Case 18 Flashcards

(44 cards)

1
Q

Explain the innervation of the bladder

A

The detrusor muscle that lines the bladder has stretch receptors that feed into sensory (afferent) pelvic splanchnic nerve, these neurons go into the S2, S3 and S4 spinal cord and go up into T11-L2. Once at T11-L2 the neurons synapse with the inferior mesenteric ganglion to give off the hypogastric nerve, this nerve releases noradrenaline to two places. The first is to the beta-3 adrenergic receptors on the detrusor muscle which causes relaxation and the second is on the alpha-1adrenergic receptor on the internal urethral sphincter which causes contraction.

There is also a efferent motor parasympathetic pelvic splanchnic nerve that innervates the detrusor muscle and arises from T11-L2, it can release Ach to M3 receptors on the detrusor muscle to make it contract

The pudendal nerve gives us somatic control of the external urethral sphincter and works by releasing Ach on nicotinic-1 receptors which causes it to contract aswell

Some of the impulses from the sensory afferent pelvic nerve from the stretch receptors go upwards all the way to the pons and cortex.

The pons has two centres, the pontine storage centre and the pontine micturition centre. The pontine storage centre (PSC), can stimulate the hypogastric nerve (T11-L2) and also the parasympathetic pelvic nerve (S2-S4) (pelvic splanchnic) and activates them to keep urine in. The pontine micturition centre (PMC) goes to the same nerves as the PSC but does the opposite which leads to urination.

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2
Q

Explain the innervation of the bladder whilst it’s empty

A

When you urinate the bladder keeps about 10-20ml of urine so that is it’s empty state

When the bladder is empty there is very minimal stretching of the detrusor muscle and the stretch receptors in it and so very little activation of sensory pelvic splanchnic nerve that goes into S2, S3 and S4 and then up to T11-L2. Little activity of the sensory pelvic nerve actually activates the hypogastric nerve once it reaches T11-L2 and synapses with the inferior mesenteric ganglion. Activation of the hypogastric nerve causes noradrenaline to be released to two places, first is the beta-3 adrenergic receptors on the detrusor muscle whuch causes it to relax, second is the alpha 1 adrenergic receptors on the internal urethral sphincter which causes it to contract, both of these actions promote holding in urine.

Whilst the bladder is empty the Pontine Storage Centre (PSC) is constantly active, it sends signals down to T11-L2 and activates the hypogastric nerve further to promote urine retention. It also goes to S2, 3 and 4 and inhibits the MOTOR (efferent) pelvic splanchnic nerve which stop the release of Ach to the M3 receptions of the detrusor muscle, inhibiting its contraction. Finally it also stimulates the pudendal nerve to send Ach to the nicotinic-1 receptors on the external urethral sphincter which causes contraction and further promotes urine retention (we have somatic/voluntary control over this action of the pudendal nerve)

All of these actions promote holding in your urine

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3
Q

Explain the innervation of the bladder whilst it’s full / (you need to urinate)

A

Once the bladder reaches 200ml you usually start getting the desire to use the bathroom, with the desire increasing as it gets more and more filled.

When the bladder starts getting full the stretch receptors in the detrusor muscle starts firing quickly, this sends signals down the sensory afferent pelvic splanchnic nerve, it enters S1, 2 and 3 but this time completely bypasses the thoracic lumbar area and goes straight to the Pons and cortex, this time it goes and activates the Pontine Micturition Centre (PMC) and the cortex inhibits the Pontine Storage Centre (PSC).

When the PMC gets activated it sends signals down and inhibits the hypogastric nerve at the T11-L2 level, this stops the release of noradrenaline to two places. Firstly it stops noradrenaline release to the alpha-1 adrenergic receptos on the internal urethral sphincter which causes it to relax and let urine through. Secondly it stops noradrenaline to the beta-3 adrenergic receptors of the detrusor muscle and stops the effect of it being relaxed. To contract the detrusor muscle the PMC sends signals down to S1,2 and 3 and activates the motor efferent pelvic splanchnic nerve, which was previously inhibited, this causes Ach to be released to the M3 receptors on the detrusor muscle and cause it to contract. Finally the only thing left in the way is to relax the external urethral sphincter (EUS), to do this the PMC sends signals down to S1,2 and 3 and inhibits the pudendal nerve which prevents Ach from being released to the nicotinic-1 receptors on the EUS which was previously keeping it contracted, the inhibition of the pudendal nerve causes the EUS to relax finally letting the urine bass out of the bladder and hopefully into a toilet bowl.

This response to a full bladder is called the micturition reflex.

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4
Q

What are the 3 most common sites for kidney obstructions

A
  • Ureteropevic (or Pelviureteric) Junction (UPJ)- which is from the renal pelvic to the start of the ureter
  • Pelvic brim - which is when the ureter crosses over the iliac vessels as it entered the pelvic cavity
  • Ureterovesical junction (UVJ) - which is the point where the ureter enters the bladder
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5
Q

What is the name for the pain experienced from kidney stones

A

Renal colic pain, which is a severe, sharp pain that comes and goes in waves and is usually felt in the side (flanks), lower back or groin. It can also radiate to the abdomen and testicles in men or labia in women

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6
Q

What happens when you get a urinary tract obstruction

A

Because you can expel the urine it will start to build up in the bladder. This causes bladder distention, and if the bladder gets too full it can cause retrograde flow of urine, this will cause urine to back up into the ureter and even potentially the kidney leading to an enlarged bladder, ureter and kidney (called hydronephrosis). Sometimes in severe hydronephrosis it can impede the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) and eventually cause a post renal AKI (acute kidney injury). This will lead to an increase in creatinine and BUN (blood urea nitrogen) and decrease in urine output.

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7
Q

List some types of stones

A
  • Calcium oxalate (75% of kidney stones)
  • Calcium phosphate
  • Struvite (common in chronic UTI)
  • Uric acid stones
  • Cystine stones
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8
Q

What investigation can you do to detect kidney stones

A
  • Urinalysis
  • Xray
  • Ultrasound
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9
Q

How can X-rays and Ultrasounds show kidney stones and other diseases

A
  • Stones composed of calcium or structure are typically visible on plain X-rays, other types of stones like uric acid and cystine stones can be spotted using contrast
  • For ultrasounds stones can appear as echogenic (bright) structures with a posterior acoustic shadowing (which is a dark area behind the stone due to sound wave reflection)
  • Ultrasounds can also identify hydronephrosis as the kidney appears to be dilated on ultrasounds
  • Ultrasounds can also be used to identify bladder distension aswell
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10
Q

What is Intravenous Urogram/Pyelogram

A

It is when a radiopaque contrast due (iodine-based) is injected intravenously, the dye gets diluted by the kidneys and excreted into the urine which highlights urinary tract structures and can be used to check for obstructions, stones or tumors.

CT Urography is also similar but uses a CT scan and is more sensitive than IVU for detecting small stones, tumors or subtle obstructions.

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11
Q

Why are females more likely to get UTIs than men

A

Women are more prone to UTIs because they have a shorter urethra which is about 4cm compared to a male’s urethra which is on average 20cm.

A shorter urethra means that bacteria have to travel a shorter distance to reach the bladder making women more prone to UTIs.

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12
Q

Where is the prostate gland located and what is its function

A

The prostate gland id a walnut-sized gland located behind the base of the penis, in front of the rectum and below the bladder, it surrounds the urethra.

It’s primary function is to produce seminal fluid, which is the fluid in the semen that protects, supports and helps transport sperm

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13
Q

What are the risk factors for prostate cancer (and what is the biggest one)

A

Biggest risk factor is Age
then u have:
Race
Family history
Ethnicity
Genetics
Diet, Exercise and Obesity

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14
Q

How common is prostate cancer in the UK

A

1 in 8 men in the UK are diagnosed with prostate cancer

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15
Q

Symptoms of Prostate cancer

A
  • Local (Lower urinary tract symptoms [LUTS]):
    Obstructive
    Irritative
  • Metastatic:
    Pain etc (can spread to bone)
  • Systemic:
    Fatigue, weight loss
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16
Q

How to diagnose prostate cancer

A
  • First u take a history
    Then:
  • Digital rectal exam (DRE)
  • Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) blood test (usually you want to do PSA test first then DRE cause moving the prostate can lead to PSA to be released)
  • Multi-parametric MRI scan (more detailed MRI)
  • Biopsy
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17
Q

What can increase and decrease PSA

A

Increase:
- Benign prostatic hypertrophy
- Age
- Prostatitis
- Ejaculation
- DRE

Decrease:
- Drugs such as Finasteride/Dutasteride
- Obesity
- Herbal preparations

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18
Q

What is the main Biopsy done to check for prostate cancer and what are the side effects

A

the biopsy done is called a Transperineal template prostate biopsy and it involves first giving a local or general anaesthetic then take tissue samples from the prostate gland through the perineum (the skin between the scrotum and the anus)

Side effects include:
- Bleeding
- Infection
- Urinary obstruction (because of prostate swelling after puncturing)

You can also do a transrectal ultrasound biopsy which goes through the rectum (transperineal = through perineal)
(transrectal = through rectum)

19
Q

Why are prostate biopsies done

A

To know:
- Type of tumor (vast majority is a adenocarcinoma [A cancer that affects glandular tissue and is cancerous])
- Grade of tumor
- Percentage of tumor found
- T stage of cancer

20
Q

what is the scoring used for prostate tumor grading

A
  • Gleason Score
  • Grading system used to define aggressiveness
  • Score is out of 5 and 3-5 is considered cancerous
  • Gleason score consists of two X/5 scores added together so the least aggressive cancer of the prostate is (3+3=6) and the most aggressive is (5+5=10)
  • Based on the gleason score a grade group is given.
    Grade group 1 = 3+3 = 6
    Grade group 2 = 3+4 = 7
    Grade group 3 = 4+3 = 7
    Grade group 4 = 4+4 = 8
    Grade group 5 = 5+5 = 10
21
Q

Explain what T1 and their respective a, b and c mean

A

This is the TNM Staging system: T refers to the tumor

T can go from 1-4 and have a, b and c

T1: Tumor is not palpable or visible on imaging

T1a: Tumor is ≤5% of tissue removed during surgery for benign conditions (like TURP).

T1b: Tumor is >5% of tissue removed during surgery for benign conditions (like TURP).

T1c: Tumor identified via needle biopsy, typically due to elevated PSA.

22
Q

Explain what T2 and their respective a, b and c mean

A

T2: Tumor is confined within the prostate

T2a: Tumor involves ≤half of one lobe of the prostate.

T2b: Tumor involves >half of one lobe but not both lobes.

T2c: Tumor involves both lobes of the prostate.

23
Q

Explain what T3 and their respective a and b means

A

T3: Tumor extends beyond the prostate

T3a: Tumor extends through the prostate capsule (extracapsular extension) but does not invade nearby structures.

T3b: Tumor invades the seminal vesicles

24
Q

Explain what T4 means

A

T4: Tumor invades nearby structures
The tumor has spread to adjacent tissues beyond the seminal vesicles, such as:
- Bladder neck
- Rectum
- Pelvic wall
- External sphincter

25
Explain the values of PSA and what they mean
PSA <10 is normal/low risk PSA 10-20 is intermediate risk PSA >20 is high risk
26
What is the NHS Cancer Plan
Plan published in February 2010 and states that: "the care of all patients with cancer should be formally reviewed by a specialist team"
27
What are the treatment for Low/Intermediate risk disease of prostate cancer and what factors do they depend on
- Radical Prostatectomy (entire prostate cancer and sometimes surrounding tissue is removed) - External Beam Radiotherapy - Brachytherapy - Active surveillance Treatment depends on factors such as: - Tumor factors (PSA, stage, grade) - Patient factors (Age, LUTS, sexual function, choice, family or friends experience, media) - Pathway factors (who they met and what they've been told [Urologists, nurses, support groups etc.])
28
What is Active Surveillance
Its identifying a cancer but saying to the man "Hey you got cancer but it may never cause you any problem" and it involves: - Regular monitoring - PSA tests every 3 months for a year - DRE every 6 months (they should) - Multiparametric MRI (after 12 months) - Biopsy
29
What is Brachytherapy
Brachytherapy involves implanting a radioactive source into the prostate or tumor and can be either low or high dose rate: Low dose rate is usually for lower risk prostate cancers and involves putting in radioactive seeds into the prostate and leaving them there. High dose rate is performed for intermediate or high risk prostate cancers and involves putting in a high dose into the prostate for a second then removing it. It can either be used by itself as a monotherapy or in combination with EBRT (External Beam Radiation Therapy)
30
What is External beam radiotherapy
It is an outpatient treatment meaning patients come in, get treatment, and leave on the same day. It involves shooting high radiation beams at the prostate, usually needs 5 to 23 sessions, no anesthesia, no catheter and is often in combination with androgen deprivation therapy (ADT), also known as hormone therapy
31
What is the surgery to remove of the prostate called
Robotic assisted laparoscopic prostatectomy
32
What is androgen deprivation therapy (ADT) and why is it used
Majority of prostate cancer will hormone-sensitive prostate cancer that feeds off testosterone and so ADT aims to reduce testosterone in two ways: - Reduce the level of androgens - Block the androgens from binding
33
What are the two most common way ADT is done
Reducing the level of testosterone by giving Gonadotrophin release hormone agonists (GnRHa) and Luteinising hormone releasing hormone agonists (LHRHa) Agonists are given because they stimulate the anterior pituitary to produce LH, LH stimulates the testicles to produce testosterone, chronic exposure of LHRH leads to desensitisation and so less LH naturally produced and so less testosterone produced. The agonists may cause testosterone to flare up initially so you need to give an androgen blocker You can also give GnRH/LHRH antagonists if you really don't want a flare up of testosterone but there is only one brand that does this and its expensive (Degarelix) OR You give Androgen blockers to prevent androgens from binding
34
List some Luteinising hormone releasing hormone (LHRH) agonists
Zoladex Prostap Decapeptyl
35
List some Androgen blockers
- Bicalutamide - Cyproterone Acetate
36
What are the ADT side effects
37
What is Metastatic prostate cancer and is it curable
Metastatic prostate cancer is when the disease has spread outside the prostate, it is not curable. The aim of treatment is disease control and the medial survival is 5 years. Cancer is hormone sensitive so ADT is the backbone of treatment.
38
What is Enzalutamide and how does it work
It is a clever Anti-androgen medication that goes into the cell and inhibits binding of androgens in the cell and prevents cell growth
39
What is castrate resistant metastatic prostate cancer
It is an advanced prostate cancer where the cancer has spread beyond the prostate and is no longer responsive to traditional androgen-deprivation therapy (ADT), even with very low testosterone levels. Usually occurs 12-18 months post ADT initiation and can either occur because of androgen receptor amplification or androgen receptor mutation. Median survival is 3 years
40
What is Ra 233 and how does it help with bone cancer
Ra 223 mimics calcium and so is picked up by the bones, it then release alpha particles that travel within the bone and damages the DNA of the cancer cells. It doesn't travel very far so its doesnt really have a systemic effect, which is good.
41
Which zone of the prostate is most commonly affected by cancer?
The peripheral zone.
42
Which zone of the prostate is most commonly affected by benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?
The transitional zone.
43
What zone surrounds the ejaculatory ducts
Central zone
44
Fibromuscular stroma has no glandular tissue: TRUE or FALSE
True