Butler bookclub Flashcards by Maty Looijen

What may be seen in an angiogram of a horse with guttural pouch mycosis (2 answers)?

Beading

Arterial roughening

Aneurysm

Arterial narrowing

Arterial roughening

Aneurysm

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In myelography, accumulation of contrast in the cranial cervical region is thought to be characteristic of…?

Insufficient volume of contrast

Insufficient concentration of contrast

Subdural injection

Failure of the contrast to mix with cerebrospinal fluid

Subdural injection

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In myelography what change in the dural diameter is considered significant when assessing spinal cord compression?

10% increase

20% decrease

30% increase

50% decrease

20% decrease

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When does ossification of the pubis and ischium as well as fusion of these bones with the iliu occur?

At birth

6 months

1 year

18 months

1 year

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When do the iliac crest and tuber coxae fuse with the rest of the ilium?

2-3 months

4-6 months

6-8 months

10-12 months

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Which statement is correct?

The physis of the femoral head closes at 30-42 months

The greater trochanter fuses with the femoral shaft at 18-30 months

The lesser trochanter fuses with the femoral shafter at 12 months

The distal femoral physis closes at 20-28 months

The greater trochanter fuses with the femoral shaft at 18-30 months

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Luxation of the coxofemoral joint normally occurs in which direction?

Craniodorsal

Caudodorsal

Cranioventral

Caudoventral

Craniodorsal

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What view can be used to highlight fractures of the third trochanter of the femur?

Craniocaudal

Cranial 25o lateral caudomedial oblique

Caudal 25o lateral craniomedial oblique

Lateromedial

Cranial 25o lateral caudomedial oblique

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What is a fontanelle?

A radiodensity between the nasal bones

A radiolucency between the frontal bones at the rostral third of the cranial vault

A radiolucency between the spheno-occipital suture

A radiodensity between the frontal bones at the rostral third of the cranial vault

A radiolucency between the frontal bones at the rostral third of the cranial vault

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When is the spheno-occipital suture likely not to be visible?

3 years

1 year

6 years

5 years

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When do the left and right manibular bones fuse?

1 month

4 months

3 months

6 months

3 months

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Dentigerous cysts are commonly associated with which bone?

Parietal bone

Petrous temporal bone

Basiocciptial bone

Basisphenoid bone

Petrous temporal bone

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A tumour of the equine head that appears well-demarcated with a septate configuration causing a ‘soap bubble’ appearance is likely to be an…?

Ameloblastic odontoma

Ameloblastoma

Osteoma

Adenocarcinoma

Ameloblastoma

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Which two in this list are differntials that could explain increased lucency of the maxillary sinus?

Neoplasia

Maxillary sinus cyst

Maxillary cyst

Sinusitis

Neoplasia

Maxillary cyst

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To highlight the caudal cheek teeth on a dorsoventral image, in which direction should the x-ray beam point?

Dorsorostral to ventrocaudal

Dorsocaudal to rostroventral

Dorsomedial to ventrolateral

Dorsolateral to ventromedial

Dorsocaudal to rostroventral

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When does the fontanelle close?

3-4 months

5-7 months

1-3 months

1-2 months

3-4 months

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What structure is denoted by the star?

Hypoglossal foramen

Accessory foramen

External acoustic meatus

Oval foramen

Hypoglossal foramen

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The separate centre of ossification for the tuber calcanei fuses with the rest of the calcaneus at what age?

6 – 12 Month

9 – 16 Months

16 – 24 Months

24 – 36 Months

16 – 24 Months

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What is pointed to by the arrow in this image?

Osseous cyst like lesion

Tarsal canal

Sinus Tarsi

Compositional artefact

Sinus Tarsi

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With congenital deformity of the sustentaculum tali and medial slipping of the DDFT which angular limb deformity is often seen at the tarsus?

Valgus

Varus

Contracture

Hyperextension

Valgus

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Fractures of the distal tibial physis are most commonly what type?

Type I

Type II

Type III

Type IV

Type II

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The most common tarsal bone fracture in the racehorse is most likely to be detected on which projection

DLPMO

DMPLO

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For a gastrointestinal contrast study in an adult horse what volume of 30% barium sulphate suspension is recommended?

2ml/kg

3ml/kg

5ml/kg

7ml/kg

3ml/kg

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How long should it take for a food bolus to travel from the pharynx to the stomach?

4-10s

8-16s

10-20s

15-30s

4-10s

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What contrast media is best suited to diagnose an oesophageal stricture? Barium paste Barium suspension Barium coated pelleted feed B and C

B and C

In foals, distention of small intestinal loops is considered to be present which the width of the bowel is greater than the? Length of L7 Length of L1 Length of two rib spaces Width of the proximal femur

Length of L1

The distal radial physis closes at what age? 12 Months 18 Months 20 Months 24 Months

20 Months

Partial ossification of a vestigial ulna is present in what percentage of horses? 5% 10% 20% 35%

35%

Enthesopathy of the horizontal intra-articular intercarpal ligaments is most common between which bones? Radial and intermediate Intermediate and ulnar Third and fourth Second and third

Second and third

What is the significance of osseous cyst like lesion in the carpal bones of foals? Incidental finding Can sometimes cause lameness especially if present in the distal radius Only likely to cause lameness as the horse matures and is brought into work May represent type C osteomyelitis and warrants further investigation

May represent type C osteomyelitis and warrants further investigation

Carpal angular limb deformities are often centred on the? Distal radial physis Antibrachiocarpal joint Middle carpal joint Carpometacarpal joint

Distal radial physis

In some horses there is a narrow, vertical, more opaque line in the middle of the proximal quarter of the third metacarpal/tarsal bone can be seen, this is more common in? Hindlimbs Forelimbs Thoroughbreds Warmbloods

Hindlimbs

The distal metacarpal physis closes radiographically at approximately? 3-6 months 6-9 months 9-12 months 12-15 months

3-6 months

Dorsal cortical stress fractures of the third metacarpal bone of racehorses usually have what configuration. Dorsodistal to palmaroproximal Dorsoproximal to palmarodistal Mediodistal to lateroproximal Medioproximal to laterodistal

Dorsodistal to palmaroproxima

When palpable new bone develpeds between the metacarpal/metatarsal bones know colloquially as a ‘splint’ this is most likely to occur where? Hindlimb = Between the 2nd and 3rd , forelimb = between the 2nd and 3rd Hindlimb = Between the 4th and 3rd , forelimb = between the 4th and 3rd Hindlimb = Between the 4th and 3rd , forelimb = between the 2nd and 3rd Hindlimb = Between the 2nd and 3rd , forelimb = between the 4th and 3rd

Hindlimb = Between the 4th and 3rd , forelimb = between the 2nd and 3rd

What proximodistal angle of the x-ray beam is needed to image the proximal row of carpal bones? 35o 85o 55o 45o

55o

What proximodistal angle of the x-ray beam is needed to image the distal row of carpal bones? 35o 85o 55o 45o

35o

What proximodistal angle of the x-ray beam is needed to image the distal radius bones? 35o 85o 55o 45o

35o

How many ossification centres does the radius have? 1 2 3 4

When do the lateral styloid process of the radius and the distal radial physis close? Styloid process within 8 months, distal radial physis at 15 months Styloid process within 6 months, distal radial physis at 12 months Styloid process within 10 months, distal radial physis within 10 months Styloid process within 12 months, distal radial physis within 20 months

Styloid process within 12 months, distal radial physis within 20 months

How many ossification centres do the carpal bones have? 1 2 3 4

By what age are the carpal bones fully developed? 6 months 12 months 18 months 24 months

18 months

What percentage of horses have ossification of the ulna? 5% 15% 25% 35%

35%

What percentage of horses have a fifth carpal bone? 2% 5% 10% 15%

How is incomplete ossification of the carpal bones treated? Cast in the first few days of life Casting after 2 weeks Transphyseal bridging Paddock rest

Cast in the first few days of life

Which pathology occurs at the distal radial physis? Osteochondroma Radial exostosis

Radial exostosis

Which location is the most common site for carpal subluxation? Antebrachiobcarpal joint Middle carpal joint Carpometacarpal joint

Carpometacarpal joint

Which is not a common site for chip fractures of the carpus Dorsodistal radial carpal bone Dorsodistal third carpal bone Dorsodistal intermediate carpal bone Dorsodistal radius

Dorsodistal third carpal bone

Carpal slab fractures are most common in which three bones Ulnar carpal bone Radial Third Fourth

Radial Third Fourth

Which of the following is a contraindication for arthrography? Suspected synovial cyst Suspected joint capsule rupture Inflammation Osteoarthritis

Inflammation

When preforming an air tendogram how should you adjust your xray settings? Half mAs and kVp Half kVp Half mAs No change required

Half mAs

What does the blue arrow indicate? Linguofacial artery Vertebral artery Occipital artery Internal carotid artery

Occipital artery

In a normal horse the ventral contrast column become narrower in which neck position? Flexed Neutral Extended Flexed and extended

Flexed

What reduction in the total dural diameter is considered abnormal? \>10% \>20% \>30% \>50%

\>20%

‘Clipping’ artefact is a result of? Underexposure Overexposure Use of an incorrect gird Use of an incorrect postprocessing algorithm

Overexposure

The normal dimensions of a foals heart relative the length of a mid thoracic vertebral body should be? CC 4.5-5.6, DV 6.4-8.3 CC 5.0-5.6, DV 6.4-8.3 CC 5.6-6.3, DV 6.7-7.8 CC 4.6-5.6, DV 6.7-7.8

CC 5.6-6.3, DV 6.7-7.8

Which of the following is true regarding the mainstem bronchi? The left mainstem bronchus is more dorsal than the right The left mainstem bronchus is more ventral than the right The left mainstem bronchus has a larger end on diameter than the right The left mainstem bronchus has a smaller end on diameter than the right

The left mainstem bronchus is more dorsal than the right

Equine multinodular pulmonary fibrosis is associated with which EHV? 1 and 4 3 5 6

Differences between observers measuring intra and intervertebral sagittal ratios can be up to: 1-2% 2-5% 5-10% 10-15%

5-10%

The cranial physis of cervical vertebra C3-7 closes? From ventral to dorsal at 2 yo From ventral to dorsal at 4-5yo From dorsal to ventral at 2yo From dorsal to ventral at 4-5yo

From ventral to dorsal at 2 yo

What is indicated by the arrow Fracture of the cranial articular process Articular process joint margin Normal finding B and C are correct

Normal finding

What does the radiolucent area shown by the blue arrow represent? Osseous cyst like lesion Osteomyelitis Neoplasia Pressure atrophy

Pressure atrophy

At what age is the distal phalanx completely ossified? 6 months 9 months 12 months 18 months

18 months

The crena marginis solearis is variable in size and can but up to? 0. 9cm 1. 2cm 1. 5cm 1. 7cm

1.5cm

The diameter of separate centres of ossification at the apex of the palmar processes of the distal phalanx and usually but not always bilateral and biaxial and they usually do not exceed what size? 5mm 10mm 15mm 17mm

10mm

Small radiopaque fragments proximal to the extensor process of the distal phalanx have been found in what percentage of warmbloods as prepurchase examination? 2. 2 3. 5 4. 5 7

4.5

Osseous cyst like lesions that do not communicate with the distal interphalangeal joint may be associated with? Laminitis Historic fracture Infectious osteitis Must be congenital

Infectious osteitis

OCLL at the insertion of the collateral ligaments of the DIPj reflect bone necrosis and are more common? Medially Laterally In forelimbs In hindlimbs

Medially

Keratomas are most commonly found in the? Dorsal hoof wall Solar margin Frog There is no common location

Dorsal hoof wall

Grade 5 ossification of the collateral cartilages is defined as ossification to the level of the? Midpoint of the middle phalanx Beyond the midpoint of the middle phalanx The proximal 1/3 of the middle phalanx The proximal aspect of the middle phalanx.

Beyond the midpoint of the middle phalanx

At what age does the distal physis of the third metacarpal/metatarsal bone close? 6-8 months 8-12 months 12-14 months 12-18 months

6-8 months

If the PSBs form of two ossification centres what age should they fuse by? 40 days 60 days 3 months 5 months

60 days

Supracondylar lysis can be seen in association with chronic injuries to which soft tissue structure? Common/ Long digital extensor tendon Lateral digital extensor tendon Suspensory ligament DDFT

Suspensory ligament

What is the prognosis for horses with infection osteitis of the palmar or abaxial aspect of a proximal sesamoid bone? Favourable with conservative management Favourable with surgical debridement Guarded Guarded with conservative management but surgical debridement may be indicated in selected cases.

Favourable with surgical debridement

What is the reference value for horses with laminitis for the thickness of the dorsal hoof wall and the ratio to the palmar length of the distal phalanx? \>20 mm, 28% \> 25 mm, 27% \<20 mm, 27% \<25 mm, 28%

\>20 mm, 28%

What represent a radiolucent line in between the distal phalanx and the dorsal hoof wall or sole? Keratoma formation Haemorrhagic laminar tissue Serum collected between the dermal and epidermal laminae due to inflammation Hoof abscess formation

Serum collected between the dermal and epidermal laminae due to inflammation

In case a laminitic horse has a distal phalanx, which sinks, which aspect goes first? Medial Lateral Dorsal palmar

Medial

Which of the following below can not be found in horses with laminated performing a venogram? Altered position of the distal dorsal aspect of the distal phalanx relative to the circumflex vein Distribution of contrast medium into abnormal sublamellar tissues Distortion of the circumflex vessel dorsally because of inward growth of solear horn Increased flow and widening of the vessels of the coronary plexus

Increased flow and widening of the vessels of the coronary plexus

What is abnormal in the below image? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. nothing

d. nothing

Up to how many lucent zone may be present at the distal border of the navicular bone to still be considered normal? 5 7 9 No number accounted for

When taking an oblique cervical radiograph from dorsal to ventral which APJs appear dorsally on the image? The APJs closest to the plate The APJs closest to the generator

The APJs closest to the plate

How many centres of ossification does C2 have? 1 2 3 4

At what age does the odontoid peg fuse with the head of C2? 1 month 4 months 7 months 10 months

7 months

From which position do the cranial physes of cervical vertebrae start to fuse and by what age is this complete? Ventrally and 4-5 years Dorsally and 4-5 years Ventrally and 2 years Dorsally and 2 years

Ventrally and 2 years

From which position do the caudal physes of cervical vertebrae start to fuse and by what age is this complete? Ventrally and 4-5 years Dorsally and 4-5 years Ventrally and 2 years Dorsally and 2 years

Dorsally and 4-5 years

What is the arrow pointing to in this image? Bone spur on caudoproximal epiphysis Superimposition of transverse process of C2 on the IVF Osseous fragment on the caudal aspect of C2 Superimposition of the caudal physis of C2 on the IVF

Superimposition of transverse process of C2 on the IVF

Which developmental abnormality is most likely to be associated with spinal cord compression? (2 answers) Enlargement of the caudal epiphysis Vertebral angulation Vertebral stenosis Extension of caudal vertebral arch caudally

Vertebral angulation Vertebral stenosis

Which two statements are false? Rooney type 1 modelling occurs at C1-C2 and is associated with malalignment of the articular processes. Rooney type 1 modelling occurs at C2-C3 and is associated with malalignment of the articular processes. Rooney type 2 lesions involve ventral enlargement of the articular processes of C5, occasionally C4 Rooney type 2 lesions involve axial enlargement of the articular processes of C4 occasionally C5

Rooney type 1 modelling occurs at C1-C2 and is associated with malalignment of the articular processes. ## Footnote Rooney type 2 lesions involve ventral enlargement of the articular processes of C5, occasionally C4

Subluxation of the atlantoaxial joint is associated with? A rotated neck posture Kyphosis A flexed neck posture An extended neck posture

An extended neck posture

Which statements are correct? Atlantoaxial subluxation often involves proximal displacement of the dens Atlantoaxial subluxation is often involves distal displacement of the dens Subluxation of C5-C6 is normally dorsal Subluxation of C6-C7 is normally ventral

Atlantoaxial subluxation often involves proximal displacement of the dens Subluxation of C5-C6 is normally dorsal

Fractures through the physis tend to involve which cervical vertebra? C1 C2 C3 C4

Which statement is incorrect? The cranial physis of the thoracic vertebrae closes at 6-12 months The caudal physis of the thoracic vertebrae closes at 2-4 years A significant number of horses have 5 lumbar vertebrae Donkeys have 6 lumbar vertebrae

Donkeys have 6 lumbar vertebrae

Which thoracic vertebra has a spinous process without a separate centre of ossification? T1 T2 T7 T8

In a study of 582 horses what proportion of horses with abnormalities of the spinous processes showed thoracolumbar pain? 16% 26% 46% 66%

46%

In a review of 670 horses with thoracolumbar region pain, in what percentage was spondylosis identified and at which vertebrae is it seen most commonly? 6. 8%% T8-T14 3. 4% T10-T16 1. 2% T5-T10 10% T8-T12

3.4% T10-T16

Loss of fine structural detail in aerated lung is known as ? and caused by? Cropping artefact underexposure Clipping artefact overexposure Cropping artefact overexposure Clipping artefact underexposure

Clipping artefact overexposure

What is the most common cause of a bronchial pattern? Accumulation of mucus Mucosal thickening Wall thickening Peribronchial infiltrates

Peribronchial infiltrates

Where is the most common location for a pulmonary infarct? Cranioventral Caudodorsal Craniodorsal Caudoventral

Caudodorsal

The sternum comprises of how many segments? 3 5 7 9

How many centres of ossification comprise the stifle? 5 6 7 8

The tibia apophysis and the metaphysis fuse at what age? 8-12 m 12-18 m 24-30 m 30-36 m

30-36 m

Physitis most commonly occurs in which location in the stifle Tibial apophyseal – metaphyseal Tibial apophyseal – epiphyseal Distal femoral A and B

Distal femoral

What is shown in the bellow image? Sequestrum Enthesopathy of the semitendinosus Enthesopathy of the biceps femoris Normal separate centre of ossification

Enthesopathy of the semitendinosus

At what age is the patella fully ossified? 2 months 4 months 6 months 8 months

4 months

When does the medial trochlear ridge of the femur become larger than the lateral trochlear ridge? 1 month 2 months 3 months 4 months

2 months

When does the distal physis of the femur close? 12-16 months 16-20 months 20-26 months 24-30 months

24-30 months

The apophyseal metaphyseal physis of the tibia closes at which age? 9-12 months 16-20 months 30-36 months 24-30 months

30-36 months

When does the proximal tibial physis close? 9-12 months 16-20 months 30-36 months 24-30 months

24-30 months

The apophyseal epiphyseal physis of the tibia closes at which age? 9-12 months 16-20 months 30-36 months 24-30 months

9-12 months

Where is physitis most common in the stifle? Distal femoral physis Proximal tibial physis

Distal femoral physis

Which view is most useful to examine degenerative joint disease in the femoropatellar joint? Lateromedial Caudocranial Caudal 60 degrees lateral craniomedial Caudal 45 degrees lateral craniomedial

Lateromedial

What caudal anatomic soft tissue structure is denoted by \*? Caudal cruciate ligament Meniscofemoral ligament Caudal ligament of the medial meniscus Caudal ligament of the lateral meniscus

Meniscofemoral ligament

Where does calcinosis circumscripta most commonly occur in the stifle? Medial femorotibial joint Lateral femorotibial joint Femoropatellar joint

Lateral femorotibial joint

Fracture of the medial part of the patella is associated with what injury? Avulsion of the insertion of the lateral collateral ligament Avulsion of the origin of the lateral collateral ligament Avulsion of the origin of the medial collateral ligament Avulsion of the insertion of the medial collateral ligament

Avulsion of the origin of the lateral collateral ligament

What is the most commonly fractured region of the shoulder? Corocoid process Supraglenoid tubercle Intermediate tubercle Greater tubercle

Supraglenoid tubercle

Which is not an ossification centre of the distal humerus? Diaphysis Distal epiphysis Epiphysis of medial epicondyle Epiphysis of lateral epicondyle

Epiphysis of lateral epicondyle

When does the apophysis of the ulna extend to cover the proximal metaphysis of the ulna? 4-6 months 6-8 months 10-12 months 13-15 months

10-12 months

When does the proximal ulnar physis close? 8-12 months 12-20 months 24-36 months \>36 months

24-36 months

When do the proximal radial and distal humeral physes close? 8-12 months 11-24 months 24-36 months \>36 months

11-24 months

When does the distal radial physis close? 8-12 months 11-24 months 24-36 months 22-42 months

22-42 months

When does the lateral styloid process of the ulna fuse with the distal epiphysis of the radius? Within 6 months Within 1 year Within 1.5 years Within 2 years

Within 1 year

Where has osteochondrosis of the elbow been noted to occur? (more than one answer) Medial condyle of the humerus Medial proximal radius Medial epicondyle of the humerus Lateral condyle of the humerus

Medial condyle of the humerus Medial proximal radius

Where have OCLs of the elbow been noted to occur? Lateral radial epiphysis Medial distal humeral condyle Medial radial epiphysis Lateral distal humeral condyle

Medial radial epiphysis

Enthesous new bone on the radial tuberosity is associated with the insertion of which muscle Ulnaris lateralis Deltoideus Flexor carpi radialis Biceps brachii

Biceps brachii

Avulsion of the origin of the ulnaris lateralis results in displacement of a bone fragment from which location? Distal lateral humerus Distal medial humerus Proximal lateral radius Proximal medial radius

Distal lateral humerus

How many ossification centres does the scapula have? 1 2 3 4

Which ossification centre of the scapula fuses with the scapular body at 5 months Cranial part of the glenoid cavity Caudal part of the glenoid cavity Scapular cartilage Supraglenoid tubercle

Cranial part of the glenoid cavity

Which ossification centre of the scapula fuses with the rest of the bone at 12-24 months? Cranial part of the glenoid cavity Scapular body Scapular cartilage Supraglenoid tubercle

Supraglenoid tubercle

How many ossification centres does the proximal humerus have? 1 2 3 4

Which humeral tubercle develops from the same ossification centre as the humeral head? Greater tubercle Lesser tubercle Intermediate tubercle

Lesser tubercle

When do the humeral head and the greater tubercle merge with the diaphysis? 1-2 months 3-4 months 4-8 months 8-10 months

3-4 months

When does the proximal humeral physis close? 4-6 months 6-10 months 16-20 months 24-36 months

24-36 months

A small lucent zone in the middle of the glenoid cavity of the scapula is present in what % of horses? 2% 5% 10% 20%

Where do osseous cyst like lesions of the shoulder most commonly occur? Mid distal scapula and mid humeral epiphysis Caudal scapula and mid humeral epiphysis Caudal scapula and caudal humeral epiphysis Cranial scapula and cranial humeral epiphysis

Mid distal scapula and mid humeral epiphysis

Mineralisation of the tendon of biceps brachii can occur as a sequel to…? Fracture of the ventral angle of the scapula Fracture of the supraglenoid tubercle Chronic tendinitis of the biceps brachii Chronic tendinitis of the deltoideus

Fracture of the supraglenoid tubercle Chronic tendinitis of the biceps brachii

The proximal and middle phalanges both ossify from how many centres? 1 2 3 4

In the proximal phalanx when does the distal epiphysis unite with the shaft? 1 month old 2 weeks old Before birth 6 months

Before birth

When does the proximal physis close in the proximal phalanx 1 month 6 months 18 months 12 months

12 months

When does the proximal physis close in the middle phalanx? 1-2 months 2-6 months 10-12 months 8-12 months

8-12 months

In a study of 321 foals, in what percentage were osseous cyst like lesions seen close to the proximal interphalangeal joint 2. 6% 6. 2% 26% 62%

6.2%

In a study of 321 foals with osseous cyst-like lesions near the PIPJ, what percentage of horses had OCLs at 18 months which were also visible at 6 months of age? 20% 40% 60% 80%

60%

In a study of 3749 German Warmbloods what was the prevalence of osteochondral fragments of the PIPJ? 0. 9% 1. 9% 3. 9% 6. 9%

0.9%

What view best highlights the proximal palmar cortex of metacarpal or metatarsal III? Lateral 25o dorsal palmaromedial oblique Lateral 15o dorsal palmaromedial oblique Lateral 25o palmar dorsomedial oblique Lateral 15o palmar dorsomedial oblique

Lateral 15o palmar dorsomedial oblique

To highlight the palmar articular surface of metacarpal or metatarsal III, what angle should the x-ray beam be at, compared to the axis of Mc/MtIII? 100o 115o 125o 150o

125o

Which statements are not true? The distal dorsal cortical contour of MtIII is convex The distal dorsal cortical contour of McIII is convex The dorsal McIII cortex is thicker than the palmar cortex particularly on the dorsolateral aspect The dorsal McIII cortex is thicker than the palmar cortex particularly on the dorsomedial aspect

The distal dorsal cortical contour of McIII is convex The dorsal McIII cortex is thicker than the palmar cortex particularly on the dorsolateral aspect

Edge enhancement results in… Mach lines Moire lines Uberschwinger artefact Ghosting

Mach lines

Which of these statements is true? The proximal metacarpal physis is closed at birth and the distal physis closes at 3-6 months The proximal metacarpal physis is closed at birth and the distal physis closes at 6-8 months The distal metacarpal physis is closed at birth and the proximal physis closes at 3-6 months The distal metacarpal physis is closed at birth and the proximal physis closes at 6-8 months.

The proximal metacarpal physis is closed at birth and the distal physis closes at 3-6 months

At what age range does the distal epiphysis of the second and fourth metacarpal bones ossify? 4-6 months 1-9 months 8-16 months 12-20 months

1-9 months

Radiological changes associated with suspensory ligament desmopathy are more commonly seen…? On the medial half of the third metacarpus and the lateral half of the third metatarsus On the medial half of the third metacarpus and the medial half of the third metatarsus On the lateral half of the third metacarpus and the medial half of the third metatarsus On the lateral half of the third metacarpus and the lateral half of the third metatarsus.

On the medial half of the third metacarpus and the lateral half of the third metatarsus

Angular limb deformities involving the diaphysis of the third metacarpus or metatarsus most commonly originate at…? The distal third The middle third The proximal third All sites are equally common

The proximal third

Physitis of the distal metarcarpal physis can result in angular limb deformity at the metacarpophalangeal joint. If needed, before what age should surgical correction be performed? 6 weeks 8 weeks 10 weeks 12 weeks

8 weeks

Dystrophic mineralisation associated with a soft tissue mass unrelated to an anatomical structure is suggestive of…? Marie’s disease Mastocytosis Squamous cell carcinoma Fibrosarcoma

Mastocytosis

Which are radiological features of an enostosis-like lesion? Lesion close to the nutrient foramen Lesion contiguous with the endosteum No cortical or periosteal reaction All of the above

All of the above

Fractures of the distal metacarpal physis are commonly…? Type 1 Type 2 Type 4 Type 6

Type 2

Incomplete longitudinal stress fractures of the McIII palmar cortex occur most commonly at which location? Proximomedial Proximolateral Distomedial Distolateral

Proximomedial

What view is best to assess the palmar aspect of the metacarpal condyles? Flexed lateromedial Lateral 45o proximal medial distal oblique Dorsal 30o proximal 70o lateral – palmarodistomedial oblique Dorsal 45o proximal 45o lateral – palmarodistomedial oblique

Dorsal 45o proximal 45o lateral – palmarodistomedial oblique

What view is best to highlight the palmar articular margins of the P1 palmar process? Flexed lateromedial Lateral 45o proximal medial distal oblique Dorsal 30o proximal 70o lateral – palmarodistomedial oblique Dorsal 45o proximal 45o lateral – palmarodistomedialo oblique

Dorsal 30o proximal 70o lateral – palmarodistomedial oblique

Which 2 views will highlight the abaxial aspect of the lateral proximal sesamoid bone? Medial 45o proximal lateral distal oblique Lateral 45o proximal medial distal oblique Palmar 85o proximal 15o lateral palmarodistal medial oblique Palmar 85o proximal 15o medial palmarodistal lateral oblique

Medial 45o proximal lateral distal oblique Palmar 85o proximal 15o medial palmarodistal lateral oblique

The physis of the proximal phalanx closes at what age? 4 months 8 months 12 months 16 months

12 months

The distal physis of McIII fuses at what age? 2-4 months 4-6 months 6-8 months 8-10 months

6-8 months

When does ossification of the PSBs occur? 4-8 weeks 12-16 weeks 16-20 weeks 8-10 weeks

12-16 weeks

In a study of 321 French foals in what percentage were dorsal and plantar fragments identified and which were most common in which breed? 10% dorsal (Warmbloods), 9% plantar (Trotters) 9% dorsal (Warmbloods), 10% plantar (Trotters) 10% dorsal (Trotters), 9% plantar (Warmbloods) 9% dorsal (Trotters), 10% plantar (Warmbloods)

10% dorsal (Warmbloods), 9% plantar (Trotters)

Degenerative joint disease normally originates on which aspect of the fetlock Proximolateral Proximomedial Distolateral Distomedial

Proximomedial

Dorsoproximal P1 fragments are commonly Medial Lateral

Medial

Which of these statements are true? Palmar osteochondral fragments of the metacarpo/tarsophalangeal joint are associated with the short sesamoidean ligaments Palmar osteochondral fragments of the metacarpo/tarsophalangeal joint are more commonly seen in the forelimb Palmar osteochondral fragments of the metacarpo/tarsophalangeal joint are more commonly lateral Palmar osteochondral fragments of the metacarpo/tarsophalangeal joint are best viewed using a Dorsal 30o proximal 70o lateral – palmarodistomedial oblique

Palmar osteochondral fragments of the metacarpo/tarsophalangeal joint are associated with the short sesamoidean ligaments Palmar osteochondral fragments of the metacarpo/tarsophalangeal joint are best viewed using a Dorsal 30o proximal 70o lateral – palmarodistomedial oblique

What proximodistal angle of the x-ray beam is needed to image the proximal row of carpal bones? 35o 85o 55o 45o

55o

What proximodistal angle of the x-ray beam is needed to image the distal row of carpal bones? 35o 85o 55o 45o

35o

What proximodistal angle of the x-ray beam is needed to image the distal radius bones? 35o 85o 55o 45o

35o

How many ossification centres does the distal radius have? 1 2 3 4

Styloid process within 12 months, distal radial physis within 20 months

How many ossification centres do the carpal bones have? 1 2 3 4

By what age are the carpal bones fully developed? 6 months 12 months 18 months 24 months

18 months

What percentage of horses have ossification of the ulna? 5% 15% 25% 35%

35%

What percentage of horses have a fifth carpal bone? 2% 5% 10% 15%

How is incomplete ossification of the carpal bones treated? Cast in the first few days of life Casting after 2 weeks Transphyseal bridging Paddock rest

Cast in the first few days of life

Which pathology occurs at the distal radial physis? Osteochondroma Radial exostosis

Radial exostosis

Which location is the most common site for carpal subluxation? Antebrachiobcarpal joint Middle carpal joint Carpometacarpal joint

Carpometacarpal joint

Which is not a common site for chip fractures of the carpus Dorsodistal radial carpal bone Dorsodistal third carpal bone Dorsodistal intermediate carpal bone Dorsodistal radius

Dorsodistal third carpal bone

When does the distal epiphysis of the fibula fuse with the tibia? Before birth 3 months 5 months 6 months

3 months

What separate ossification centre of the hock fuses to its parent bone by 16-24 months? Medial malleolus Medial trochlear ridge Lateral malleolus Tuber calcanei

Tuber calcanei

When is the proximal physis of the third metatarsal bone closed? 2 months 4 months 6 months At birth

At birth

On a dorsoplantar image the tarsal canal appears as a lucency superimposed over which bone? 3rd tarsal bone 4th tarsal bone Central tarsal bone 1st and second tarsal bones

4th tarsal bone

What two structures run through the tarsal canal? The tarsal artery Metatarsal vein Peroneal nerve Metatarsal artery

The tarsal artery Peroneal nerve

Congenital deformity of the sustentaculum tali results in displacement of the DDFT in which direction Medially Laterally Dorsal and medially Dorsal and laterally

Dorsal and medially

Where on the distal intermediate ridge of the tibia do fragments commonly occur?(2 answers) Cranial Caudal Lateral Medial

Cranial Lateral

In a survey of foals, fragments on the craniodistal aspect of the intermediate ridge of the tibia were noted in? 1. 5% of French Trotters 10% of Selle Francais, 8% of TBs 1. 5% TBs, 10% French Trotters, 20% of Selle Francais 1. 5% Selle Francais, 8% Trotters, 10% TBs 1. 5% TBs, 10% French Trotters, 8% Selle Francais

1.5% TBs, 10% French Trotters, 8% Selle Francais

Fragmentation of the proximal tubercle of the talus is not associated with injury of which of these ligaments? Short medial collateral ligament of the talocalcaneal joint Long plantar ligament of the tarsus Long medial collateral ligament of the talocalcaneal joint Medial talocalcaneal ligament

Long medial collateral ligament of the talocalcaneal joint

Which of the following is not common a feature of EORTH? Widening of the periodontal and periapical spaces Osteolysis Dental fracture Bulbous appearance to the tooth roots

Dental fracture

When does the second deciduous cheek tooth erupt from the gum? 0-2 weeks 4-6 weeks 0-5 weeks 12 weeks

0-2 weeks

When do the third adult upper and lower premolars erupt from the gum? 1.5 upper and 3.5 lower 3 upper and 2.5 years lower 1.5 lower and 3.5 upper 3 lower and 2.5 years upper

3 upper and 2.5 years lower

Which of the following is not a differential diagnosis for mandibular cysts? Ameloblastoma Infection Ameloblastic odontoma Cystic fibrosis

Ameloblastic odontoma

Which bone is denoted by the number 3? Stylohyoid Basihyoid Ceratohyoid Thyrohyoid

Ceratohyoid

Which of the following is the normal size for the oesophageal air column? 2-5cm 5-7cm 7-10cm 10-12cm

2-5cm

Which are the most common tumours found in the guttural pouches (2 answers)? Squamous cell carcinoma Adenocarcinoma Melanoma Basal cell carcinoma

Squamous cell carcinoma Melanoma

What is denoted by the star in this radiograph? Plica salpingopharyngea Laryngeal ventricle Bone cyst of the vertical margin of the mandible Rima glottidis

Laryngeal ventricle

What view will most likely detect an occlusal fracture of the 107 cheek tooth? Lateral (R) 10o ventral lateral (L) oblique Lateral (R) 10o dorsal lateral (L) oblique Lateral (L) 10o dorsal lateral (R) oblique Lateral (L) 10o ventral lateral (R) oblique

Lateral (L) 10o ventral lateral (R) oblique

What is the most common cause of a bronchial pattern? Accumulation of mucus Mucosal thickening Wall thickening Peribronchial infiltrates

Peribronchial infiltrates

Where is the most common location for a pulmonary infarct? Cranioventral Caudodorsal Craniodorsal Caudoventral

Caudodorsal

The sternum comprises of how many segments? 3 5 7 9

What is the correct dose of barium suspension for contrast study of an adult horse? 3ml/kg 5ml/kg 7ml/kg 12ml/kg

3ml/kg

Generalised mega-oesphagus has been associated with which condition? Atypical myopathy Gastric ulcers Grass sickness Inflammatory bowel disease

Grass sickness

What is the expected transit time when performing a barium contrast study of a foal? 4 hours 8 hours 16 hours 20 hours

8 hours

In cases of cystitis, which portion of the bladder is often most severely affected? Cranioventral Craniodorsal Caudoventral Caudodorsal

Cranioventral

For a positive contrast cystography what dose of contrast is appropriate? 12ml/kg 16ml/kg 10ml/kg 5ml/kg

12ml/kg

Which two views are best to look for degenerative joint disease of the DIPJ? Dorsopalmar Lateromedial Upright pedal Flexed oblique

Lateromedial Flexed oblique

A type 4 fracture of the distal phalanx involves which part? The extensor process Palmar process Solar margin Mid sagittal portion including the articular surface

The extensor process

Which type of distal phalanx fracture are articular? Type 6 and Type 7 Type 2 and Type 3 Type 4 and Type 5 Type 1 and Type 2

Type 2 and Type 3

Which types of distal phalanx fracture involve the palmar process Type 4 and type 5 Type 1 and type 7 Type 3 and type 6 Type 2 and type 3

Type 1 and type 7

In sports horses, at what location does the distal phalanx most commonly fracture? Lateral palmar process Extensor process Medial palmar process Distal solar margin

Medial palmar process

A fracture of the P3 extensor process greater than what distance from its proximal border is associated with a poor prognosis? 2mm 5mm 7mm 10mm

10mm

In a study examining medial and lateral sole thicknesses in the equine foot, which side had the greater thickness and in what proportion of horses? 63% had greater medial sole depth 63% had greater lateral sole depth 45% had greater medial sole depth 45% had greater lateral sole depth

63% had greater lateral sole depth

In severe laminitis cases, how long does a lamellar wedge take to form? 1 week 3 weeks 4 weeks 6 weeks

4 weeks

When parallel lines are visible across an x-ray film due to a grid, these are called? Mach lines Moire lines Uberschwinger artifact Ghosting

Moire lines

At what age does the navicular bone ossify? 10 months 12 months 18 months 20 months

18 months

What four navicular bone shapes have been described in Warmblood horses? Smooth round undulating, convex Triangular, square, straight, concave Straight, undulating, concave, convex Triangular, round, concave, undulating

Straight, undulating, concave, convex

An upright foot conformation leads to what change in the palmar cortex? Thicker Thinner distally No change

Thinner distally

Proximal entheseous new bone is more common in which region of the navicular? Laterally Medially Sagittally

Laterally

Distal navicular fragments more often occur… Sagittally Medially Laterally

Laterally

When taking an oblique cervical radiograph from dorsal to ventral which APJs appear dorsally on the image? The APJs closest to the plate The APJs closest to the generator

The APJs closest to the plate

How many centres of ossification does C2 have? 1 2 3 4

At what age does the odontoid peg fuse with the head of C2? 1 month 4 months 7 months 10 months

7 months

Ventrally and 2 years

Dorsally and 4-5 years

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