Brain & Behaviour 1/2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is materialism in relation to psychology?

A

the mind results from activities of the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is dualism? and what is the supposed role of the pineal gland?

A

The mind and body are believed to be wholly separate

believe the pineal gland connects with the soul

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is phrenology?

A

bulges on the skull equate to swollen brain parts of specific function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is equipotentiality?

A

there is no functional localisation in the brain, it works as a whole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is Broca’s area?

A

language part of the brain that if damaged causes aphasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the neurone doctrine?

A

individual neurone cells make up the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What do single neurone recordings show us?

A

when specific cells respond to particular stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is an EEG?

A

A measure of electrical impulses of a group of neurones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is MEG?

A

A measure of the magnetic field created by neurones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What do fMRI and PET scans look for in the brain?

A

Change in magnetic signal that occurs when blood flows to a brain region that has become active

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is TMS?

A

Transcranial magnetic stimulation :
magnetic field created through the skull causing a disruption in electrical activity in the brain - can interfere with brain functions e.g. speaking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the imaging techniques used in cognitive neuro has the best temporal resolution?

A

EEG (and MEG)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which of the imaging techniques used in cognitive neuro has the best spatial resolution?

A

fMRI (actually single neurone recordings but not so widely used)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Describe the steps leading to an action potential crossing a synapse?

A
  1. action potential reaches synaptic knob and causes voltage gated Ca2+ ion channels to open
  2. vesicles containing neurotransmitter move towards the presynaptic membrane and diffuse into the synaptic cleft
  3. neurotransmitter binds to receptors on the post synaptic membrane allowing Na+ to enter, depolarising the membrane
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are antagonists?

A

chemicals that can bind to neurotransmitters and prevent ions entering the postsynapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are agonists?

A

chemicals that allow ions to enter the postsynapse such as neurotransmitters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Name 3 agonists and what they do

A

Alcohol: allows GABA uptake
Nicotine: allows acetylcholine uptake
Cocaine: allows dopamine, norepinephrine and serotonin uptake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Name 3 antagonists and what they do

A

Alcohol: prevents uptake of glutamate
Prozac: prevents re-uptake of serotonin
Chloropromazine: prevents uptake of dopamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is an EPSP?

A

excitatory post-synaptic potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is an IPSP?

A

inhibitory post-synaptic potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When will an axon depolarise to threshold?

A

When the sum of EPSPs and IPSPs is sufficient to depolarise to that level despite cancelling each other out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is temporal summation?

A

When multiple EPSPs come together at one time to create a large action potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is spatial summation?

A

the summation of potentials from different physical locations across the cell body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is happening at resting potential?

A

Diffusion pulls K+ out of the cell and electrical force moves it back into the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
How many Na+ for K+ exchanages are there per cell?
3 Na+ out = 2 K+ in (creating a net charge loss inside the cell)
26
What is the first step in an action potential?
Voltage gated Na+ and K+ ions channels open when the membrane depolarises
27
What is threshold potential?
+40mV
28
How many neurones are there in the brain?
100 billion
29
What are glial cells?
The glue that sticks the brain together
30
What are the 3 types of glial cell?
Astrocytes, oligodendrocytes, microglial cells
31
Are there more glial cells that neurones in the cerebellum or cerebral cortex?
cerebral cortex
32
Why is grey matter grey?
Contains neurones, cell bodies, dendrites
33
Why is white matter white?
contains lots of axons with myelin (which is white)
34
What is a gyrus?
A 'hill' on the brain's surface
35
What is a sulcus?
A 'valley' on the brain's surface
36
What are the 4 main lobes of the cerebral cortex and what do they do?
Frontal lobe - motor control, planning, thinking Parietal lobe - sensory-motor information Temporal lobe - higher level visual information Occipital lobe - visual information
37
What does the Sylvian fissure do?
Divides the temporal lobe from the frontal and parietal lobes
38
What coordinates does the anterior commissure have?
000
39
What does the basal ganglia consist of?
Caudate, putamen, globus pallidus
40
What does the amygdala do?
memory and emotional responses
41
What does the Thalamus do?
directs sensory information en route to the cerebral cortex
42
What does the Hypothalamus do?
homeostasis
43
What does the pineal gland do?
control sleep/wake patterns
44
What does the brainstem consist of? What does each part do?
Midbrain: sensory motor integration Pons: connection with the cerebellum Medulla: controls vital organs
45
What are meninges?
membranes that keep the fluid in the brain
46
What is the circle or Willis and what does it do?
The brain's main blood supply - pools blood from internal carotid and basilar artery and distributes it to the brain
47
What are the 6 layers of the cortex?
Molecular, external granular, pyramidal, inner granular, ganglionic and multiform
48
What is Savant syndrome?
When an individual is generally cognitively impaired but excel in one aspect
49
What is neuroethology?
The study of animal behaviour and its underlying control by the nervous system
50
What is allometry?
The importance of brain size relative to body mass
51
What is residual brain?
Extra brain weight than expected for given body weight (deviation from allometric prediction)
52
Which gene is important in controlling brain size?
Microcephalin gene
53
What is 'proper mass'
The correct mass of brain areas needed for specific functions
54
What does the superior colliculus control?
vision
55
What does the inferior colliculus control?
hearing
56
What does a larger than average hippocampus suggest?
More of the brain is needed for memory which may be linked to behaviour such as long term food storage
57
What does a larger than average neocortex suggest?
increase in social intelligence as neurones in the NC are very receptive to faces helping to identify others easily
58
What is Dunbar's number?
more residual cortex = larger social group size
59
What part of the brain do songbirds have a residual amount of?
the HVC (does not stand for anything) - allows large song repertoire
60
Can the size of brain regions change even after growing has stopped?
Yes. Taxi drivers have larger hippocampuses than the average person Strong players have more neurones representing thir left hand in the somatosensory cortex
61
What has IQ shown to be roughly correlated to in terms of the brain?
increased cortical thickness
62
What is the mosaic brain evolution model?
the idea that different modular regions elaborated each individually over time (evolution)
63
How many people are predicted to have dementia by 2050?
2 million
64
What percentage of dementia cases are Alzheimer's?
60%
65
How many people in the UK have some sort of dementia?
820000
66
On average how much does a patient with dementia cost the NHS per year?
£25,000
67
What are the symptoms of mild dementia?
memory loss (episodic and semantic), problems thinking + making decisions
68
What are symptoms of moderate dementia?
confusion, disturbed sleep, disorientation, poor judgement, apathy, personality changes, hallucinations
69
What are the symptoms of severe dementia?
forgetting own identity, not recognising others, loss of mobility/control, inability to communicate
70
What forms inside the brain causing dementia?
Plaques and tangles
71
What is a 'plaque'?
A beta amyloid plaque forms from small fragments of beta amyloid protein released from membranes of the neurones
72
What is a 'tangle'?
A neurofibrillary tangle forms from Tau proteins that have separated from microtubules. Tangles disable cell transport, causing cell death
73
What do plaques and tangles cause in the brain?
neurones die, brain shrinks (atrophy) | sulci and ventricles expand
74
Who discovered Alzheimers? When was this?
Alois Alzheimer in 1906
75
What network do patients with AD often show abnormalities in even early on?
Default mode network - associated with memory retrieval
76
What is dementia?
Any neurodegenerative disease
77
How heritable is AD?
It is autosomally dominant - only one copy of the gene needed in order for the disease to develop
78
What chance do children have of inheriting AD if one parent has it?
50% chance
79
What 3 genes are associated with AD?
``` Presenilin 1 (chromosome 14) Presenilin 2 (chromosome 1) Amyloid beta (A4) precursor protein (chromosome 21) ```
80
What gene implicates late onset AD?
APOE4 (chromosome 19), presence of this gene increases likelihood of onset 4x
81
What environmental factors can increase the likelihood of developing AD?
Diet - reduced risk of AD with mediterranean diet - moderate alcohol intake decreases risk - smoking may increase risk of AD in APOE 4 carriers Education - higher level = lower risk of AD
82
What are some symptoms of Mild Cognitive Impairment (MCI)?
misplacing everyday items, losing train of thought, failing to recognise familiar faces/places, problems 'word finding'
83
Why is the MCI test important?
It can help determine whether there is degeneration in any brain regions such as the hippocampus which can start degeneration up to 3 years before AD diagnosed This means treatment may be more effective if given earlier
84
What type of memory is well preserved even in patients with AD? How come?
Habit memory | It does not use the hippocampus or complex semantic processing
85
What did Kemper's (2001) 'Nun study' show?
Nuns that developed dementia in later life had lower scores for grammatical complexity and density of ideas in their writing at a young age
86
What did the EClipSE study show?
More educated participants are less likely to be diagnosed with AD HOWEVER level of education does not matter
87
What treatment is currently available for Alzheimers?
slowing of progression and amelioration of some symptoms
88
What is Cognitive stimulation?
Exercise and improved nutrition to boost performance and improve mood
89
What is reminiscence theory?
Helping patients make use of early memories and knowledge to promote social interaction and wellbeing
90
What is the purpose of giving AD patients Vitamin B?
Smith (2010) found that Vit B can reduce brain atrophy by 30% in patients who might have the very earliest stages of dementia but no diagnosis
91
What can long term alcoholism cause?
damage to the brain causing Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome which is amnesia
92
What is the best known AD medication and what does it do?
Aricept | It is a cholinesterase inhibitor so prevents the breakdown of acetylcholine so more neurones fire
93
What other medication can be given to patients with AD?
NMDA inhibitors | block glutamate from binding as it is released in large quantities from damaged cells and is toxic to surrounding cells
94
Which areas of the brain are worst affected by AD?
inferior, medial and anterior
95
Which two lobes, affected by AD, are important for semantic memory and language?
anterior temporal lobe, inferior frontal lobe
96
Which lobe, affected by AD, is especially important for controlling thought and behaviour?
frontal lobe
97
What symptoms can degeneration of the frontal lobe cause?
problems coordinating multiple activities | personality changes
98
Which parts of the brain degenerate to cause apathy?
orbitofrontal cortex, frontal pole
99
What was interesting about the last book Murdoch wrote?
There was a higher frequency of 'normal' words than in her other books
100
What are the 3 types of dementia?
Vascular Focal Subcortical
101
What is vascular dementia?
loss of cognitive functioning due to loss of blood supply to the brain
102
Where in the world is vascular dementia most common?
Asia
103
What are people with vascular dementia prone to?
Strokes - blood supply disruption to the brain caused by a blocked artery (thrombosis) or bleed (haemorrhage)
104
What part of the brain is particularly prone to strokes?Why?
frontal lobes | receive blood form a single artery
105
What do many patients with vascular dementia have a history of?
Hypertension (over 80% of people diagnosed with VD have this)
106
What is frontotemporal dementia (FTD)?
damage focussed on one area of one lobe
107
What is frontal-variant FTD? Symptoms?
atrophy of the frontal lobes (70% of FTD cases) | - personality changes, lack of inhibition, loss of empathy, compulsive ritualised behaviours
108
What is semantic FTD? Symptoms?
atrophy of anterior temporal lobes bilaterally | - loss of grey matter (knife edge atrophy)
109
What is posterior cortical FTD? Symptoms?
atrophy of posterior parietal cortex | - blurred vision, light sensitivity, progressive inability to recognise faces, impaired reading + writing
110
What is 'knife edge' atrophy?
where the lower side of the brain loses grey matter causing sharp looking gyri
111
What are the two subcortical dementias and what causes them?
Huntington's disease Parkinson's disease caused by basal ganglia degeneration
112
What parts of the brain are affected in Huntington's disease?
Putamen and caudate
113
What parts of the brain are affected in Parkinson's disease?
Substantia nigra
114
How heritable is HD?
It is dominant to chromosome 4 | 50% chance of inheritance if one parent has it, 100% will develop if possess gene
115
What does HD cause?
Breakdown of Basal Ganglia's inhibitory pathway to thalamus and cortex, affecting motor, cognitive and emotional control
116
What are some of the first symptoms of HD? Around what age do they start appearing?
30-45 | restlessness, clumsiness, involuntary movements, cognitive/emotional changes
117
What does degeneration of the substantia nigra in PD cause?
deficit in dopamine making it hard to initiate movement
118
What medication can be given to patients with PD?
Levodopa - aimed at boosting dopamine levels
119
What are some of the symptoms of PD?
loss of spontaneous movement, slowness in movement, disturbed speech (bradykinesia), tremor when resting (hyperkinesia), muscular rigidity, involuntary movements (akinesia)
120
Can boxing cause brain damage?
Professional boxers can damage their brains long term by boxing - especially if they carry the APOE4 gene they are more vulnerable
121
What do some professional boxers do before a fight that can mean they damage their brain even more?
Dehydrate themselves in order to fit into a weight category meaning there is less fluid protecting their brain from hitting their skull = more brain damage
122
What are Pick bodies?
Clumps of Tau proteins inside cells (not outside as in AD)
123
What is Rivastigmine?
A drug used to treat AD and Parkinson's that is a cholinesterase inhibitor