. It is different from that of nonliving things.

150
Q

Why is tau important to navigating in the real world?

A

Tau is a measure of how quickly an image is expanding on the retina and can be used to determine time to collision without having to estimate absolute distances or rates. The ratio of the retinal image size at any moment to the rate at which the image is expanding is tau. By calculating tau, the visual system helps us avoid collision, which is important for navigating in the world.

151
Q

What is the focus of expansion?

A

When an observer is in motion, the focus of expansion is the point in the center of the horizon from which all points in the perspective image seem to emanate. The focus of expansion is one aspect of optic flow.

152
Q

How do smooth pursuit eye movements help us perceive moving objects?

A

In smooth pursuit eye movements, the eyes smoothly track a moving object, allowing better extraction of visual detail from the object as well as providing an estimate of the object’s velocity.

153
Q

What is the role of the superior colliculus in the midbrain?

A

The superior colliculus is a structure that is important in initiating and guiding eye movements.

154
Q

What is the role of vergence eye movements?

A

Vergence eye movements are helpful when one is focusing on a near or far object. In this type of eye movement the two eyes move in opposite directions: they either diverge outward, or converge inward.

155
Q

Why is saccadic suppression important in motion perception?

A

Saccadic suppression is important in motion perception because it eliminates the “smear” from retinal image motion during an eye movement. Saccadic suppression is a brief reduction of visual sensitivity during a saccadic eye movement.

156
Q

What kind of problem does the comparator solve?

A

One problem the comparator solves is that of an object in motion appearing stationary because its motion on the retina is removed via smooth pursuit eye movements. When an eye movement is planned, one copy of the movement command goes to the eye muscles, and the other goes to an area of the visual system called the comparator. The comparator also compensates for retinal image changes caused by eye movements, thus inhibiting any attempt by other parts of the visual system to interpret such changes as object motion when really only the eyes moved and not the object.

157
Q

Which aspects of motion perception are evident at birth and which aspects develop later?

A

Reflexive eye movements to moving targets are present at birth and neurons in V1 have adultlike sensitivity to visual motion direction. However, sensitivity to global motion, motion-defined form, and biological motion all develop later.

158
Q

Describe what happens in the disorder called akinetopsia.

A

Akinetopsia is a rare neuropsychological disorder in which the affected individual has no perception of motion. They experience a succession of static images but cannot perceive the motion connecting them.

159
Q

Describe the two basic qualities of sound: frequency and amplitude.

A

Frequency is the number of times per second that a pattern of pressure change repeats. Amplitude is the magnitude of displacement (increase or decrease) of a sound pressure wave.

160
Q

How is amplitude associated with loudness?

A

Loudness is the psychological aspect of sound related to perceived intensity or magnitude, whereas amplitude is the physical magnitude of displacement of a sound pressure wave. The more amplitude a sound wave has, the louder it will sound.

161
Q

What is a sine wave and why is it important in studying auditory perception?

A

A sine wave is a waveform for which variation as a function of time is a sine function. It is important in studying auditory perception because all sounds are made of sine waves, usually a combination of several various types. Understanding them is important to understanding auditory perception.

162
Q

Describe the concept of timbre.

A

Timbre is the psychological sensation by which a listener can judge that two sounds that have the same loudness and pitch are dissimilar (e.g., a trumpet and a piano both playing the same note still sound different from each other). Timbre quality is conveyed by harmonics and other high frequencies.

163
Q

What are the roles of the ear canal?

A

The ear canal is responsible for: 1) conducting sound vibrations from the pinna to the tympanic membrane; and 2) preventing damage to the tympanic membrane.

164
Q

Describe the three tiny bones in the middle ear.

A

The three tiny bones in the middle ear are called ossicles; the malleus, the incus, and the stapes. They amplify the sound arriving at the tympanic membrane before it is transmitted to the oval window. The malleus receives vibration from the tympanic membrane and is attached to the incus. The incus connects the malleus and the stapes. The stapes presses against the oval window of the cochlea on the other end.

165
Q

Why can’t the acoustic reflex help protect the ear from abrupt loud sounds, such as gun fire?

A

The acoustic reflex is a reflex that protects the ear from intense sounds by the contraction of the stapedius and tensor tympani muscles. However, this reflex follows the onset of loud sounds by about one-fifth of a second, so it cannot protect against abrupt loud sounds.

166
Q

What is the function of the cochlea?

A

The cochlea is a spiral structure of the inner ear containing the organ of Corti, which is responsible for transducing the mechanical movement of sound vibration into neural activity.

167
Q

Describe how the release of neurotransmitters results from the deflection of stereocilia.

A

When vibration causes a displacement along the cochlear partition, the tectorial membrane and hair cells move in opposite directions (shear) and the deflection of stereocilia in this action results in the release of neurotransmitters.

168
Q

How is place code related to tuning?

A

Place code is the tuning of different parts of the cochlea to different frequencies, in which information about the particular frequency of an incoming sound wave is coded by the place along the cochlear partition with the greatest mechanical displacement due to its resonance with that frequency.

169
Q

How are inner hair cells different from outer hair cells?

A

Inner hair cells convey almost all the information about sound waves to the brain. Outer hair cells, on the other hand, convey information from the brain to the cochlea as part of a feedback system.

170
Q

What is the threshold tuning curve?

A

The threshold tuning curve is a map plotting the thresholds of a neuron or fiber in response to sine waves with varying frequencies at the lowest intensity that will give rise to a response.

171
Q

What happens during two-tone suppression?

A

Two-tone suppression is a decrease in the firing rate of one auditory nerve fiber to a tone when a second tone is presented at the same time.

172
Q

What does an isointensity curve show us?

A

An isointensity curve is a map that plots the firing rates of an auditory nerve fiber against varying frequencies and intensities.

173
Q

What is rate saturation?

A

Rate saturation is the point at which a nerve fiber is firing as rapidly as possible and further stimulation is incapable of increasing the firing rate.

174
Q

Why does phase locking occur?

A

Phase locking may occur because AN fibers fire when the sterocilia of hair cells move in one direction (e.g., as the basilar membrane moves up toward the tectorial membrane), but they do not fire when the stereocilia move in the other direction.

175
Q

Describe the volley principle.

A

The volley principle is the idea that multiple neurons can provide a temporal code for frequency if each neuron fires at a distinct point in the period of a sound wave but does not fire on every period.

176
Q

What kind of organization exists in the primary auditory cortex (A1)?

A

The primary auditory cortex is organized in a tonotopic fashion. This is an arrangement in which neurons that respond to different frequencies are organized anatomically in order of frequency.

177
Q

What is psychoacoustics?

A

Psychoacoustics is the study of the psychological correlates of the physical dimensions of acoustics; a branch of psychophysics.

178
Q

What is the audibility threshold?

A

It is a map of just barely audible tones of varying frequencies.

179
Q

What is white noise and when is it used?

A

White noise consists of all audible frequencies in equal amounts. White noise in hearing is analogous to white light in vision, for which all wavelengths are present. It is used in masking experiments investigating frequency selectivity.

180
Q

Describe two kinds of hearing loss

A

One is conductive hearing loss, which is caused by problems with the bones of the middle ear and can be remedied by surgery. The other is otitis media, which is the inflammation of the middle ear, commonly in children as a result of infection.

181
Q

Describe the concept of interaural time difference and its importance

A

Interaural time difference is the difference in time between a sound arriving at one ear versus the other. It is an important cue for localizing sound.

182
Q

How do the medial superior olive structures help in sound localization?

A

The medial superior olive structures serve as relay stations in the brain stem where inputs from both ears contribute to the detection of the interaural time difference, which in turn is critical for localizing sound.

183
Q

What is the interaural level difference?

A

The interaural level difference is the difference in level (intensity) between a sound arriving at one ear versus the other. It helps with the process of sound localization.

184
Q

What happens to sound information traveling to the ears after a single synapse in the cochlear nucleus?

A

The information from each ear travels to both the medial superior olive and the lateral superior olive on each side of the brain stem.

185
Q

Why is the cone of confusion confusing?

A

The cone of confusion is the region of positions in space where all sounds produce the same time and level (intensity) differences. In such a situation it is difficult to localize sound, which is confusing to the listener.

186
Q

Provide one reason why cones of confusion are not major practical problems for the auditory system.

A

One such reason is that time and intensity differences are not the only cues for hearing the location of sound sources. The shape of the pinna, for instance, also helps with sound localization. It “funnels” sound energy into the ear canal, and does this more efficiently for some sound frequencies than for others. In addition, the intensity of each frequency varies slightly according to the direction of the sound, and this variation provides the listener with another localization cue.

187
Q

What does the head-related transfer function describe?

A

This function describes how the pinna, ear canal, head, and torso change the intensity of sounds with different frequencies that arrive at each ear from various locations in space.

188
Q

How is the spectral composition of sounds a possible cue for auditory distance?

A

The spectral composition of sounds is a possible cue for auditory distance because the sound-absorbing qualities of air dampen high frequencies more than low frequencies, so when sound sources are far away, higher frequencies decrease in energy more than lower frequencies as the sound waves travel from the source to your ear. This variation between frequencies reaching the ear helps the listener to estimate the distance between him/her and the sound source.

189
Q

What does the inverse-square law state?

A

The inverse-square law states that as distance from a source increases, intensity decreases faster such that the decrease in intensity is the distance squared.

190
Q

How do the relative amounts of direct versus reverberant energy provide a cue for auditory distance?

A

The relative amounts of direct versus reverberant energy provide a cue for auditory distance because when a sound source is close to the listener, most of the energy reaching the ear is direct, whereas reverberant energy provides a greater proportion of the total when the sound source is farther away.

191
Q

What is a fundamental frequency?

A

A fundamental frequency is the lowest-frequency component of a complex periodic sound.

192
Q

Describe the phenomenon of the “missing fundamental.”

A

The “missing fundamental” is the phenomenon in which listeners will still hear the pitch of a missing fundamental frequency of a harmonic sound even if it is not present in the actual sound wave.

193
Q

What is timbre?

A

Timbre is the psychological sensation by which a listener can judge that two sounds that have the same loudness and pitch are dissimilar. Timbre quality is conveyed by harmonics and other high frequencies.

194
Q

What is the difference between the attack and the decay of a sound?

A

The attack of a sound is the part during which amplitude increases. The decay of a sound is the part during which the amplitude decreases.

195
Q

How does source segregation help us to distinguish various sounds in our environment?

A

Source segregation is the processing of an auditory scene consisting of multiple sound sources into separate sound images. This process helps us ultimately distinguish between the different sound sources in our environment.

196
Q

Describe the idea of auditory stream segregation.

A

Auditory stream segregation is the perceptual organization of a complex acoustic signal into separate auditory events for which each stream is heard as a separate event.

197
Q

What happens when a sequence of notes that have increasing and decreasing frequencies is presented and tones deviate from the rising/falling pattern?

A

These deviating tones are heard to “pop out” of the sequence because they do not share the same timbre as the rest of the notes in the group.

198
Q

How is “hearing through” an interruption consistent with the Gestalt principle of good continuation?

A

“Hearing through” an interruption is consistent with the Gestalt principle of good continuation because in this case, the listener is able to “make up” for the missing sound piece due to the interruption. The Gestalt principle of good continuation also states that the perceiver will make up for a lost piece by filling in for it.

199
Q

Explain the idea of restoration of complex sounds.

A

Restoration of complex sounds can occur when listening to speech or music, which are complex sounds. The missing notes or segments of speech are filled in by the listener, and the whole piece is thus restored.

200
Q

What does the musical helix illustrate?

A

The musical helix illustrates the two characteristics of musical pitch: tone height and tone chroma.

201
Q

What is the difference between consonant or dissonant chords?

A

Consonant chords are more pleasing, and they are combinations of notes in which the ratios between the note frequencies are simple. Dissonant chords are less pleasing, and they are combinations of notes in which the ratios between the note frequencies are more complicated.

202
Q

Describe how cultural differences might affect our perception of music.

A

Cultural differences might affect our perception of music in that people from various cultures can hear musical notes in different ways. For instance, the Javanese have fewer notes within an octave, and there is greater variation in a note’s acceptable frequencies. On the other hand, western cultures learn to perceive music using octaves that have more notes within them. This difference affects the perception of music in general.

203
Q

Explain what needs to be consistent in a melody, as opposed to what can change in it.

A

A melody is defined by its contour—the pattern of rises and falls in pitch, so this pattern needs to be consistent. However, the exact sequence of sound frequencies can vary. For instance, a melody will be perceived to be the same, even if it is played in a different key than it was originally heard.

204
Q

Provide an example of musical rhythmic grouping.

A

An example of musical rhythmic grouping is syncopation, or “syncopated auditory polyrhythms.” When two different rhythms are overlapped, their rhythms can collide in interesting ways. For example, if one rhythm is based on three beats (AaaAaaAaaAaa) and the other on four (BbbbBbbbBbbbBbbb), the first accented sound for both rhythms will coincide only once every 12 beats. Across the 11 intervening beats, the two rhythms will be out of sync.

205
Q

Describe evidence that melody development begins at an early age.

A

Studies of 8-month-olds reveals that learning melodies begins early in life. Saffran et al. (1999) conducted experiments in which infants could be trained to attend to new melodies of different sequences of tones.

206
Q

What is the vocal tract?

A

The vocal tract is the airway above the larynx used for production of speech. It includes the oral tract and nasal tract.

207
Q

What are the three basic components to the production of speech?

A

The three basic components to the production of speech are respiration (lungs), phonation (vocal cords), and articulation (vocal tract).

208
Q

What does the rate at which vocal folds vibrate depend on?

A

The rate at which vocal folds vibrate depends on their stiffness and mass.

209
Q

What is articulation?

A

Articulation is the act or manner of producing speech sound using the vocal tract.

210
Q

How are formants specified?

A

Formants, which are resonances of the vocal tract, are specified by their center frequency and are denoted by integers that increase with relative frequency.

211
Q

What does a spectrogram illustrate?

A

A spectrogram is a pattern for sound analysis that provides a three-dimensional display plotting time on the horizontal axis, frequency on the vertical axis, and intensity on a color or gray scale.

212
Q

How are consonant sounds classified?

A

Consonant sounds are classified according to three articulatory dimensions: 1) place of articulation, 2) manner of articulation, and 3) voicing.

213
Q

Explain the concept of coarticulation.

A

Coarticulation is the phenomenon in speech whereby attributes of successive speech units overlap in articulatory or acoustic patterns. This phenomenon results from the fact that speech production is fast.

214
Q

Why is it difficult to build an advanced computer speech recognition system?

A

It is difficult to build an advanced computer speech recognition system because the system needs to take into consideration which speech sounds precede and follow each other sound. In addition, the system cannot identify the preceding and following sounds without also taking into consideration which sounds precede and follow them, and so on. This is a difficult task for a computer.

215
Q

What is categorical perception of speech?

A

It is the ability of listeners to label and discriminate various sounds of speech in a categorical fashion. Additionally, categorical perception has a predictability attribute based on prior labeling data.

216
Q

What is special about speech according to the “motor theory” of speech perception?

A

According to the “motor theory” of speech perception, speech is special because humans have evolved special mechanisms for producing speech, and this aids them in understanding speech as well.

217
Q

How does contrast play a role in the perception of speech?

A

Spectral contrast helps listeners perceive speech despite the lack of acoustic invariance due to coarticulation.

218
Q

Describe why it is difficult for Japanese speakers to distinguish between “l” and “r.”

A

It is difficult for Japanese speakers to distinguish between “l” and “r” because they have learned to ignore this difference in their native language, as it is not necessary for their language to use this distinction. Once speakers learn to ignore certain acoustic sounds, it is then difficult for them to perceive these differences later on.

219
Q

What do brain imaging and neural recording studies suggest about the location of speech perception in the brain? Which area(s) are involved in it?

A

Brain imaging studies show that both hemispheres of the brain, particularly the temporal lobes, are active during speech perception.

220
Q

What are the otolith organs?

A

They are the mechanical structures in the vestibular system that sense both linear acceleration and gravity. Each otolith organ contains an utricle, a saccule, and maculae.

221
Q

What are the semicircular canals?

A

They are the three toroidal tubes in the vestibular system that sense angular motion.

222
Q

What are the three axes of movement coded by the vestibular system?

A

x-axis: The axis of motion forward and backward
y-axis: The axis of motion leftward and rightward
z-axis: The axis of motion upward and downward

223
Q

What are the three directions of rotation coded by the vestibular system?

A

Roll: Rotation around the x-axis
Pitch: Rotation around the y-axis
Yaw: Rotation around the z-axis

224
Q

What do hair cells do in the vestibular system?

A

Hair cells support the stereocilia that transduce mechanical movement in the vestibular labyrinth into neural activity sent to the brain stem.

225
Q

What are mechanoreceptors?

A

Mechanoreceptors are sensory receptors responsive to mechanical stimulation such as pressure, vibration, or movement.

226
Q

What is a receptor potential?

A

It is a change in voltage of sensory receptor cells—hair cells for the vestibular system—in response to stimulation.

227
Q

What are cristae?

A

Cristae are the specialized detectors of angular motion located in each semicircular canal in a swelling called the ampulla.

228
Q

What is an utricle?

A

An utricle is one of the two otolith organs. A saclike structure that contains the utricular macula. Also called utriculus.

229
Q

What is a saccule?

A

A saccule is one of the two otolith organs. A saclike structure that contains the saccular macula. Also called sacculus.

230
Q

What are maculae?

A

Maculae are specialized detectors of linear acceleration and gravity found in each otolith organ.

231
Q

What are otoconia?

A

Otoconia are tiny calcium carbonate stones in the ear that provide inertial mass for the otolith organs, enabling them to sense gravity and linear acceleration.

232
Q

What do subjects report sensing when they are rotated in the dark (or with their eyes closed) for an extended period of time?

A

Subjects first feel a sense of motion consistent with their actual motion, but report feeling less and less motion over time until finally reporting no sensation of motion at all.

233
Q

How well do subjects do at reproducing passive translations of the body experienced in the dark?

A

Subjects do quite well at this task. When reproducing the translations with a joystick, subjects also reproduce the velocity of the passive-motion trajectory, indicating that the brain remembers and replicates the velocity trajectory.

234
Q

What is vection?

A

Vection is an illusory sense of self motion produced when one is not, in fact, moving.

235
Q

What happens when a subject looks at a rotating display for an extended period of time?

A

They report an illusory sensation of tilt in the direction opposite to the rotation of the stimulus.

236
Q

What is the vestibular-ocular reflex?

A

It is a compensatory eye movement that adjusts for changes in head position in order to keep the eye fixated on a target.

237
Q

What is the autonomic nervous system?

A

It is the part of the nervous system innervating glands, heart, digestive system, etc., and responsible for regulation of many involuntary actions.

238
Q

What is a situation in which the autonomic nervous system interacts with the vestibular system?

A

Motion sickness results from a discrepancy between visual and vestibular motion signals and results in the autonomic response of dizziness, nausea, and sometimes vomiting.

239
Q

What area of the cortex is exclusively devoted to processing vestibular information?

A

There isn’t one. There are areas of the cortex that respond to vestibular input, but they also tend to respond to visual input.

240
Q

What area of the brain is involved in spatial orientation perception?

A

The multisensory parieto-insular cortex. It receives input from both the semicircular canals and the otolith organs.

241
Q

What is Mal de Debarquement Syndrome?

A

After spending time on a boat or in the ocean, it is normal for people to feel a rocking sensation for a few hours. However, if the illusory sense of spatial disorientation, imbalance, and rocking lasts for a month or more, the person might be suffering from “disembarking sickness” or mal de debarquement syndrome.

242
Q

Describe Ménière’s Syndrome.

A

Patients suffering from this syndrome experience the sudden onset of dizziness, imbalance, and orientation as well as tinnitus, an illusory ringing sound. This combination of symptoms can cause patients to lose their balance or vomit, and unfortunately the symptoms can strike at any time.

243
Q

How is the olfactory epithelium involved in odor perception?

A

The olfactory epithelium contains three types of cells that allow it to detect odorants in the inspired air.

244
Q

Name and describe the three cells found in the epithelium.

A

The three cells found in the epithelium are: 1) supporting cells, which perform supportive functions; 2) basal cells, which are precursor cells to olfactory sensory neurons; and 3) olfactory sensory neurons, which possess cilia that contain the receptor sites for odorant molecules.

245
Q

Explain the role of the olfactory bulb in odor perception.

A

The olfactory bulb is the first site in the brain where olfactory information is processed.

246
Q

How is the limbic system involved in odor perception?

A

The limbic system is involved in many aspects of emotion and memory. It has direct and strong connections to the olfactory system, which explains the strong relationship between emotion, memory, and odor perception.

247
Q

What kinds of sensations are mediated by the trigeminal nerve?

A

The trigeminal nerve transmits information about an important dimension of our sense of smell: “feeling.” For instance, menthol feels cool, and ammonia feels burning.

248
Q

What does the shape-pattern theory contend?

A

The shape-pattern theory contends that odorant molecules have different shapes as do olfactory receptors, and that an odorant will be detected by a specific olfactory receptor to the extent that the odorants’ molecules fit into the olfactory receptor.

249
Q

What does the vibration theory contend?

A

The vibration theory contends that there is a different vibration frequency for every perceived smell, and that molecules that produce the same vibration frequencies will produce the same smell.

250
Q

Provide one piece of evidence in favor of the shape-pattern theory of olfactory perception.

A

One piece of evidence in favor of this theory is the study of stereoisomers. Stereoisomers are molecules that are mirror-image rotations of one another, and although containing the same atoms, they can smell completely different. According to the shape-pattern theory, this difference arises because the rotated molecules do not fit the same receptors.

251
Q

What two components have been suggested to be involved in the processing of odor mixtures?

A

The two components involved in the processing of odor mixtures are analysis and synthesis.

252
Q

What is binaral rivalry?

A

When one scent is presented to the left nostril and another scent is presented to the right nostril at the same time, they compete with each other to be perceived. Only one scent at a time is perceived rather than a combination of the two scents, and which scent is perceived switches back and forth over time.

253
Q

Provide one example of the difference in processing between olfaction and vision.

A

Odor imagery is not possible within the realm of olfaction. It is not possible to imagine a particular smell very clearly. However, it is possible to imagine a visual image very clearly and easily.

254
Q

Explain how odor recognition is durable.

A

Odor recognition is durable over time. That is, when exposed to a particular odor once, its recognition is relatively stable over the course of one day, a week, or even a year.

255
Q

What is the “tip-of-the-nose” phenomenon?

A

The “tip-of-the-nose” phenomenon is the inability to name an odorant, even though it is very familiar.

256
Q

Why is cross-adaptation presumed to occur?

A

Cross-adaptation is the successive reduction in detection of an odorant following exposure to another odorant. It is presumed to occur because the two odorants share one or more olfactory receptors for their transduction, but the order of odorant presentation also plays a role.

257
Q

What is cognitive habituation?

A

Cognitive habituation is the psychological process by which, after long-term exposure to an odorant, one is no longer able to detect that odorant or has very diminished detection ability.

258
Q

What is odor hedonics?

A

Odor hedonics is the liking dimension of odor perception. It is typically measured with scales pertaining to an odorant’s perceived pleasantness, familiarity, and intensity.

259
Q

Provide evidence that hedonic responses to odors are learned.

A

Evidence that hedonic responses are learned comes from cross-cultural data, where people acquire a taste for various foods that are considered “disgusting” by other cultures.

260
Q

Provide evidence that hedonic responses to odors are innate.

A

Evidence that hedonic responses to odors are innate come from the idea that there is a cross-cultural agreement for hedonic responses to common everyday smells, either “good” or “bad.”

261
Q

What is a learned taste aversion?

A

A learned taste aversion is the avoidance of a novel flavor after it has been paired with gastric illness. It is the smell, not the taste, of the substance that is the key for learned aversion response in humans.

262
Q

Why do odors have a reputation of being the “best cues” for memory?

A

Odors have a reputation of being the “best cues” for memory because very often a smell elicits a strong emotion or memory that other modalities, such as vision or audition do not.

263
Q

Explain the role of the orbitofrontal cortex in odor perception.

A

The orbitofrontal cortex is responsible for processing olfaction. It is also the area of the brain that is critical for assigning affective value to stimuli, and for determining hedonic meaning.

264
Q

What is a pheromone?

A

A pheromone is a chemical emitted by one member of a species that triggers a physiological or behavioral response in another member of the same species. Pheromones do not necessarily have any smell.

265
Q

In what way is the early Greeks’ belief that sensations perceived from foods in the mouth are “tastes,” whereas sensations perceived through the nose are “smells” a misunderstanding?

A

This is a misunderstanding because food molecules are almost always perceived by both our gustatory and our olfactory systems. The molecules are dissolved in our saliva and passed over to taste receptors in our taste buds. Then, as we chew and swallow foods, other molecules are released into the air inside our mouths and travel into the nasal cavity, stimulating the olfactory receptors.

266
Q

What is a retronasal olfactory sensation?

A

A retronasal olfactory sensation is the sensation of an odor that is perceived when chewing and swallowing force an odorant emitted by the mouth up behind the palate and into the nasal cavity. Such odor sensations are perceived as originating from the mouth, even though the actual contact of odorant and receptor occurs in the olfactory mucosa.

267
Q

What happens when the chorda tympani is anesthetized?

A

When the chorda tympani is anesthetized, one cannot taste anything. This cranial nerve normally carries information from taste receptors to the brain.

268
Q

What are taste buds?

A

Taste buds are globular clusters of cells that create the neural signals conveyed to the brain by taste nerves. Some of the cells in the taste bud have specialized sites on their apical projections that interact with taste stimuli. Some of the cells form synapses with taste nerve fibers.

269
Q

Describe the papillae and name the four kinds.

A

Papillae are the structures that give the tongue its bumpy appearance. They vary in size and shape, and contain the taste buds. The four types of papillae are: filiform papillae, fungiform papillae, foliate papillae, and circumvallate papillae.

270
Q

What is the function of the taste receptor cells?

A

Taste receptor cells are cells within the taste bud that contain sites on their apical projections that can interact with taste stimuli. These sites fall into two major categories: those interacting with charged particles, and those interacting with specific structures.

271
Q

How do the microvilli help in the process of taste perception?

A

The microvilli are slender projections on the tips of some taste bud cells that extend into the taste pore. They contain sites that bind to taste substances, and thus help in the process of taste perception.

272
Q

What is the functional difference between the insular cortex and the orbitofrontal cortex?

A

The insular cortex is the primary cortical processing area for taste. It receives taste information first. The orbitofrontal cortex, on the other hand, receives projections from the insular cortex. Some orbitofrontal cortex neurons are multimodal, responding to temperature, touch, smell and taste, suggesting that it is an integration area.

273
Q

What are the four basic tastes?

A

The four basic tastes are: salty, sour, bitter, and sweet.

274
Q

In what way can diet affect the perception of saltiness?

A

Diet can affect the perception of saltiness by adjusting how much salt is consumed. For instance, people on low-sodium diets perceive salt to be more intense than others.

275
Q

How is sensitivity for bitter flavors different for women than for men?

A

Sensitivity for bitter flavors is affected by hormone levels in women; this is not the case for men.

276
Q

In what way has the sense of taste helped humans survive over the years?

A

The sense of taste has helped humans detect nutrients and “antinutrients” (substances that are harmful) in the environment before ingesting them. Usually harmful substances have bitter or acidic flavors to them, and in this way the sense of taste has helped humans stay away from them.

277
Q

What does the specific hungers theory contend?

A

The specific hungers theory contends that a deficiency of a given nutrient will produce a craving for that nutrient.

278
Q

Provide an example supporting the specific hungers theory.

A

An example supporting the specific hungers theory comes from a treatment for schizophrenia in the 1940s, where the brain would be deprived of glucose in order to bring it to a restful stage using insulin. This treatment in turn, created intense cravings for sweet, and later laboratory studies confirmed that insulin injections produce increased liking for sweet.

279
Q

What is the fifth basic taste candidate? Describe it.

A

The fifth basic taste candidate is umami. This is a taste sensation evoked by monosodium glutamate.

280
Q

Describe the labeled lines theory.

A

The labeled lines theory states that each nerve fiber carries a particular taste quality. For example, the quality evoked from a sucrose-best fiber is sweet, that from NaCl-best fiber is salty, and so on.

281
Q

Provide one example of cross-adaptation in taste perception.

A

One such example is eating something sweet, such as candy and then immediately after consuming a sour beverage such as lemonade. The lemonade tastes a lot more sour than it normally does after consuming the sweet candy. This is due to the sugar in the candy causing the sweet receptors to adapt, so that the subsequent lemonade tastes less sweet and more sour than normal.

282
Q

What is a nontaster?

A

A nontaster is an individual born without receptors for the bitter compound PROP. Nontasters also tend to have the fewest fungiform papillae.

283
Q

What is a supertaster?

A

A supertaster is an individual whose taste sensations are extremely intense and who also has a high density of fungiform papillae.

284
Q

In what way do supertasters and normal tasters perform cross-modality matching differently?

A

Cross-modality matching is the ability to match the intensities of sensations that come from different sensory modalities. Normal tasters who do not perceive bitter substances to be very extreme usually match those substances to mild sensations in other modalities, such as a mild noise, or pain. However, supertasters who perceive bitter substances to be very intense usually match those substances to more severe sensations in other modalities, such as greater noise, or a more moderate pain level.

285
Q

Provide an example showing how liking spicy foods can be influenced by social factors.

A

Liking spicy foods, such as chili peppers, can be influenced by social factors. For example, in Mexico, chili is gradually added to the diet of young children beginning at age 3, and the children observe their family eating it. By age 5 or so, children voluntarily add chili to their own food.

286
Q

Describe the two layers of the skin known as the epidermis and dermis.

A

The epidermis is the outermost of the two layers. The dermis is the innermost layer of the two, consisting of nutritive and connective tissue, within which lie mechanoreceptors that respond to pressure and vibration.

287
Q

What are mechanoreceptors?

A

Mechanoreceptors are sensory receptors that are responsive to mechanical stimulation, such as pressure and vibration.

288
Q

What are the four types of mechanoreceptors?

A

The four types of mechanoreceptors are Meissner, Merkel, Pacinian, and Ruffini receptors.

289
Q

What is the role of the muscle spindle?

A

The muscle spindle is a sensory receptor located in a muscle that senses its tension. The sensory response from the spindle is sent back to the central nervous system, conveying information about muscle length and thus regulating muscle tension.

290
Q

What are kinesthetic receptors responsible for?

A

Kinesthetic receptors are responsible for giving us a sense of where our limbs are, and what kinds of movements we are making.

291
Q

Name and describe the two types of thermoreceptors.

A

The two types of thermoreceptors are warmth fibers and cold fibers. Warmth fibers are sensory nerves that fire when skin temperature increases, and cold fibers are sensory nerves that fire when skin temperature decreases.

292
Q

Why are nociceptors important?

A

Nociceptors are important because they transmit information about noxious (painful) stimulation that causes damage or potential damage to the skin.

293
Q

How does tactile information travel from the spinal cord to the brain?

A

Tactile information travels from the spinal cord to the brain via two pathways:

The spinothalamic pathway
The dorsal column–medial lemniscal (DCML) pathway
The spinothalamic pathway carries most of the information about skin temperature and pain, whereas the DCML pathway carries signals from skin, muscles, tendons, and joints.

294
Q

How are touch sensations represented in area S1?

A

Touch sensations are represented in area S1 somatotopically. This means that the representations are mapped in correspondence to the skin, so that adjacent areas on the skin are ultimately connected to adjacent areas in the brain.

295
Q

What is a homunculus?

A

A homunculus is a maplike representation of regions of the body in the brain.

296
Q

What kind of sensation is described by the term “phantom limb”?

A

The sensation of a phantom limb is the perceived sensation from a physically amputated limb of the body.

297
Q

What is one possible explanation for the sensation of phantom limb?

A

One possible explanation for the sensation of a phantom limb is that certain parts of the brain are not aware of the severed connection between the missing limb and the brain, and therefore they attribute any activity in these areas to stimulation from the missing limb.

298
Q

What is analgesia?

A

Analgesia is decreasing pain sensation during conscious experience.

299
Q

What is the role of the endogenous opiates?

A

Endogenous opiates are chemicals released by the body that block the release or uptake of neurotransmitters necessary to transmit pain sensations to the brain, thus creating an analgesic effect.

300
Q

What is the gate control theory?

A

The gate control theory is a description of the pain transmission system that incorporates modulating signals from the brain.

301
Q

What kind of function is the anterior cingulate cortex associated with?

A

The anterior cingulate cortex is associated with the perceived unpleasantness of a pain sensation.

302
Q

What kind of function is the prefrontal cortex associated with?

A

The prefrontal cortex is associated with cognition and executive control.

303
Q

What is the two-point touch threshold?

A

The two-point touch threshold is the minimum distance at which two stimuli (e.g., two simultaneous touches) are perceivable as being separate.

304
Q

How can two-point touch thresholds be determined?

A

Two-point touch thresholds can be determined by the concentration and receptive-field sizes of touch receptors in an area of the skin. This can be done in the laboratory by administrating point stimulators to the subjects, and then observing how different areas of skin respond to the stimulation.

305
Q

What is exploratory procedure used for?

A

Exploratory procedures are ways in which objects are touched in order to perceive their properties. Each exploratory procedure is best for extracting one or more object properties.

306
Q

What role do fingerprints play in tactile perception?

A

They enhance tactile perception by amplifying the vibration frequencies that FA II mechanoreceptors measuring fine surface textures are most attuned to.

307
Q

What is tactile agnosia?

A

Tactile agnosia is an inability to recognize objects by touch, resulting from a lesion in the parietal lobe.

308
Q

How does establishing a frame of reference help in haptic object localization?

A

Establishing a frame of reference helps in haptic object localization since it defines locations in space. Based on these locations, it is then possible to use haptic perception to perceive the objects.

309
Q

What is the difference between exogenous and endogenous spatial attention?

A

Exogenous spatial attention is when attention is reflexively drawn to a stimulus originating in the environment (bottom-up processing) whereas endogenous spatial attention is when attention is directed towards a stimulus voluntarily (top-down processing)

310
Q

What is a haptic virtual environment?

A

A haptic virtual environment is an electromechanical device that allows the user to experience a synthetic world through the sense of touch. The device delivers forces to the hand of the user that simulates the forces that would actually be felt if the virtual environment were real.

311
Q

How is the olfactory epithelium involved in odor perception?

A

The olfactory epithelium contains three types of cells that allow it to detect odorants in the inspired air.

312
Q

Name and describe the three cells found in the epithelium.

A

The three cells found in the epithelium are: 1) supporting cells, which perform supportive functions; 2) basal cells, which are precursor cells to olfactory sensory neurons; and 3) olfactory sensory neurons, which possess cilia that contain the receptor sites for odorant molecules.

313
Q

Explain the role of the olfactory bulb in odor perception.

A

The olfactory bulb is the first site in the brain where olfactory information is processed.

314
Q

How is the limbic system involved in odor perception?

A

The limbic system is involved in many aspects of emotion and memory. It has direct and strong connections to the olfactory system, which explains the strong relationship between emotion, memory, and odor perception.

315
Q

What kinds of sensations are mediated by the trigeminal nerve?

A

The trigeminal nerve transmits information about an important dimension of our sense of smell: “feeling.” For instance, menthol feels cool, and ammonia feels burning.

316
Q

What does the shape-pattern theory contend?

A

The shape-pattern theory contends that odorant molecules have different shapes as do olfactory receptors, and that an odorant will be detected by a specific olfactory receptor to the extent that the odorants’ molecules fit into the olfactory receptor

317
Q

What does the vibration theory contend?

A

The vibration theory contends that there is a different vibration frequency for every perceived smell, and that molecules that produce the same vibration frequencies will produce the same smell.

318
Q

Provide one piece of evidence in favor of the shape-pattern theory of olfactory perception.

A

One piece of evidence in favor of this theory is the study of stereoisomers. Stereoisomers are molecules that are mirror-image rotations of one another, and although containing the same atoms, they can smell completely different. According to the shape-pattern theory, this difference arises because the rotated molecules do not fit the same receptors.

319
Q

What two components have been suggested to be involved in the processing of odor mixtures?

A

The two components involved in the processing of odor mixtures are analysis and synthesis.

320
Q

What is binaral rivalry?

A

When one scent is presented to the left nostril and another scent is presented to the right nostril at the same time, they compete with each other to be perceived. Only one scent at a time is perceived rather than a combination of the two scents, and which scent is perceived switches back and forth over time.

321
Q

Provide one example of the difference in processing between olfaction and vision.

A

Odor imagery is not possible within the realm of olfaction. It is not possible to imagine a particular smell very clearly. However, it is possible to imagine a visual image very clearly and easily.

322
Q

Explain how odor recognition is durable.

A

Odor recognition is durable over time. That is, when exposed to a particular odor once, its recognition is relatively stable over the course of one day, a week, or even a year.