BSS (Sem 4) Flashcards

(41 cards)

1
Q

Self regulatory model of illness

A

Aka common sense model
Starts with health threat which leads to a cognitive representation and emotional representation

Cognitive representation:
Identify
Cause
Timeline
Consequences
Curabilty

Emotional representation:
How it makes us feel

All leads to coping behaviors in which you two types:
Approach or problem solving
Avoidance/denial

This then leads to appraisal of behaviour to see if it helped with dealing with the health treat or not and once u appraise your behavior it loops back to the health threat if circumstances change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the health belief model

A

A model that suggests that the likelihood of someone adopting a behaviour depends on:

  • Perceived susceptibility
  • Perceived severity
  • Perceived costs
  • Perceived benefits
  • Cues to action
  • Health motivation
  • Perceived control
  • Self-efficacy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is quality of life

A

“It is a broad ranging concept affected in a complex way by a person’s physical health, psychological state, level of independence, social relationships and their relationship to salient features in their environment.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is health-related quality of life

A

The impact of disease or illness on key aspects of physical, social and psychological functioning

this is different to their QoL as that is a person’s general evaluation of their life and how to aligns to their values, goals and expectation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How can we measure QoL

A

Using Quality adjusted life year (QALY) which is a measure of the state of health of a person or group in which the benefits in terms of length of life, are adjusted to reflect the QoL

One QALY is equal to 1 year of life in perfect health

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How do you measure health status

A

Objective measure:
- Mortality rates
- Morbidity rates
- Measure of functioning (what extent can you do certain tasks)

Subjective measure:
- QoL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are patient reported outcome measure (PROMS)

A

Standardised, validated questionnaires that are completed by patients to ascertain:
* Perceptions of their health status
* Perceived level of impairment
* Disability
* Health-related quality of life

They are increasingly used in clinical setting to inform individual patient care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Benefits of using PROMS

A

Benefits of using PROMS in clinical practice:
* Promotes active patient involvement
* Provides patient-centred focus in consultations
* Facilitates tailored and holistic care which can improve QoL
* Enables standardised monitoring of patient outcomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Give me and example of 2 generic measure of QoL and 1 illness specific

A

Generic:
- Short form-36 (SF-36)
- Nottingham health profile

Illness specific:
- Arthritis impact measurement scale 2 (AIMS-2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Give an example of an individualised test for QoL

A
  • Schedule for Evaluating Individual Quality of Life (SEIQoL)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the definition of shared decision-making

A

Shared decision-making involves collaboration between patients (or their agents) and physicians, balancing medical expertise and patient preferences.

Studies show that patients and families generally prefer this model over strict autonomy or paternalism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the types of shared decision-making

A

Patient/Agent-Driven: Patients make decisions independently based on physician-provided information.

Physician Recommendation: Physicians make value-based recommendations aligned with the patient’s values.

Equal Partners: Decisions are mutual, requiring understanding and respect for each other’s perspectives.

Informed Nondissent: Physicians decide based on patient values; patients tacitly approve or veto.

Physician-Driven: Physicians independently make value-neutral decisions, involving patients whenever relevant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

the psychological theories of addiction

A
  • Classical Conditioning:
    Addiction-related stimuli (e.g., environments, people, paraphernalia) become associated with the effects of substance use.

These cues trigger cravings, even in the absence of the substance.

  • Operant Conditioning:
    Substance use is reinforced by positive effects (e.g., euphoria) or negative reinforcement (e.g., relief from stress or withdrawal symptoms).

Over time, the behavior becomes habitual as individuals seek to maximize rewards or minimize discomfort.

  • Social Learning:
    Learning actions from other people (younger people copying adults, or like copying shows that shows smoking looks cool (like in peaky blinders) and peer pressure also
  • Moral model: addiction as a result of weakness and lack of moral fibres
  • Biomedical model: addiction treated as a disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

4 stages of addiction

A

Initiation
Maintenance
Cessation
Relapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Stages of cessation

A

Just like transtheortical model of change

Precontemplation
contemplation
Preparation
Action
Maintenance

Can shift between the 5 stages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the purpose of the CAGE questionnaire?

A

To briefly screen for problematic alcohol use during general history taking.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does A in CAGE stand for

A

A – Annoyed
Question: Have people annoyed you by criticizing your drinking?
Follow-Up Questions:

Who has expressed concerns about your drinking?

How have these comments made you feel?
Additional Assessment:

Assess impact on relationships: “How has alcohol affected your relationships with family, friends, or colleagues?”

Explore the patient’s perspective on feedback: “Do you agree with their concerns?”

18
Q

What does C in CAGE stand for

A

C – Cut Down
Question: Have you ever felt you should cut down on your drinking?

Follow-Up Questions:

When did you first notice an increase in your alcohol intake?

Are there specific situations or triggers that lead you to drink more?
Additional Assessment:

Explore patterns of increased consumption: “How often do you drink, and at what times of the day?”

Quantify intake: “How much do you typically drink on an average day?”

19
Q

What does A in CAGE stand for

A

Question: Have you ever felt bad or guilty about your drinking?
Follow-Up Questions:

Can you recall specific incidents that made you feel this way?

Do you feel your drinking conflicts with your values or responsibilities?
Additional Assessment:

Investigate psychological dependence: “Do you feel a need to drink or experience negative emotions like guilt, anger, or anxiety when you don’t drink?”

Examine coping mechanisms: “Have you tried to address this guilt in any way?”

20
Q

What does E in CAGE stand for

A

Question: Have you ever had a drink first thing in the morning to steady your nerves or get rid of a hangover?
Follow-Up Questions:

How often do you feel the need for a morning drink?

What symptoms or feelings does the drink alleviate?
Additional Assessment:

Screen for biological dependence: “If you stop drinking, do you experience shakes, sweating, nausea, or other withdrawal symptoms?”

Evaluate support and attempts to stop: “Have you tried to quit drinking before, and what challenges did you face?”

21
Q

What does AUDIT questionnaire stand for and what do the scores mean

A

AUDIT (Alcohol use disorders identification test)

10 questions scored from 0 to 4

● 0 to 7 indicates low risk
● 8 to 15 indicates increasing risk
● 16 to 19 indicates higher risk,
● 20 or more indicates possible dependence

22
Q

How long does it take for a healthy liver to break down one unit of alcohol?

23
Q

What is the UK Chief Medical Officers’ advised maximum safe level of alcohol consumption per week for men? (link below)

A

14 units per week

You should also have 2-3 alcohol-free days per week

24
Q

Alcohol harm paradox

A

Men and women in living in the most deprived areas tend to drink less alcohol on average, but drinkers in those areas suffer a greater level of harm from alcohol- this is known as the alcohol harm paradox. Read more about the alcohol harm paradox on the Alcohol Change UK website [Resource link below]

25
What is the WHO SAFER alcohol control initiative
S - Strengthen restrictions on alcohol availability (e.g., limit sales hours, enforce age laws). A - Advance drink-driving countermeasures (e.g., BAC limits, sobriety checks). F - Facilitate access to screening and treatment for alcohol dependence. E - Enforce bans on alcohol advertising and promotion. R - Raise alcohol prices through taxes and pricing policies.
26
What is consent and what are the 3 requirements for it to be valid
For consent to be valid, it must be voluntary and informed, and the person consenting must have the capacity to make the decision. These terms are explained below: Voluntary - the decision to either consent or not to consent to treatment must be made by the person themselves, and must not be influenced by pressure from medical staff, friends or family. 'Freely given' is a common term here. Informed - the person must be given all of the information in terms of what the treatment involves, including the benefits and risks, whether there are reasonable alternative treatments, and what will happen if treatment doesn't go ahead (How much?) Capacity - the person must be capable of giving consent, which means they understand the information given to them and they can use it to make an informed decision (Mental Capacity Act, Gillick)
27
What are the 5 things we cannot consent to
- Assisted suicide - FMG (female genital mutilation) - Extreme self harm (even if consensual) - Healthy limb amputation to address body dysmorphia
28
Flashcard 1: Bolam Case (1957)
Facts: Patient suffered fractures during electroconvulsive therapy without muscle relaxants. Test: A doctor is not negligent if their actions align with a responsible body of medical professionals. Impact: Deference to medical opinion; protects doctors adhering to accepted practices.
29
Flashcard 2: Sidaway Case (1985)
Facts: Patient not informed of a 1-2% risk of spinal cord damage during surgery, which occurred. Ruling: Doctors are not negligent if their disclosure of risks aligns with a responsible medical body. Impact: Emphasized professional discretion in deciding what risks to disclose.
30
Flashcard 3: Bolitho Case (1997)
Facts: Doctor failed to attend a child with breathing difficulties but argued that even if they had, the treatment would not have changed. Ruling: Professional opinions must be logically defensible and evidence-based to avoid negligence. Impact: Prevents reliance on arbitrary or unsupported medical practices.
31
Flashcard 4: Montgomery v Lanarkshire (2015)
Key Principle: Shifts focus to patient-centered care in informed consent. Facts: Diabetic mother not informed of the 9-10% risk of shoulder dystocia during delivery; complications arose. Ruling: Doctors must inform patients of material risks and reasonable alternatives based on the patient’s perspective. Impact: Prioritizes patient autonomy; reduces deference to medical paternalism.
32
When can u break confidentiality
When required by law (e.g., reporting certain infectious diseases). To protect the patient or others from serious harm. When a court orders disclosure.
33
What are the 4 key ethical principles
Autonomy: Respecting a patient's right to make informed decisions about their care. Beneficence: Acting in the best interest of the patient. Non-maleficence: Avoiding harm to the patient. Justice: Ensuring fairness in medical decisions and distribution of resources.
34
when is doing an action based on "best interest" applicable
When Applicable: Best interests decisions are made when a patient lacks the capacity to make informed choices about their care.
35
36
Incidence & Prevalence of diabetes
Total Diagnosed Cases: Over 5 million people in the UK live with diabetes, with approximately 90% diagnosed with type 2 diabetes and around 8% with type 1 diabetes . Diabetes UK Undiagnosed Cases: An estimated 1.3 million individuals have type 2 diabetes but remain undiagnosed, and 6.3 million are at increased risk . Diabetes UK Trends: Between 2017–18 and 2021–22, the prevalence of type 1 diabetes in England rose from 248,240 to 270,935, while type 2 and other diabetes cases increased from 2,952,695 to 3,336,980
37
Sustain talk vs Change talk
Sustain talk definition: Verbalizations that express the desire to maintain the current behavior or resist change. Focus: Highlight reasons for not changing or potential downsides of change. Examples: "I don’t see why I need to quit smoking." "I’ve tried losing weight before, and it never worked." "Drinking helps me relax after work." Change talk definition: Statements indicating a desire, ability, reasons, or commitment to make a change. Focus: Highlight benefits of change, confidence in making a change, and specific steps toward it. Examples: "I want to feel healthier." "I think I could cut back on sugar if I tried." "My kids need me to be around longer."
38
Are there more transplants being done and more donors throughout the year
yes
39
Human Tissue Act 2004 (UK):
Originally based on an opt-in system. Amended to accommodate opt-out systems (e.g., Wales in 2013, England in 2019, Scotland in 2021). Allows family members to veto organ donation if the deceased wasn't an donor and in rare chances even if they were. Prohibits monetary payment for organ donation. Allows 12 yr old to make their own decisions
40
41
UN definition of refugee (1951 convention)
"A person who is outside his/her country of nationality or habitual residence; has a well-founded fear of persecution because of his/her race, religion, nationality, membership in a particular social group or political opinion; and is unable or unwilling to avail himself/herself of the protection of that country, or to return there, for fear of persecution."