Butler Flashcards
(116 cards)
1
Q
To increase contrast levels you must:
Double the mAs and reduce the kV by 15%
Half the mAs and increase the kV by 15%
Double the kV and reduce the mAs by 15%
Half the kV and increase the mAs by 15%
A
Double the mAs and reduce the kV by 15%
2
Q
What is an alternative method if you don’t have a grid to not lose contrast?
Increase your object to film distance
Increase your film to focus distance
Decrease your object to film distance
Decrease your film to focus distance.
A
Increase your object to film distance
3
Q
As from which object width you need to use a grid?
15 cm
20 cm
11 cm
7 cm
A
11 cm
4
Q
Intra-articular gas can remain present radiographically until when?
24 hours
36 hours
48 hours
72 hours
A
48 hours
5
Q
How fast can osteophytes become present?
1 week
2-3 weeks
3-4 weeks
6 weeks
A
2-3 weeks
6
Q
How much decrease of mineralisation is needed before it becomes evident radiographically?
More than 35%
More than 30%
More than 25%
More than 15%
A
More than 30%
7
Q
A normal mineral content of an adult horse is;
35% mineral and 65% matrix and cells
65% mineral and 35% matrix and cells
45% mineral and 55% matrix and cells
55% mineral and 45% matrix and cells
A
65% mineral and 35% matrix and cells
8
Q
Osteopetrosis can not be caused by the following disease:
Hypervitaminosis A
Fluorine poisoning
Pulmonary silicosis
Maries disease
A
Maries disease
9
Q
What is the most commonly affected physis in the horse resulting in physitis?
Distal radius and distal metacarpal/metatarsal
Distal radius and distal tibia
Distal phalanges and distal metacarpal/metatarsal
Distal tibia and distal phalanges
A
Distal radius and distal metacarpal/metatarsal
10
Q
Common location for enostosis like lesions are;
Tibia
Radius
Humerus
Femur
A
Femur
11
Q
In which case is the dorsolateralpalmaromedial flexed 45 degree view used in a foot radiograph and in which case the 60 degree?
45: focus on the distal interphalangeal joint, 60: focus on the pastern joint
45: focus on the palmar processes, 60: focus on the distal interphalangeal joint
45: focus on the navicular bone, 60: focus on distal phalanx
45: focus on the palmar processes, 60: focus on osteophytes/enthesophytes
A
45: focus on the palmar processes, 60: focus on the distal interphalangeal joint
12
Q
In which case it is usefull to obtain the lateral45proximal-mediodistal oblique image?
To skyline the palmar processes
To skyline the articular margins of the distal interphalangeal joint
To obliquely skyline the navicular bone
To skyline the solar margin
A
To skyline the palmar processes
13
Q
How long does it take for the distal phalanx to completely ossify, model and enlarge?
12 months
18 months
2 years
3 years
A
18 months
14
Q
A fragment seen at the dorsoproximal aspect of the extensor processs can not be;
Dystrophic mineralisation of the common digital extensor tendon
Separate centre of ossification
Fracture
OCD lesion
A
OCD lesion
15
Q
Which radiographic signs are not associated with pedal osteitis complex?
Irregular outline and elongation of the palmar processes
Radiolucent zones in the dorsal aspect of the solar margin
Clear remodelling of the solar margin of the distal phalanx
Osseous cyst like lesions of the palmar processes
A
Clear remodelling of the solar margin of the distal phalanx
16
Q
What indicates new bone formation at the middle portion of the dorsal compact bone of the distal phalanx?
Abnormal stress on the flexor tendons
Abnormal stress on the suspensory apparatus
Laminitis
Long toe, low-heel syndrome
A
Abnormal stress on the suspensory apparatus
17
Q
Which of the following osseous cyst like lesions of the distal phalanx are sometimes incidentally found and/or clinically less important?
Osseous cyst like lesions at or palmar to the collateral fossa of the distal phalanx
Subchondral bone cysts in the midline of the distal phalanx
Cysts located in the lateral or medial border of the distal interphalangeal joint/distal phalanx
Cystic lesions in the distal aspect of the solar margin
A
Cysts located in the lateral or medial border of the distal interphalangeal joint/distal phalanx
18
Q
Extensive ossification of the ungular cartilages is often associated with?
Enthesophytes of the latero- and mediodistal aspect of the proximal phalanx
Osteophytes of the articular margin of the distal phalanx
Bone trauma of the distal phalanx
Poor demarcation of the compact and spongy bone within the cartilages
All of the above
A
All of the above
19
Q
An articular mid sagittal fracture of the distal phalanx is categorized as a type;
Type 1
Type 3
Type 4
Type 5
A
Type 3
20
Q
A grade 3 ossification of the collateral cartilages is characterized by;
Ossification up to the level of the lateral or medial margins of the DIPJ
Ossification up to the level of the mid sagittal aspect of the DIPJ
Ossification up to the level of the most proximal aspect of the navicular bone
Ossification up to the level of the midpoint of the middle phalanx
A
Ossification up to the level of the most proximal aspect of the navicular bone
21
Q
Which palmar process is most of the times affected in race horses in Australia?
Left lateral
Left medial
Right lateral
Right medial
All equally
A
Left lateral, Right medial
22
Q
What is the reference value for horses with laminatis for the thickeness of the dorsal hoof wall and the ratio to the palmar length of the distal phalanx?
>20 mm, 28%
> 25 mm, 27%
<20 mm, 27%
<25 mm, 28%
A
>20 mm, 28%
23
Q
What represent a radiolucent line in between the distal phalanx and the dorsal hoof wall or sole?
Keratoma
Necrotic laminar tissue
Serum collected between the dermal and epidermal laminae due to inflammation
Hoof abscess
A
Necrotic laminar tissue
Serum collected between the dermal and epidermal laminae due to inflammation
24
Q
In case a laminitic horse has a distal phalanx, which sinks, which aspect goes first?
Medial
Lateral
Dorsal
palmar
A
Medial
25
Which of the following below can not be found in horses with laminated performing a venogram?
Altered position of the distal dorsal aspect of the distal phalanx relative to the circumflex vein
Distribution of contrast medium into abnormal sublamellar tissues
Distortion of the circumflex vessel dorsally because of inward growth of solear horn
Increased flow and widening of the vessels of the coronary plexus
Increased flow and widening of the vessels of the coronary plexus
26
What is abnormal in the below image?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. nothing
d. nothing
27
Up to how many lucent zone may be present at the distal border of the navicular bone to still be considered normal?
5
7
9
No number accounted for
7
28
When does the proximal physis of the proximal and middle phalanx close?
Both at one year of age
Both in between 8-12 months
Proximal phalanx; 1 year, middle phalanx 8-12 months
Proximal phalanx; 8-12 months, middle phalanx; 1 year
Proximal phalanx; 1 year, middle phalanx 8-12 months
29
In older and larger horses there is often remodelling of the palmar aspect of the proximal phalanx. What is the cause for this?
Enthesopathy of the oblique sesamoid bones
A superimposition of the horizontal distal or proximal row of nutrient foramen
Insertion of the proximal digital annular ligament
Osteophyte formation of the pastern joint
Enthesopathy of the oblique sesamoid bones
30
In larger horses there is often remodelling of the dorsal mid body of the middle phalanx. What is the cause of this?
Capsule enthesopathy of the proximal interphalangeal joint
Osteophyte formation of the proximal interphalangeal joint
Enthesopathy of the collateral ligaments of the proximal interphalangeal joint
Enthesopathy of the abaxial palmar ligaments of the proximal interphalangeal joint
Enthesopathy of the collateral ligaments of the proximal interphalangeal joint
31
What may not be an incidental radiographic finding?
Oblique sesamoid ligament mineralisation/fracture/fabellae
Dorsal chip of the fetlock joint
Birkeland fragment (intra vs. extra articular)
Spur formation of the middle phalanx pointing distally
Dorsal chip of the fetlock joint
32
What may not be an incidental radiographic finding?
Radiolucent depression between the condyles of the proximal phalanx distally
Spur formation dorsally of the proximal interphalangeal joint
Subluxation of the proximal interphalangeal joint
Radiolucent depression eccentrically located in the proximal or middle phalanx distally
Radiolucent depression eccentrically located in the proximal or middle phalanx distally
33
What can cause a subluxation of the proximal interphalangeal joint?
Injury of the straight sesamoid ligament
Injury of the palmar ligaments
Very poor foot balance (club foot)
Constant contractility of the flexor muscle groups
All of the above
All of the above
34
What is a less guarded prognosis compared to others?
OCLL seen in horses of 6 months of age in the distal condyle of the proximal phalanx
Multiple smaller OCCL seen in young horses, front limb worse than hindlimb
Eccentric middle and proximal phalanx OCLL in the subchondral bone
All of them are equally poor
OCLL seen in horses of 6 months of age in the distal condyle of the proximal phalanx
35
Proximal P1 subchondral bone lesions are associated with;
Repetitive trauma
Acute cartilage damaging traumatic event
Vertical development of affected subchondral bone
Horizontal development of affected subchondral bone
Repetitive trauma
Vertical development of affected subchondral bone
36
Distal P1 subchondral bone lesions are associated with;
Repetitive trauma
Acute cartilage damaging traumatic event
Vertical development of affected subchondral bone
Horizontal development of affected subchondral bone
Acute cartilage damaging traumatic event
Horizontal development of affected subchondral bone
37
A normal DP view of the fetlock is differently taken for a front limb and a hind limb, what is the difference??
DP front limbs: 10 degree angle, DP hind limbs: 15 degree angle
DP hind limbs: 10 degree angle, DP front limbs: 15 degree angle
DP front limbs: 15 degree angle, DP hind limbs: 20 degree angle
There is no difference, it is depanding on the position of the legs.
DP front limbs: 10 degree angle, DP hind limbs: 15 degree angle
38
The dorsal 45 proximal 45 lateral-palmar distal medial oblique view of the fetlock is used to visualise:
Lateral condyle of the metacarpus/tarsus
Medial condyle of the metacarpus/tarsus
Lateral palmar/plantar process of the proximal phalanx.
Medial palmar/plantar prociess of the proximal phalanx.
Lateral condyle of the metacarpus/tarsus
39
When evaluating a vertical condylar fracture of the third metacarpus or metatarsus or stress related bone injury of its palmar aspect is best visulised in which view?
Flexed DP view with 0 degree angle
Normal DP vieuw with 10 degree angle proximodistally
Flexed DP view with 10 degree angle distoproximally
Extendend DP view with 15 degree angle distoproximally
Extendend DP view with 15 degree angle distoproximally
40
The subchondral bone plate of the proximal phalanx and the corresponding condyles of the third metacarpus are sometimes different medially and laterally, what is true? (3X)
The medial condyle of MCIII is wider
The lateral condyle of MCIII is wider
The lateral aspect of the subchondral bone plate of P1 thicker
The medial aspect of the subchondral bone plate of P1 is thicker
This is also seen in the hind limbs
The medial condyle of MCIII is wider
The lateral aspect of the subchondral bone plate of P1 thicker
This is also seen in the hind limbs
41
What is gas artefact sometimes seen in the fetlock joint?
A sign of vacuum phenonomon (OA)
Overflexion of the joint during imaging
Due to injection of the fetlock joint
All of the above
Overflexion of the joint during imaging
42
Which of the below decriptions/findings are not used in a familiar grading scheme for proximal sesamoid bones?
Presence or absence of vascular channels
The width of the vascular channels
The divergence of the vascular channels
The presence of entheseoous new bone
Elongation of the bone itself
Abaxial radiolucent areas
The presence of entheseoous new bone
Elongation of the bone itself
Abaxial radiolucent areas
43
Which of the following ligaments does not insert on the proximal sesamoid bones?
Suspensory ligament
Axial and abaxial palmar ligaments
Palmar annular ligament
Sesamoid ligaments
Axial and abaxial palmar ligaments
44
Periarticular dystrophic mineralisation at the dorsal aspect of the fetlock joint is often seen in association with?
Degenerative joint disease
Chronic infection
Capsulitis
Chronic tendinitis of the common digital extensor tendon
Chronic infection
45
Which side of the fetlock joint is commenly first affected by degenerative joint disease?
Dorsolateral
Dorsomedial
Palmar/plantarlateral
Palmar/plantarmedial
Dorsomedial
46
Which risk factors are associated with dorsal fragments of the proximal aspect of the proximal phalanx and lameness in warmbloods?
Age above 7 years
More than one fragment
Evidence of movement of the fragment
Associated cartilage and synovitis seen arthoscopically
Age above 7 years
More than one fragment
47
Which of the below statements are true?
Birkenlund fractures are more often seen medially
Birkenlund fractures are more often seen laterally
Ununited palmar/plantar processes are more often seen medially
Ununited palmar/plantar processes are more often seen laterally
Birkenlund fractures are more often seen medially
Ununited palmar/plantar processes are more often seen laterally
48
Which breed and which lesion is often associated with remodelling or radiolucent areas of the axial aspect of the proximal sesamoid bone (more often seen in hind limbs)?
Friesian horses and desmitis of the intersesamoidean ligament
Thoroughbred horses and desmitis of the cruciate intersesamoidean ligaments
Cob horses and desmitis of the intersesamoideal ligaments
Warmbloods and desmitis of the cruciate intersesamoidean ligaments
Friesian horses and desmitis of the intersesamoidean ligament
49
Which view is best obtained imaging the palmar/plantar aspect of the cortex of the metacarpus/metatarsus?
Lateromedial
Lateral 15 degree palmar/plantar dorsomedial oblique and the medial one
DP
Lateral 30 degree palmar/plantar dorsomedial oblique and the medial one
Lateral 15 degree palmar/plantar dorsomedial oblique and the medial one
50
For which diagnosis would a flexed view of the metacarpus/tarsus be helpful?
Avulsion fragments of the suspensory branch
Fatique stress fractures
Visualising the abaxial aspect of the proximal sesamoid bones
None of the above
Avulsion fragments of the suspensory branch
51
Which of the below findings is often associated with ill-defined lucent zone in the base of the second metacarpal bone?
Mineralisation of the interosseous ligament
Presence of the first carpal bone
Narrowing of the interosseous space of the third and second metacarpal bone
Osteoartritis of the carpometacarpal joint
Presence of the first carpal bone
52
Splints (syndesmopathy) usually develop within:
Second and third metacarpal bone
Fourth and third metacarpal bone
Second and third metatarsal bone
Fourth and third metatarcal bone
Second and third metacarpal bone
Second and third metatarsal bone
53
What do we mean by the involcrum?
Central opaque piece of bone
The lucent zone surrounding this piece of bone
The radiopaque rim surrounding the process
The complete abnormality caused by a osteomyolitis and sequestrum formation
The radiopaque rim surrounding the process
54
Which structure is causing exostosis formation at the palmar/plantar middle to distal one third of the third metacarpal/tarsal bone?
The joint capsule of the fetlock joint
The cruciate sesamoidean ligaments
The intersesamoidean ligament
Metacarpointersesamoidean ligament
The intersesamoidean ligament
55
Above which age does a foal need to be for surgical fixation of the physis in a Salter Harris fracture type 2 of the distal physis of the metacarpus?
16 weeks
6 months
3 months
8 weeks
8 weeks
56
A lateral condylar fracture (most commenly seen) is often complete if it extends… cm proximally
5-8cm
7. 5
3. 5
8
7.5
57
The closure distal physis of the radius and the ossification of the carpal bones happens respectively at which age?
18 months and 12 months
20 months and 18 months
18 months and 24 months
24 months and 18 months
20 months and 18 months
58
What inserts on the transverse ridge of the radius and what on the longitudinal ridge?
Collateral ligaments of the carpus and accessory ligament of the superficial digital flexor tendon
Accessory ligament of the superficial digital flexor tendon and collateral ligament of the carpus
Collateral ligaments of the carpus and accessory ligament of the deep digital flexor tendon
Accessory ligament of the lateral digital extensor tendon and accessory ligament of the deep digital flexor tendon
Collateral ligaments of the carpus and accessory ligament of the superficial digital flexor tendon
59
In how many percent of the cases is the ulnar bone vestigial and ossified?
20%
35%
40%
45%
35%
60
Where are synoviocoeles often seen?
Dorsolateral or dorsomedial
Palmarolateral or palmaromedial
Antebrachialcarpal joint
Middle carpal joint
Dorsolateral or dorsomedial
61
The antebrachiocarpal, middle carpal and carpometacarpal joint are most commently affected in respectively:
Sport horses, race horses, older horses
Race horses, older horses, sport horses
Older horses, sport horses, race horses
Sport horses, older horses, race horses
Sport horses, race horses, older horses
62
Which of the four below mentioned centres of ossification of the scapula are not completely ossified at birth?
Scapular cartridge
Body of the scapula
Supraglenoid tubercle
Cranial glenoid cavity
Supraglenoid tubercle
Cranial glenoid cavity
63
When does the physis of the supraglenoid tubercle close?
5 months
12 months
12-18 months
12-24 months
Kusje
12-24 months
64
When do the separate centres of ossification of the proximal humeral epiphysis merge?
3-4 months
6-8 months
12-18 months
24-36 months
3-4 months
65
What is not associated with mineralisations of the biceps tendon?
Fracture of the supraglenoid tubercle
Degenerative joint disease
Tendinitis of the biceps brachii
Osteochondrosis
Osteochondrosis
66
Defect in the cortical bone of the tubercles is seen in the skyline view. Which is of the humeral tubercles is most often affected?
Greater tubercle
Lesser tubercle
Intermediate tubercle
All evenly affected
Intermediate tubercle
67
How many ossifications centres has the distal humerus?
1
2
3
4
3
68
When does the physis of the ulna close?
10-12 months
11-24 months
24-36 months
22-42 months
24-36 months
69
Which aspect of the head of the radius is wider than the other side
Medial compared to lateral
Lateral compared to medial
Caudal compared to cranial
Cranial compared to caudal
Medial compared to lateral
70
There is a separate centre of ossification for the lateral malleus, this represents the… and fuses at … of age.
Distal epiphysis of the fibula, 6 months
Distal epiphysis of the fibula, 3 months
Distal epiphysis of the tibia, 6 months
Distal epiphysis of the tibia, 3 months
Distal epiphysis of the fibula, 3 months
71
Of which bone might the plantar aspect NOT be remodelled because of previous tearing of the plantar ligament?
Second and fourth metatarsal bone
Fourth tarsal bone
First and second tarsal bone
Calcaneus
First and second tarsal bone
72
In Dutch warmbloods OCD lesion are often persistent at which age?
3 months
5 months
7 months
18 months
5 months
73
Fragmentation of the proximal tubercle of the talus is NOT associated with avulsion of the attachment of
Short medial collateral ligament
Long medial collateral ligament
Medial talocalaneal ligament
Tarsal plantar ligament
Long medial collateral ligament
74
In which bone are OCLL rarely seen in the tarsus?
Talus
Third metatarsus
Tibia
Central tarsal bone
Third metatarsus
75
OCCL lesion are often seen in combination with the following disease, select the right combination
Medial malleolus – osteochondrosis
Central tarsal bone – osteochondrosis
Lateral trochlea of the talus – degenerative joint disease
Distal aspect of the tibia – degenerative joint disease
Medial malleolus – osteochondrosis
76
From the notch of the junction in between the medial trochlear ridge and the medial condyle there is a radiopaque line extending caudoproximally. This represents:
Extensor fossa
Intercondylar fossa
Distal physis
Intertrochlear groove
Extensor fossa
77
In a normal radiograph there is flattening of the medial and lateral trochlear ridge, where is it considered normal?
Flattened area medial trochlea: junction metaphysis and femur
Flattened area lateral trochlea: junction with condyle
Flattened area lateral trochlea: junction metaphysis and femur
Flattened area medial trochlea: junction with condyle
Flattened area medial trochlea: junction metaphysis and femur
Flattened area lateral trochlea: junction with condyle
78
What is shown in the below radiograph?
OC lesion of the intertrochlear groove
OC lesion of the lateral trochlear ridge
OC lesion of the medial trochlear ridge
Abnormal positioning of the radiograph and therefore artefact of the lateral trochlear ridge
Abnormal positioning of the radiograph and therefore artefact of the lateral trochlear ridge
79
In which area of the stifle do we most often see OCLL? And what is there cause?
Medial femoral condyle, OC
Lateral femoral condyle, trauma
Medial femoral condyle, trauma and OC
Lateral femoral condyle, OC
Medial femoral condyle, trauma and OC
80
Which site of the insertion of the cruciate ligaments is most often affected?
Distal insertion cranial cruciate
Distal insertion caudal cruciate
Proximal insertion cranial cruciate
Proximal insertion caudal cruciate
Distal insertion cranial cruciate
81
Meniscal tears can’t be associated with:
Necrosis of the femoral condyles
OCCL of the medial femoral condyle
OCCL of the proximal tibia (distal to intercondylar eminence)
Collateral ligament injury
OCCL of the proximal tibia (distal to intercondylar eminence)
82
Most common fractures of the tibia in Standardbreds are:
Mid-diaphyseal
Proximolateral aspect
Proximocaudal aspect
Distal metaphyseal
Mid-diaphyseal
83
Which bones are considered to be form the spheno-occipital suture?
Postsphenoid bone and basilar part of the occipital bone
Basioccipital bone and basissphenoid bone
Presphenoid bone and lateral occipital bone
Squamous part of the occipital bone and basisphenoid bone
Postsphenoid bone and basilar part of the occipital bone
Basioccipital bone and basissphenoid bone
84
When does the frontanelle close in a foal?
2-3 months
3-4 months
4-5 months
5-6 months
3-4 months
85
The nuchal ligament inserts:
Nuchal crest
External sagittal crest
External occipital protuberances
Tentorial process
External occipital protuberances
86
What is true about a maxillary sinus cyst and a maxillary cyst?
A maxillary sinus cyst often involves tooth roots
A maxillary cyst is often seen in young horses
Both cyst can not cause bony distortion
Only a maxillary cyst may be multiloculated
A maxillary cyst is often seen in young horses
87
For visualization of the interdental spaces of the caudal maxillary cheek teeth in a oblique view, what should be changed?
10-15 degree caudal rotation
10-15 degree rostral rotation
Open mouth technique with a 10 degree angle
Open mouth technique with a 15 degree angle
10-15 degree caudal rotation
88
Periodontal disease is most commonly found in;
Mandibular cheek teeth
Maxillary cheek teeth
Incisors
Cheek teeth
Maxillary cheek teeth
89
Which view is best for accessing diastema?
Lateral oblique
Open mouth
DV or VD
Lateral
Open mouth
90
When is the corrected mean/minimal sagittal diameter used and why?
In Thoroughbreds from 3-7 months for cervical malformation
In Thoroughbreds from 5-10 months for ataxia
In Warmbloods from 5-10 months for ataxia
In Warmblood from 3-7 months from cervical malformation
In Thoroughbreds from 3-7 months for cervical malformation
91
When and how do the physes of the vertebral bodies close? !!!!!!!
cranial physes close dorsally first at 2 years of age, caudal physes close ventrally at 4-5 years of age.
cranial physes close ventrally first at 2 years of age, caudal physes close dorsally at 4-5 years of age.
cranial physes close ventrally first at 4 years of age, caudal physes close dorsally at 2 years of age.
cranial physes close dorsally first at 4 years of age, caudal physes close ventrally at 2 years of age.
cranial physes close ventrally first at 2 years of age, caudal physes close dorsally at 4-5 years of age.
92
See image below, which transverse process is projected ventrally when the image is taken obliquely lateralventral-laterodorsal oblique from left to right?
left
right
right
93
What is the Rooney type II lesion within the articular process joints
Occipito-atlanto-axial malformation
Malalignment of C2-C3
Medial enlargement/modelling of the articular process joints of C4 and/or C5
Occipito-atlanto-axial malformation
Medial enlargement/modelling of the articular process joints of C4 and/or C5
94
Small lucent zones in the region of the articular process joints represent:
Epidural synovial cysts
Deep pits in the vertebral pedicles
Asymmetric dysplastic articular process joint
None of the above
Deep pits in the vertebral pedicles
95
How many lumbar and sacral vertebral bodies are normally present in a donkey?
6 lumbar, 5 sacral
5 lumbar, 6 sacral
5 lumbar, 4-6 sacral
6 lumbar, 4-6 sacral
5 lumbar, 4-6 sacral
96
Which spinous process is the supposed to be the highest point of the withers?
T5
T6
T7
T8
T7
97
From which spinous process on does the supraspinous ligament insert?
T9-T10
T10-T11
T11-T12
T12-T13
T10-T11
98
Which bone can cause superimposition of the articular process joints mimicking the normal anatomy of the process?
Mammillary process
Transverse process
Spinous process
The rib
Mammillary process
99
Which fracture of the vertebral body may not be associated with osteoarthritis of the articular process joint in Thoroughbreds?
Articular process joint
Spinous process
Dorsal lamina
Rib
Spinous process
100
Which physis involving the coxofemoral joint is less consistent in its closure time and most likely closes around two year?
Trochanter major
Physis of the head of the femur
Trochanter minor
Physis of the acetabulum
Trochanter minor
101
Which ligament/muscle is inserting at the tubercle of the pubis?
Acetabular ligament
Ligamentum of the head of the femur
Psoas minor muscle
Rectus femoris muscle
Ligamentum of the head of the femur
102
If the horse is non-weight bearing and you want to obtain a correct lateral dorsal lateral ventral oblique, how do you reposition your camera from the standard orientation?
5-10 degrees more ventral angulation
5-10 degrees more dorsal angulation
15 degrees less ventral angulation
15 degrees less dorsal angulation
5-10 degrees more ventral angulation
103
How can subluxation be best visualised in a radiograph?
Ventrodorsal under GA view legs extended
Ventrodorsal view under GA leg flexed and abducted laterally
Ventrodorsal oblique view standing with affected leg extended caudally
Ventrodorsal oblique view standing with affected leg abducted laterally
Ventrodorsal under GA view legs extended
104
What are the best settings for your x-ray machine taking thoracic images?
High mAs – high keV
Low mAs – low keV
Low mAs – high keV
High mAs – low keV
Low mAs – high keV
105
New born foal often have an abnormal lung pattern, this appears similar to which pattern?
Alveolar
Interstitial
Bronchial
Vascular
Bronchial
106
The normal cardiac size in craniocaudal dimension of a foal is approximately the size of how many mid-thoracic vertebrae? EXAM!!!
5. 6-6.3 times
6. 3-6.7 times
6. 7-7.8 times
7. 8-8.2 times
5.6-6.3 times
107
Which of the below mentioned diagnosis fits best to this lung patterns seen in the radiograph?
Multinodular pulmonary fibrosis
Eosinophilic pneumonia
Bronchopneumonia
Severe RAO
Eosinophilic pneumonia
108
Congenital diaphragmatic hernias often occur often NOT in…..?
Dorsally
Left mid-diaphragm
Right mid-diaphragm
Ventrally
Right mid-diaphragm
109
When taking a radiograph with an interest on the oesophagus, what is necessary?
Plate on the left side of the animal
Plate on the right side of the animal
Contrast study is always necessary
Only overlapping images are important
Plate on the left side of the animal
110
Which of the following findings is not indictive for gastroduodenal ulcer disease?
Mega oesophagus
Gastric dilatation
Gas in biliary tree
Strictures of the oesophagus
Gas in biliary tree
111
What is a normal measurement for a small bowel loop?
The length of the body of the first lumbar vertebrae
The height of the body of the first lumbar vertebrae
1,5 times the craniocaudal size of the first lumbar vertebrae
The same length as the spinous process of the first lumbar vertebra
The length of the body of the first lumbar vertebrae
112
What is the normal transit time of a gastrointestinal tract of a horse?
6 hours
8 hours
12 hours
24 hours
8 hours
113
What is the most commonly affected place for cystitis in an urinary bladder?
Cranioventral
Craniodorsal
Caudoventral
Caudodorsal
Cranioventral
114
What is indicating a normal tenogram of a manica flexoria on a lateromedial radiograph?
Two lines of contrast medium diverging
Two lines of contrast medium parallel
One line of contrast medium
Pooling of contrast medium dorsal to the deep digital flexor tendon
Two lines of contrast medium parallel
115
What is an approximate amount of contrast medium used in a common carotid artery angiography?
5ml
10ml
15ml
20ml
20ml
116
Who put these questions in the system:
Oliver
Maty
Zwelgje
Fucking legend of an Oliver obviously
