Mark to Crystal Qs

Question 1

1. Which choice best completes the sentence? The primary function of a phototimer is to:
   a. provide a consistent exposure by compensating for variations in thickness of patients.
   b. compensate for unstable high voltage electrical supply.
   c. limit the need for manual collimation.
   d. provide a consistent exposure by compensating for variations in film-screen combinations.
   e. Prevent excessive skin doses

Answer 1

a. provide a consistent exposure by compensating for variations in thickness of patients.

Question 2

Sharpness is the ability of the x-ray film/image to define an edge. Which one of the following statements concerning film sharpness is true?

a. An unsharp edge can be difficult to see if contrast is high, but a sharp edge is easily seen if contrast is low
b. Longer exposure times will minimize motion unsharpness
c. The edges of round or oval shaped objects will generally be better defined than squared or rectangular objects
d. The use of a small focal spot will help maximize edge sharpness by minimizing the size of the penumbra
e. The use of intensifying screens improves image sharpness

Answer 2

d. The use of a small focal spot will help maximize edge sharpness by minimizing the size of the penumbra

Question 3

Resolution (as it pertains to a radiographic image) is the ability to record separate images of small objects that are placed very closely together. Which one of the following statements regarding resolution is true?

a. A system that can resolve 4 line pairs per mm has better sharpness than a system that can resolve 6 line pairs per mm.
b. If an image has a resolution of 4 line pairs per mm, that means it can differentiate 4 lead strips separated by 4 radiolucent spacers that are all 1/4 mm apart.
c. If an image has a resolution of 4 line pairs per mm, that means it can differentiate 4 lead strips separated by 4 radiolucent spacers that are all 1/8 mm apart.
d. A system that can resolve 4 line pairs per mm has better resolution than a system that can resolve 6 line pairs per mm.
e. Resolution is unrelated to sharpness

Answer 3

c. If an image has a resolution of 4 line pairs per mm, that means it can differentiate 4 lead strips separated by 4 radiolucent spacers that are all 1/8 mm apart.

Question 4

Transformers have as their primary function:

a. Converting alternating current into direct current
b. Converting direct current into alternating current
c. Changing an input voltage into a different output voltage
d. Terminating x-ray exposure after a defined output has been reached
e. Regulating variations in mains voltage supply

Answer 4

c. Changing an input voltage into a different output voltage

Question 5

5. Which of the following statements is true regarding compensation filtration?
   a. Compensation filtration is due primarily to attenuation by housing oil.
   b. Compensation filtration delivers a more uniform x-ray exposure across the field.
   c. Compensation filtration results in increased patient dose.
   d. Compensation filters are made from beryllium in standard diagnostic machines
   e. Compensation filtration is used to uniformly increase the HVL of the x-ray beam.

Answer 5

b. Compensation filtration delivers a more uniform x-ray exposure across the field.

Question 6

6. Which of the following statements is true?
   a. The frequency and wavelength of electromagnetic radiation are inversely proportional.
   b. The speed of electromagnetic radiation waves is variable depending on energy.
   c. Gamma radiation does not exhibit particulate properties.
   d. The wavelength of x-rays is longer than that of radiant heat waves.
   e. The wavelength of gamma rays is longer than that of x-rays

Answer 6

a. The frequency and wavelength of electromagnetic radiation are inversely proportional.

Question 7

7. Which one of the following statements concerning film processing is true?
   a. Development can be defined as the chemical process that amplifies the latent image by a factor of ten to form a visible silver pattern on a film.
   b. In the development stage, silver ions are oxidized (electron is removed) by the developer chemical which changes it to black metallic silver.
   c. Examples of typical fixing chemicals include hydroquinone, phenidone and metol.
   d. Antifoggant chemicals are added to the developer solutions in automatic processors to limit development of unexposed silver ions.
   e. Development at 15oC takes less than 4 minutes to produce a diagnostic film.

Answer 7

d. Antifoggant chemicals are added to the developer solutions in automatic processors to limit development of unexposed silver ions.

Question 8

8. An image intensifier tube is used in fluoroscopic equipment. Which one of the following statements concerning an image intensifier is correct?
   a. Gadolinium oxysulphide is chosen as the photocathode as it can be grown and deposited in thin needle like orientation which minimizes light scatter
   b. An electrostatic focusing lens is used to focus the electron beam arising from the input phosphor onto the output fluorescent screen.
   c. The function of the input phosphor screen is to collect incoming x-ray photons, initially convert them to light photons, which are then converted to photoelectrons by the photocathode
   d. The image on the output phosphor is less bright than the input phosphor owing to the fact that many light photons are absorbed or lost as they pass from the input phosphor to the output phosphor.
   e. Use of an image intensifier results in higher radiation doses to the patient than direct fluoroscopy

Answer 8

c. The function of the input phosphor screen is to collect incoming x-ray photons, initially convert them to light photons, which are then converted to photoelectrons by the photocathode

Question 9

9. Compared to a 16° anode angle, an 8° anode angle provides a __________________ effective focal spot, and at the same time _______________ field coverage.
   a. smaller, smaller
   b. smaller, larger
   c. smaller, no change in
   d. larger, larger
   e. larger, no change in

Answer 9

a. smaller, smaller

Question 10

10. Which one of the following statements concerning the heel effect is true?
    a. The intensity of the x-ray beam is decreased on the cathode side of the x-ray tube
    b. The cathode itself may absorb a portion of the x-ray energy, thus decreasing the intensity of the beam on the cathode side of the tube
    c. The heel effect is most obvious using small film size
    d. The heel effect is more pronounced at shorter focal-spot to film distances
    e. Thicker parts of the animal should be directed towards the anode side of the x-ray tube

Answer 10

d. The heel effect is more pronounced at shorter focal-spot to film distances

Question 11

11. The main purpose for the second set of lead shutters in a variable aperture collimator is to:
    a. minimise the effect of errors in mirror angle
    b. minimise the number of non-diagnostic energy x-rays
    c. minimise the amount of scatter radiation
    d. minimise penumbra
    e. minimise the skin dose

Answer 11

d. minimise penumbra

Question 12

12. Which of the following statements concerning Bremsstrahlung interactions is true?
    a. The maximum energy of the x-ray beam produced is 67% of the maximum kVp
    b. The average energy of the x-ray beam is approximately 40% of the maximum kVp
    c. The x-ray beam produced is composed of a single photopeak with a narrow full width at half max
    d. The Bremsstrahlung process is relatively efficient in that 99% of the interactions result in the production of x-ray photons
    e. Bremsstrahlung interactions result in ejected electrons from atoms within the target.

Answer 12

b. The average energy of the x-ray beam is approximately 40% of the maximum kVp

Question 13

13. The approximate difference of x-ray production per unit time between single-phase self rectified generators and single-phase full-wave rectified generators is:
    a. A factor of 1.5
    b. A factor of 2
    c. A factor of 4
    d. A factor of 5
    e. A factor of 10

Answer 13

b. A factor of 2

Question 14

14. Which one of the following statements concerning x-ray machines with high frequency generators is true?
    a. An advantage of a high frequency x-ray machine is that they are typically better at penetrating thicker body objects than similarly rated lower frequency machines.
    b. High frequency x-ray machines are typically physically larger in size than conventional (non-high frequency) machines.
    c. High frequency x-ray machines minimize the “ripple effect” thus providing nearly constant voltage to the x-ray tube.
    d. High frequency x-ray machines require special electrical connections that are generally cost prohibitive in veterinary medicine.
    e. High frequency x-ray machines utilise single-phase full-wave rectification

Answer 14

c. High frequency x-ray machines minimize the “ripple effect” thus providing nearly constant voltage to the x-ray tube.

Question 15

15. Intensifying screen (A) has higher conversion efficiency but the same absorption efficiency and thickness as screen (B). USE OF SCREEN (A) WILL RESULT IN ____________________. (Note: Assume you use the same exposure settings)
    a. Reduced image noise
    b. An increase in image detail
    c. Increased image noise
    d. A need for greater numbers of photons to produce a similar image
    e. Greater skin dose to the patient

Answer 15

a. Reduced image noise

Question 16

16. What would happen if you upgraded to terbium-activated gadolinium oxysulphide (Gd2O2S:Tb) intensifying screens but used the film designed for use with your old calcium tungstate (CaWO2) intensifying screens? Assume you use the same exposure settings as before.
    a. All radiographs would appear correctly exposed
    b. Only radiographs obtained with high kVp, low mAs settings would appear correctly exposed.
    c. Only radiographs obtained with low kVp, high mAs settings would appear correctly exposed.
    d. All radiographs would appear overexposed.
    e. All radiographs would appear underexposed.

Answer 16

e. All radiographs would appear underexposed.

Question 17

17. Which one of the following statements is true regarding radiographic image noise (quantum mottle)?
    a. Noise magnitude increases with increased patient thickness.
    b. Noise magnitude is inversely related to exposure.
    c. Quantum mottle increases as system speed decreases.
    d. Film grain does not contribute to radiographic noise.
    e. Quantum mottle is common in mammography.

Answer 17

b. Noise magnitude is inversely related to exposure.

Question 18

18. In single-screen, single-emulsion film screen systems, the positioning of the film and screen in the cassette with respect to the x-ray tube should be as follows to achieve greatest resolution.
    a. The screen should be at the back of the cassette with the emulsion side of the film in contact with the screen
    b. The screen should be at the back of the cassette with the non-emulsion side of the film in contact with the screen
    c. The screen should be at the front of the cassette with the non-emulsion side of the film in contact with the screen
    d. The screen should be at the front of the cassette with the emulsion side of the film in contact with the screen.
    e. The screen should be at the front of the cassette with the emulsion side of the film covered in paper in contact with the screen

Answer 18

a. The screen should be at the back of the cassette with the emulsion side of the film in contact with the screen

Question 19

19. Which of the following statements regarding a photostimulable phosphor detector system (CR imaging plate) is true?
    a. The light released from the imaging plate is the same colour as the stimulating laser.
    b. Excited electrons return quickly to their pre-exposure level requiring processing of the plate within 10 minutes.
    c. The exposure latitude of an imaging plate is about the same as a “detail” film-screen system.
    d. Plates must be erased by exposure to green light
    e. The first readout of the imaging plate does not release all trapped electrons forming the latent image.

Answer 19

e. The first readout of the imaging plate does not release all trapped electrons forming the latent image.

Question 20

20 When x-rays interact with atoms in a material, the probability of occurrence of one of the following processes is directly proportional to the atoms Z3?

a. Rayleigh scattering
b. Photoelectric effect
c. Compton scattering
d. Pair production
e. Coherent scattering

Answer 20

b. Photoelectric effect

Question 21

21 Characteristic radiation is typically associated with which interaction?

a. Rayleigh scattering
b. Photoelectric effect
c. Compton scattering
d. Pair production
e. Coherent scattering

Answer 21

b. Photoelectric effect

Question 22

22 Which interaction below is unlikely to occur with x-rays produced from the x-ray tube within a CT scanner?

a. Rayleigh scattering
b. Photoelectric effect
c. Compton scattering
d. Pair production
e. Coherent scattering

Answer 22

d. Pair production

Question 23

23 Which interaction’s probability of occurrence is approximately proportional to the density of the material and on the number of electrons per gram of the absorber?

a. Rayleigh scattering
b. Photoelectric effect
c. Compton scattering
d. Pair production
e. Coherent scattering

Answer 23

c. Compton scattering

Question 24

24 Which x-ray interaction predominates when the medium is mostly water or soft tissue equivalent?

a. Rayleigh scattering
b. Photoelectric effect
c. Compton scattering
d. Pair production
e. Coherent scattering

Answer 24

c. Compton scattering

Question 25

25 Which of the following is an advantage of computed radiography (CR) over traditional film-screen radiography.

a. CR images captured with low exposure levels retain dynamic range without an increase in quantum noise.
b. CR images typically have higher line pair/mm resolution.
c. CR images typically have poorer contrast resolution.
d. CR systems facilitate much faster patient throughput.
e. CR systems facilitate a reduction in annual film costs for the practice.

Answer 25

e. CR systems facilitate a reduction in annual film costs for the practice.

Question 26

26 Which one of the following statements regarding x-ray attenuation is true?

a. Attenuation is the removal of photons from a beam of X-rays or gamma-rays as they pass through matter.
b. Attenuation is not influenced by scatter and absorption.
c. At high x-ray energies, the photoelectric effect in soft tissues is the predominant source of x-ray attenuation.
d. In thoracic radiography, Rayleigh scattering is the predominant source of x-ray attenuation.
e. Coherent scattering is an important source of x-ray attenuation in abdominal radiography.

Answer 26

a. Attenuation is the removal of photons from a beam of X-rays or gamma-rays as they pass through matter.

Question 27

27 A high-contrast (short scale) and a low-contrast (long scale) thoracic radiograph are made of the same patient; positioning is identical. If the low contrast image is subtracted from the high contrast image, __________ will be most emphasised in the resultant image.

a. Lung
b. Heart
c. Pulmonary arteries
d. Mediastinum
e. Bone

Answer 27

e. Bone

Question 28

28 Which of the following is an advantage of digital radiographic systems compared with traditional film-screen radiography?

a. Digital radiography systems lower the usage stress on the x-ray tube.
b. Digital radiography systems have superior spatial resolution.
c. Digital radiography systems have superior contrast resolution.
d. The time to complete a typical radiographic study is increased when digital radiography systems are utilized.
e. Quantum mottle is reduced at low exposures

Answer 28

c. Digital radiography systems have superior contrast resolution.

Question 29

29 Which one of the following statements concerning the target (anode) of an x-ray tube is correct?

a. The larger the effective focal spot the better the heat dissipation
b. The larger the x-ray focal spot, the poorer the heat dissipation which results in thermal pitting and damage to the focal spot.
c. Most anodes are made of an alloy of tungsten with a small amount of rhenium
d. Typical anode angles are between 30 and 40 degrees in most x-ray tubes.
e. As the angle of the anode is increased, the apparent focal spot becomes smaller.

Answer 29

c. Most anodes are made of an alloy of tungsten with a small amount of rhenium

Question 30

30 Which one of the following items concerning inherent filtration is true?

a. The window in the glass envelope enclosing the anode and cathode contributes to inherent filtration
b. The upper set of collimator blades contribute to inherent filtration.
c. The oil within the x-ray tube itself (that is used to cool the rotating anode) and the field light mirror do not contribute to inherent filtration
d. Typical values for the amount of inherent filtration are 3 to 4 mm aluminium equivalent
e. Inherent filtration reduces the HVL of the x-ray beam.

Answer 30

a. The window in the glass envelope enclosing the anode and cathode contributes to inherent filtration

Question 31

31 Which one of the following statements concerning x-ray beam “added filtration” is true?

a. The end result of added filtration is a significant decrease in patient radiation dose.
b. Copper is the most commonly used x-ray beam filter.
c. Added filtration is mandated by the US Code of Federal Regulations to ensure removal of high energy x-rays from the x-ray beam.
d. The most commonly used filter is a rhenium/aluminium compound filter.
e. The added filtration should be easily removed to facilitate cleaning

Answer 31

a. The end result of added filtration is a significant decrease in patient radiation dose.

Question 32

32 The length of L4 in a radiograph is 32mm. The focus-film distance is 120 cm and the object-film distance is 30 cm. The true length of L4 is:

a. 8 mm
b. 10.6 mm
c. 18 mm
d. 24 mm
e. 40 mm

Answer 32

d. 24 mm

Question 33

33 In fluoroscopic imaging, which of the following modes of operation would tend to increase patient and operator dose.

a. Variable frame rate pulsed fluoroscopy.
b. Image frame averaging.
c. Last frame hold.
d. Spot films
e. Continuous fluoroscopy.

Answer 33

e. Continuous fluoroscopy.

Question 34

34 Which of the following is the minimal frame rate necessary to create continuous, flicker free, “real time” video images with a standard, analogue video fluoroscopy system?

a. 5 frames per second
b. 15 frames per second
c. 30 frames per second
d. 100 frames per second
e. 300 frames per second

Answer 34

c. 30 frames per second

Question 35

35 In fluoroscopic imaging, which of the following statements is true regarding automatic brightness control (ABC).

a. ABC alters monitor brightness to adjust for changes in room lighting.
b. ABC alters monitor contrast as the attenuation of the patient changes.
c. ABC alters the radiation exposure rate as the attenuation of the patient changes.
d. ABC is not used in modern fluoroscopic systems.
e. ABC results in high doses to thinner parts of the patient

Answer 35

c. ABC alters the radiation exposure rate as the attenuation of the patient changes.

Question 36

36 In fluoroscopic imaging, the conversion factor is a measure of gain of an image intensifier. Which statement regarding the conversion factor is true?

a. The conversion factor degrades with time and can result in the need to replace the image intensifier.
b. The conversion factor does not degrade with time.
c. A higher conversion factor is necessary for flat panel fluoroscopy systems.
d. The conversion factor increases with fluoro system age, due to breakdown of output phosphor.
e. The conversion factor is typically in the range 50-75

Answer 36

a. The conversion factor degrades with time and can result in the need to replace the image intensifier.

Question 37

37 In radiographic systems, where is the Automatic Exposure Control (AEC) detector positioned in the imaging system.

a. In the generator
b. In the x-ray tube
c. In the collimator
d. In the film-screen receiver system
e. On the table

Answer 37

d. In the film-screen receiver system

Question 38

38 Select the term which describes the ability of an imaging system to distinctly depict two objects as they become smaller and closer together.

a. geometric distortion
b. contrast to noise ratio
c. spatial resolution
d. contrast resolution
e. dynamic range

Answer 38

c. spatial resolution

Question 39

39 The modulation transfer function (MTF) describes a property of an imaging system. Select a device that could be used as a rough estimator of MTF for routine quality assurance purposes.

a. spinning top
b. line pair phantom
c. densitometer
d. step wedge
e. Perspex block

Answer 39

b. line pair phantom

Question 40

40 A characteristic curve is used to graphically represent one of the following.

a. spatial resolution
b. contrast to noise ratio
c. detector contrast
d. subject contrast
e. veiling glare

Answer 40

c. detector contrast

Question 41

41 Which one of the following statements concerning scatter radiation is correct?

a. The scatter radiation effect on image quality is greater at higher mAs.
b. The relative amount of scattered radiation produced during radiography decreases rapidly as field size increases, reaching a constant amount at fields approximating 30 x 30 cm.
c. The scatter radiation from the table has a greater effect on image quality than that from the patient.
d. Beyond 10 cm of patient thickness, scatter radiation is no longer a factor as far as film fog is concerned.
e. Scatter radiation effect increases proportional to Z2

Answer 41

a. The scatter radiation effect on image quality is greater at higher mAs.

Question 42

42 Which one of the following statements concerning grids used in x-ray systems is correct?

a. Carbon fibre is an undesirable grid interspace material.
b. The grid ratio is defined as the ratio of the thickness of the lead strips to the distance between them.
c. The focal range is wider for a 3:1 focused grid than for an 8:1 focused grid.
d. A 10:1 crossed grid has an efficiency comparable to a 10:1 linear grid.
e. Grid cutoff rarely occurs with focussed grids

Answer 42

c. The focal range is wider for a 3:1 focused grid than for an 8:1 focused grid.

Question 43

43 When considering digital radiography, increased pixel number combined with decreased pixel size (assume constant field of view) typically will result in…

a. Increased spatial resolution
b. Decreased spatial resolution
c. Increased contrast resolution
d. Decreased contrast resolution
e. Increased signal to noise ratio

Answer 43

a. Increased spatial resolution

Question 44

44 When considering digital radiography, decreased matrix size (assume constant FOV) typically will result in…

a. Increased spatial resolution
b. Decreased spatial resolution
c. Increased contrast resolution
d. Decreased contrast resolution
e. Decreased signal to noise ratio

Answer 44

b. Decreased spatial resolution

Question 45

45 When considering digital radiography, increased bit depth (assume constant matrix size) typically will result in…

a. Increased contrast resolution
b. Decreased contrast resolution
c. Increased spatial resolution
d. Decreased spatial resolution
e. Increased memory capacity

Answer 45

a. Increased contrast resolution

Question 46

46 One advantage of digital radiography is that the images can be processed and manipulated after they are acquired. Which one of the following statements concerning digital image processing and manipulation is true?

a. Image processing can add information to images.
b. Edge enhancement improves spatial resolution by decreasing the statistical noise in the image.
c. Spatial resolution is increased by background subtraction
d. Increasing the number of pixels in the matrix reduces contrast resolution.
e. In general, image processing is done by the system prior to viewing the image, while image manipulation is done by the viewer at the time the image is viewed.

Answer 46

e. In general, image processing is done by the system prior to viewing the image, while image manipulation is done by the viewer at the time the image is viewed.

Question 47

47	A 35cm x 43cm thoracic radiographic image obtained with a DR system in DICOM format, 
would typically be in the range of…
a.	10-200 kilobytes
b.	300-600 kilobytes
c.	0.8-2 megabytes
d.	4-20 megabytes
e.	50-100 megabytes

Answer 47

d. 4-20 megabytes

Question 48

48 Which one of the following is generally true regarding images produced with DR and CR based digital x-ray systems compared with analogue film-screen systems?

a. Digital system produced images generally have similar spatial resolution.
b. Digital system produced images generally have similar contrast resolution
c. Digital system produced images have improved spatial and contrast resolution.
d. Digital system produced images generally have improved spatial resolution.
e. Digital system produced images generally have better contrast resolution.

Answer 48

e. Digital system produced images generally have better contrast resolution.

Question 49

49 What is the minimum standard line pair/mm spatial resolution recommended by the ACVR digital image standards committee in the clinical setting for primary capture digital radiographic devices?

a. 1 lp/mm
b. 2.5 lp/mm
c. 5 lp/mm
d. 10 lp/mm
e. 5 lp/cm

Answer 49

b. 2.5 lp/mm

Question 50

50 Which one of the following is typically a compressed image file format and is least desirable to use for diagnostic image interpretation?

a. BITS
b. DICOM
c. TIFF
d. JPEG
e. PACS

Answer 50

d. JPEG

Question 51

51 Which one of the following statements concerning a DR flat panel x-ray detector is true?

a. If the animal is improperly positioned or the image is otherwise inadequate, the image can be almost instantly repeated.
b. The image is displayed on the computer monitor in about 90 seconds after it is fully rendered.
c. The image is read from the plate using a laser beam that scans the plate in a rectilinear fashion.
d. The active component in all DR panels is a large CCD detector that is interfaced with the computer acquisition station.
e. The detector must be flooded between images to erase the latent image

Answer 51

a. If the animal is improperly positioned or the image is otherwise inadequate, the image can be almost instantly repeated.

Question 52

52 Which one of the following statements regarding CCD type digital x-ray systems is true?

a. CCD systems must first de-magnify the large aerial image to fit on a small CCD chip (detector) by passing light photons through a series of lenses.
b. There is an approximately 10% loss of (data) light photons as they pass through the lens and mirror system to a CCD chip when a 35 by 43 cm thoracic image is produced.
c. Images produced with CCD based x-ray systems have superior spatial resolution compared with analogue 200 speed film-screen systems.
d. CCD systems typically result in images that are superior to those that could be obtained with a DR flat panel detector or computed radiography
e. These systems are ideal as mobile units.

Answer 52

a. CCD systems must first de-magnify the large aerial image to fit on a small CCD chip (detector) by passing light photons through a series of lenses.

Question 53

53 Why do most indirect flat panel digital radiography systems use caesium iodide screens instead of gadolinium oxysulphide screens?

a. Caesium iodide screens are cheaper to manufacture.
b. Caesium iodide emits more electrons per x-ray photon.
c. The k-edge of caesium iodide lies to the right of the typical incidence x-ray beam spectrum
d. There is less lateral spread of light with caesium iodide screens.
e. There is a much higher fill factor with caesium iodide screens.

Answer 53

d. There is less lateral spread of light with caesium iodide screens.

Question 54

54 Why is a thicker vs. thinner selenium detector desired for direct detection flat panel digital radiography systems?

a. A thicker detector helps reduce light spread.
b. A thicker detector improves light photon production.
c. A thicker detector improves x-ray detection efficiency.
d. A thicker detector is cheaper to manufacture.
e. A thicker detector has better spatial resolution

Answer 54

c. A thicker detector improves x-ray detection efficiency.

Question 55

55 Which of the following filter colours would be expected to cause the most safelight fog with your orthochromatic film system?

a. Blue
b. Green
c. Red
d. Amber
e. Violet

Answer 55

b. Green

Question 56

56 Which of the following is TRUE regarding digital radiography systems?

a. The initial stages of all digital detectors involve analogue signals
b. Computed radiography has a much smaller dynamic range than screen-film radiography
c. High exposure level computed radiography images result in increased patient dose and increased radiographic mottle
d. Digital systems produce improved spatial resolution but poorer contrast resolution as compared to screen-film systems
e. Direct digital flat panel systems can be used for fluoroscopy

Answer 56

e. Direct digital flat panel systems can be used for fluoroscopy

Question 57

57 In comparing film-screen radiography and CT, which one of the following statements is TRUE?

a. Film-screen radiographs have lower spatial resolution than CT images
b. CT images have higher contrast resolution than film-screen radiographs
c. Exposure times for film-screen radiographs are similar to those used for CT.
d. For a given anatomic region, the total radiation dose to the patient is similar for film-screen radiographs and CT.
e. In both systems the image is produced from the sum attenuation of each x-ray photon

Answer 57

b. CT images have higher contrast resolution than film-screen radiographs

Question 58

58 Which one of the following definitions of pitch is TRUE for a helical CT scanner with single row of detectors?

a. Pitch is the ratio of the speed of the table movement divided by the scanning time.
b. Pitch is the ratio of the CT matrix size divided by the scanning time.
c. Pitch is the ratio of the distance of table movement for a 360-degree tube rotation divided by the scanning time.
d. Pitch is the ratio of the distance of table movement for a 360-degree tube rotation divided by the slice thickness.
e. Pitch is the ratio of the CT matrix size divided by the slice thickness.

Answer 58

d. Pitch is the ratio of the distance of table movement for a 360-degree tube rotation divided by the slice thickness.

Question 59

59 Which one of the following statements concerning CT numbers (Hounsfield units) is TRUE?

a. Normal brain tissue has CT numbers in the range of -30 to +40.
b. Normal bone has no CT numbers greater than +1000.
c. A lipoma is expected to have a CT number in the range of -50 to +100.
d. An acute hematoma is expected to have a CT number in the range of +50 to +80.
e. Normal lung has a mean CT number of -200

Answer 59

d. An acute hematoma is expected to have a CT number in the range of +50 to +80.

Question 60

60 In computed tomography, ability to detect a small density difference between adjacent large objects, provided all other factors are kept constant, is increased by:

a. decreasing the scanning time
b. reducing the slice thickness
c. selecting a smaller focal spot
d. increasing the dose
e. increasing the matrix size

Answer 60

d. increasing the dose

Question 61

61 Choose the words from the list below that correctly complete the following sentence regarding windowing of CT images: A ___________ window width is used to simultaneously view many different tissue densities, and should be used to examine ___________ structures.

a. Wide, soft tissue
b. Wide, small
c. Wide, bone
d. Narrow, soft tissue
e. Narrow, small

Answer 61

b. Wide, small

Question 62

62 Choose the word from the list below that correctly completes the following sentence regarding windowing of CT images: A reasonable window to view the ___________ would be a window level of +50 and a window width of +400.

a. Liver
b. Lung
c. Pelvic bones
d. Brain
e. Eye

Answer 62

a. Liver

Question 63

63 For a CT scanner producing a 40 cm diameter image with a 512x512 matrix, the size of each pixel is:

a. 0.2 mm
b. 0.3 mm
c. 0.5 mm
d. 0.8 mm
e. 1.2 mm

Answer 63

d. 0.8 mm

Question 64

64 Which one of the following statements concerning CT beam-hardening artifacts is TRUE?

a. Beam-hardening artifacts are caused by disproportionate attenuation of higher energy x-rays.
b. Beam hardening artifacts are caused by a decrease in the average energy of transmitted x-rays.
c. Beam-hardening artifacts are caused by low-density osseous structures.
d. Beam-hardening artifacts may be significantly reduced by the use of thick-section reformatting of thinly collimated CT images.
e. Beam hardening artifacts do not occur if a sharp reconstruction algorithm is used

Answer 64

d. Beam-hardening artifacts may be significantly reduced by the use of thick-section reformatting of thinly collimated CT images.

Question 65

65 Concentric rings in an image from a 3rd generation CT scanner is likely to represent which of the following problems?

a. Cupping artifact
b. Patient motion
c. Detector out of calibration
d. Beam hardening
e. High attenuation objects

Answer 65

c. Detector out of calibration

Question 66

66 Which one of the following statements regarding adrenal CT is TRUE?

a. The non-enhanced CT density of adrenal glands in clinically normal dogs ranges from +20 to +48 HU.
b. Adrenal adenomas differ in size and shape from adrenal adenocarcinomas.
c. Pheochromocytomas most commonly appear homogenous in post-contrast images.
d. Enhancement of vasculature by intravenous contrast medium is needed for CT detection of adrenal masses.
e. The difference between attenuation of the left and right adrenal glands is statistically significant.

Answer 66

a. The non-enhanced CT density of adrenal glands in clinically normal dogs ranges from +20 to +48 HU.

Question 67

67 Which one of the following statements is TRUE regarding the expected CT characteristics of canine acute necrotizing pancreatitis?

a. The pancreas appears smaller than normal.
b. The pancreas exhibits homogeneous contrast enhancement
c. The pancreas appears hypoattenuating relative to the spleen, kidneys in pre-contrast images.
d. The fat surrounding the pancreas exhibits homogeneous contrast enhancement.
e. The mesentery adjacent to the pancreas appears diffusely hypoattenuating.

Answer 67

c. The pancreas appears hypoattenuating relative to the spleen, kidneys in pre-contrast images.

Question 68

68 Which of the following statements regarding brachial plexus CT is TRUE?

a. Brachial plexus tumour invasion into the spinal cord is not detectable with CT.
b. Brachial plexus tumours frequently exhibit minimal contrast enhancement.
c. Brachial plexus tumours frequently exhibit ill-defined margins.
d. Well-circumscribed brachial plexus tumours exhibit central enhancement and peripheral hypoattenuation
e. Dogs with brachial plexus tumours frequently have periscapular muscle atrophy.

Answer 68

e. Dogs with brachial plexus tumours frequently have periscapular muscle atrophy.

Question 69

69 Which of the following statements concerning dual phase CT angiography of the canine portal and hepatic vasculature is TRUE?

a. The hepatic artery is identified as a single branch of 6mm diameter at the porta hepatis
b. The optimal delay time for arterial phase scanning can be determined from kilogram body weight.
c. The arterial phase is best acquired by scanning from caudal to cranial.
d. The portal vein decreases in diameter from the level of L5 to the caudal border of the liver.
e. The hepatic veins are best identified during the portal phase.

Answer 69

c. The arterial phase is best acquired by scanning from caudal to cranial.

Question 70

70 Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding expected CT characteristics of equine alveolitis and sinusitis?

a. Hyperattenuation of the cementum is a common finding in horses with dental caries.
b. Loosening of the peridontium is a characteristic of early dental disease.
c. Exudate commonly has a lower CT number than swollen mucosal tissue.
d. Pulpitis indicates early infection
e. Endosteal sclerosis of the maxilla is a characteristic of chronic sinusitis.

Answer 70

b. Loosening of the peridontium is a characteristic of early dental disease.

Question 71

71 Which one of the following statements concerning MRI instrumentation is TRUE?

a. Cryogens such as liquid helium and nitrogen are used to supercool permanent magnets.
b. T2 weighted sequences have better signal to noise ratios with 0.2T magnets.
c. In order to acquire a similar pulse-sequence with a 0.2T magnet compared with a 1.5T magnet, the scanning times would be longer.
d. All other factors being equal, a low magnetic field strength scanner has a higher signal-to-noise ratio than a high field strength scanner.
e. Copper shielding is used in the walls of an MR scan room to prevent the exit of stray radiofrequency waves because these could interfere with local radio wave sources.

Answer 71

c. In order to acquire a similar pulse-sequence with a 0.2T magnet compared with a 1.5T magnet, the scanning times would be longer.

Question 72

72 Which one of the following statements concerning Gadolinium is TRUE?

a. Gadolinium shortens the T1 relaxation time.
b. Gadolinium appears as a signal void in T2 weighted images.
c. Gadolinium-containing contrast media do not produce allergic-like adverse reactions.
d. The primary route of excretion of gadolinium is via the hepatobiliary system and the majority is excreted within 6 hours.
e. Gadolinium has greater effect in fat than water.

Answer 72

a. Gadolinium shortens the T1 relaxation time.

Question 73

73 For magnetic resonance imaging, which one of the following statements would result in decreased scan time?

a. Decrease slice thickness per unit volume
b. Reducing number of excitations to a minimum
c. Use longest TR possible
d. Maximize number of phase encodings
e. Use cardiac triggering

Answer 73

b. Reducing number of excitations to a minimum

Question 74

74 Choose the correct words that will complete the sentence: The typical signal intensity of a 7-day old intracranial haemorrhage is ______on a T1-weighted image and ______on a T2-weighted image.

a. Hypointense, isointense
b. Hyperintense, hypointense
c. Hyperintense, hyperintense
d. Isointense, hyperintense
e. Isointense, isointense

Answer 74

c. Hyperintense, hyperintense

Question 75

75 Increased signal intensity of the brain seen in MR images after administration of intravenous gadolinium-containing contrast media occurs mainly because of:

a. presence of oedema
b. highly vascular lesions
c. damage to the blood-brain barrier
d. presence of actively dividing cells
e. presence of demyelination

Answer 75

c. damage to the blood-brain barrier

Question 76

76 Which one of the following situations would warrant an intentional MRI quench?

a. Cardiac monitoring device failure
b. Ferromagnetic “missile” trapping the patient in the gantry
c. Fire in the room
d. Major plumbing leak in the room
e. Patient cardiopulmonary arrest

Answer 76

b. Ferromagnetic “missile” trapping the patient in the gantry

Question 77

77 A 1.5 T MRI examination of the lumbo-sacral region is requested for a dog with suspected cauda equina syndrome. The dog has a total hip prosthesis composed of a ceramic acetabular cup and stainless steel femoral head and stem. Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to occur during the scan?

a. The lumbosacral region may appear distorted.
b. The affected proximal femur may be obscured by a signal void.
c. The metallic implant may cause local tissue heating.
d. The metallic implant may shift position.
e. The hemipelvis on the affected side cannot be visualised on gradient echo sequences

Answer 77

d. The metallic implant may shift position.

Question 78

78 Choose the MRI pulse sequence that uses a short inversion time to suppress signal from fat, while maintaining a high fluid signal.

a. Gradient echo
b. Fat Saturation
c. STIR
d. FLAIR
e. Saturation Recovery

Answer 78

c. STIR

Question 79

79 Choose the MRI pulse sequence that is used to suppress signal from pure fluids, therefore differentiating CSF from non-CSF signal.

a. Gradient echo
b. Fat Saturation
c. STIR
d. FLAIR
e. Saturation Recovery

Answer 79

d. FLAIR

Question 80

80 The radiofrequency (RF) pulse sequence for a proton density-weighted spin echo MR scan utilizes the following combination of inversion time (TI) repetition time (TR) and echo time (TE):

a. short TR and short TE, short TI
b. short TR and short TE, long TI
c. short TR and long TE, short TI
d. long TR and short TE, no TI
e. long TR and long TE, no TI

Answer 80

d. long TR and short TE, no TI

Question 81

82 What artifact would be seen if you were to try to image 131I with a low energy all purpose (LEAP) parallel hole collimator?

a. Edge Packing
b. Non-uniform flood field
c. Septal penetration
d. Little to no counts in discrete areas
e. Poor resolution

Answer 81

c. Septal penetration

Question 82

83 Which of the following is characteristic of an image that would be obtained by use of a pinhole collimator?

a. Minification of the organ
b. Inversion and mirror image of the organ
c. Higher count rate compared to a flat field collimator
d. Poor spatial resolution
e. Image distortion

Answer 82

b. Inversion and mirror image of the organ

Question 83

84 When performing an in-vivo red blood cell labelling technique, prior to injecting the technetium, you must first inject?

a. “Cold” (non-radioactive) pyrophosphate
b. “Cold” (non-radioactive) stannous ion
c. “Hot” (radioactive) stannous ion
d. “Hot” (radioactive) teboroxime ion
e. “Cold” (non-radioactive) Sestamibi ion

Answer 83

b. “Cold” (non-radioactive) stannous ion

Question 84

81 A pulmonary perfusion scan is performed in an adult dog using 99mTc-MAA. Ten minutes after IV injection static images show activity in the lungs, brain, and kidneys. No other abnormal areas of uptake are seen in the dog. Which one statement best explains these findings?

a. There was poor tagging efficiency (free technetium is present)
b. 99mTc-DTPA was inadvertently administered instead.
c. The dog may have pulmonary thromboembolism
d. The dog may have a portosystemic shunt
e. The dog may have a right to left cardiac shunt

Answer 84

e. The dog may have a right to left cardiac shunt

Question 85

85 For the disease and phases of imaging listed below, choose whether 99mTc diphosphonate uptake at the affected body region would be increased, decreased, or unchanged relative to normal tissue.
Osteomyelitis: soft tissue phase __________, bone phase _________.
a. Increased, increased
b. Increased, unchanged
c. Decreased, decreased
d. Decreased, unchanged
e. Decreased, increased

Answer 85

a. Increased, increased

Question 86

86 For the disease and phases of imaging listed below, choose whether 99mTc diphosphonate uptake at the affected body region would be increased, decreased, or unchanged relative to normal tissue.
Complete distal limb ischemia: soft tissue phase _________, bone phase ____________.
a. Increased, increased
b. Increased, unchanged
c. Decreased, decreased
d. Decreased, unchanged
e. Decreased, increased

Answer 86

c. Decreased, decreased

Question 87

87 When using 99mTc-MAA for perfusion imaging, what is generally considered to be the “classic” appearance of pulmonary thromboembolic disease?

a. Segmental perfusion defects with corresponding radiographic abnormalities
b. Segmental perfusion defects without corresponding radiographic abnormalities
c. Non-segmental perfusion defects without corresponding radiographic abnormalities
d. Non-segmental perfusion defects with corresponding radiographic abnormalities
e. Diffuse, ill-defined perfusion defects without corresponding radiographic abnormalities

Answer 87

b. Segmental perfusion defects without corresponding radiographic abnormalities

Question 88

88 In order to obtain the maximum Tc-99m activity per elution from a Mo-99/Tc-99m generator, the generator should be eluted every:

a. 6 hours
b. 12 hours
c. 18 hours
d. 24 hours
e. elution frequency has no effect on per elution yield

Answer 88

d. 24 hours

Question 89

89 On the basis of their radioactive emission and radiation dose to the patient, which of the following isotopes of iodine is best suited to thyroid scintigraphy?

a. 121-I
b. 123-I
c. 125-I
d. 127-I
e. 131-I

Answer 89

b. 123-I

Question 90

90 According to conventional colour-flow Doppler imaging, which colour indicates a small positive Doppler shift?

a. red
b. orange
c. yellow
d. green
e. blue

Answer 90

a. red

Question 91

91 Complete the following statement: As the angle between the Doppler ultrasound beam and the blood vessel increases, _______________________:

a. the Doppler shift increases
b. pulse repetition frequency must increase to compensate
c. it is not longer possible to detect flow
d. errors in velocity measurements increase in magnitude
e. wraparound artefact occurs

Answer 91

d. errors in velocity measurements increase in magnitude

Question 92

92 When examining a dog with chronic diarrhoea, what ultrasonographic finding is approximately 50 times more likely to be observed with neoplasia than with enteritis?

a. Increased mucosal thickness
b. Loss of bowel wall layering
c. Irregular mucosal margin
d. Localized ileus
e. Increased peristalsis

Answer 92

b. Loss of bowel wall layering

Question 93

93 Which one of the following descriptions of the kidneys is most typical of the ultrasonographic findings in a cat with renal lymphosarcoma?

a. Small, hyperechoic, misshapen kidneys
b. Small kidneys with hypoechoic rims
c. Normally sized, hyperechoic, misshapen kidneys
d. Large kidneys with focal hypoechoic areas or masses
e. Numerous, thin walled, anechoic, structures in the renal cortex

Answer 93

d. Large kidneys with focal hypoechoic areas or masses

Question 94

94 Which one of the following statements is TRUE regarding the diagnosis of diseases of the feline pancreas?

a. Transabdominal ultrasound has a high sensitivity for the diagnosis of acute pancreatic necrosis (APN).
b. APN and chronic non-suppurative pancreatitis in cats cannot be distinguished from each other based on ultrasonographic findings.
c. A common non-pancreatic ultrasonographic finding in patients with APN is gallbladder distention and leakage.
d. The histological diagnosis of APN is similar to necrotizing pancreatitis in dogs, except the necrosis is confined to the central portion of the pancreas in cats compared to dogs.
e. Chronic non-suppurative pancreatitis in cats is very uncommon

Answer 94

b. APN and chronic non-suppurative pancreatitis in cats cannot be distinguished from each other based on ultrasonographic findings.

Question 95

95 Complete the following statement: In a normal animal, during isovolumetric contraction, the:

a. contraction corresponds with the p-wave of the ECG
b. pressure in the left ventricle is the same as it is in end diastole
c. pressure in the left ventricle increases while the AV valves are closed.
d. mitral valve is open allowing blood flow into the left ventricle.
e. aortic valve opens allowing blood to be ejected from the left ventricle.

Answer 95

c. pressure in the left ventricle increases while the AV valves are closed.

Question 96

96 Which control on an ultrasound machine can be used to reduce high amplitude noise arising from blood vessel walls or valves (“clutter”)?

a. Time-gain Compensation
b. Low frequency filter
c. Gain
d. Baseline shift
e. Pulse repetition frequency

Answer 96

b. Low frequency filter

Question 97

97 Which of the following statements about use of ultrasound contrast media is correct?

a. Ultrasound contrast media do not survive transit through the pulmonary capillaries.
b. Many liver neoplasms are characterized by large, tortuous feeding portal vessels.
c. Most malignant hepatic neoplasms appear hypoechoic compared to the surrounding normal parenchyma during peak enhancement.
d. Ultrasound contrast studies do not allow differentiation of hyperplastic nodules from neoplastic nodules
e. Liver-specific imaging, using microbubbles that have uptake into the hepatic parenchyma, lasts less than 2 minutes.

Answer 97

c. Most malignant hepatic neoplasms appear hypoechoic compared to the surrounding normal parenchyma during peak enhancement.

Question 98

98 Two-dimensional, gray-scale ultrasonography of the brain is possible in a dog with an open fronto-parietal fontanelle. At what age does the fronto-parietal suture of the Beagle normally close?

a. Birth
b. 1 week
c. 1 month
d. 3 months
e. 6 months

Answer 98

a. Birth

Question 99

99 During an ultrasound scan of the abdomen of a clinically normal geriatric cat, a multilocular hepatobiliary mass containing thin-walled cysts-like structures is observed. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

a. Cholangiohepatitis
b. Hepatic abscess
c. Biliary mucocoele
d. Biliary cystadenoma
e. Hepatic carcinoma

Answer 99

d. Biliary cystadenoma

Question 100

100 Complete the following statement: Ureteral jets (flow of urine into the bladder) are visible ultrasonographically:

a. in many dogs with ectopic ureters
b. in many dogs with polyuria
c. depending on urine specific gravity
d. only when using colour-flow Doppler
e. in all dogs if looked for hard enough

Answer 100

c. depending on urine specific gravity

Question 101

101 When ultrasound waves travel through a medium that contains many small scatterers (e.g. red blood cells), the amount of sound that is scattered will:

a. decrease with increasing beam area.
b. decrease with increasing frequency.
c. increase with increasing wavelength.
d. increase with increasing frequency.
e. increase with increasing velocity

Answer 101

d. increase with increasing frequency.

Question 102

102 Complete the following statement: As ultrasound frequency increases _________.

a. the proportion of attenuation due to scattering decreases
b. lateral resolution improves
c. axial resolution is unaffected
d. penetration increases
e. far field focusing gets worse

Answer 102

b. lateral resolution improves

Question 103

103 Complete the following statement: Ultrasound propagation speed increases if:

a. density is decreased with constant stiffness
b. density is increased with constant stiffness
c. stiffness is decreased with constant density
d. frequency of the ultrasound is decreased
e. molecules are placed further apart

Answer 103

a. density is decreased with constant stiffness

Question 104

104 The propagation speed of ultrasound in “soft tissues” is closest to:

a. 15.4 metres/second
b. 154 metres/second
c. 1,540 millimetres/second
d. 1,540 metres/second
e. poep / dogshit

Answer 104

d. 1,540 metres/second

Question 105

105 Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding a linear phased array transducer?

a. In this type of transducer the ultrasound beam can be steered by activating individual crystal elements at slightly different times.
b. This type of transducer contains one large crystal element formed in a linear shape.
c. This type of transducer can have only one focal zone, although its depth can be varied.
d. This type of transducer always produces a sector shaped image.
e. In this type of transducer the crystal elements move mechanically

Answer 105

a. In this type of transducer the ultrasound beam can be steered by activating individual crystal elements at slightly different times.

Question 106

106 Which of the following statements about ultrasound-guided drainage of prostatic abscesses is correct?

a. Peritonitis is a common complication
b. Repeated drainage is often necessary to resolve the condition
c. It is essential to flush the abscess cavity with alcohol after drainage
d. Ultrasound-guided drainage of prostatic abscesses is useful only in dogs that are already castrated.
e. Only small abscesses (<1cm in diameter) should be drained in this way.

Answer 106

b. Repeated drainage is often necessary to resolve the condition

Question 107

107 The nephrogram phase of excretory urography should be most radiopaque within _____________ after bolus injection of intravenous contrast medium.

a. 1-3 seconds
b. 10-30 seconds
c. 1-3 minutes
d. 3-5 minutes
e. None of the above

Answer 107

b. 10-30 seconds

Question 108

108 In excretory urography, good initial opacification of the nephrogram phase with persistent opacity 3 hours after injection may represent:

a. Normal
b. Inadequate contrast medium dose
c. Acute extra-renal obstruction
d. Renal artery thrombus
e. Contrast-medium induced renal failure

Answer 108

e. Contrast-medium induced renal failure

Question 109

109 Of the selections listed below, which is the most common reaction seen in conscious dogs following rapid intravenous iodinated contrast medium injection?

a. Urticaria
b. Nausea and/or vomiting
c. Acute renal failure
d. Acute hypotension
e. Acute diarrhoea

Answer 109

b. Nausea and/or vomiting

Question 110

110 Which of the following is a contra-indication for the use of iodinated contrast agents in oesophagram or upper GI studies?

a. Dehydration
b. Endoscopy to follow
c. Potential surgery to follow
d. Suspected perforation
e. Suspected foreign body

Answer 110

a. Dehydration

Question 111

111 Which of the following statements regarding contrast media is TRUE?

a. The incidence of adverse side effects of ionic iodinated contrast media is directly proportional to their tonicity.
b. A test dose of contrast medium is usually an effective means of testing for a non-idiosyncratic reaction.
c. The osmolarity of ionic contrast media is approximately 1900 to 2100 mOsm/kg.
d. Ionic iodinated contrast media do not cross an intact blood brain barrier.
e. Diatrizoate is a suitable agent for myelography

Answer 111

c. The osmolarity of ionic contrast media is approximately 1900 to 2100 mOsm/kg.

Question 112

112 Non-ionic contrast agents include all but which one of the following:

a. Metrizamide
b. Diatrizoate
c. Iohexol
d. Iopamidol
e. Iotrolan

Answer 112

b. Diatrizoate

Question 113

113 Regarding cardiac catheterisation, which of the following is FALSE?

a. Pressures can only be measured with end hole catheters.
b. End holes are necessary when the catheter is inserted over a guide wire.
c. Lack of an end hole decreases the risk of intramyocardial injection.
d. Right-sided cardiac catheterization can be accomplished through the external jugular or femoral vein.
e. Pigtail catheters are suitable for intracardiac catheterisation

Answer 113

a. Pressures can only be measured with end hole catheters.

Question 114

114 An otherwise healthy (30 kg) anesthetized dog (thiopental and isofluorane) having just received a standard dose of Iothalamate Sodium intravenously suddenly shows evidence of bradycardia (25bpm), hypotension (mean BP 40mmHg), and second degree AV block. In addition to ensuring adequate ventilation, what would be the most appropriate initial course of action to take?

a. monitor since this is a common transient phenomenon that will likely correct within minutes.
b. administer epinephrine
c. administer dopamine or dobutamine and a fluid bolus
d. administer atropine or glycopyrrolate
e. administer doxapram

Answer 114

d. administer atropine or glycopyrrolate

Question 115

115 With respect to Barium Impregnated Polyethylene Spheres (BIPS), which statement is most correct?

a. There is good correlation between BIPS and scintigraphy in the evaluation of gastrointestinal motility.
b. BIPS are most useful in ruling out acute mechanical small bowel obstructions.
c. BIPS are most useful in ruling out chronic partial small bowel obstructions.
d. Retention of large BIPS within the stomach and normal passage of small BIPS into the small intestine is definitive evidence of pyloric stenosis.
e. BIPS demonstrate mucosal detail

Answer 115

c. BIPS are most useful in ruling out chronic partial small bowel obstructions.

Question 116

116 Injection of microbubble-laden saline into a peripheral vein and subsequent visualization of bubbles in the abdominal aorta confirms the presence of a:

a. left-to-right intracardiac shunt
b. right-to-left shunt
c. left-to-right extracardiac shunt
d. pulmonary hypertension
e. systemic hypertension

Answer 116

b. right-to-left shunt

Question 117

117 The most likely cause of a myelographic intradural/extramedullary lesion is:

a. haemorrhage
b. spinal cord oedema
c. neoplasia
d. meningitis
e. vertebral fracture

Answer 117

c. neoplasia

Question 118

118 Which of the following is least likely to be demonstrated by non-selective angiography?

a. Aortic thrombosis
b. Aortic insufficiency
c. Pulmonic stenosis
d. Cor triatriatum dexter
e. Tetralogy of Fallot

Answer 118

b. Aortic insufficiency

Question 119

119 Which of the following is TRUE regarding portosystemic shunts?

a. The majority of single extrahepatic portosystemic shunts connect the portal vein or one of its tributaries with the caudal vena cava cranial to the phrenicoabdominal vein.
b. Congenital portosystemic shunts occur more commonly in purebred cats than mixed breed cats.
c. Congenital portosystemic shunts are usually associated with portal hypertension.
d. Preoperative nuclear scintigraphy is clearly superior to intraoperative mesenteric portovenography for predicting whether or not a shunt is amenable to surgical closure.
e. Patent ductus venosus is common in the Persian

Answer 119

a. The majority of single extrahepatic portosystemic shunts connect the portal vein or one of its tributaries with the caudal vena cava cranial to the phrenicoabdominal vein.

Question 120

120 Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding contrast studies of the foal gastrointestinal tract?

a. The age of the foal has no effect on barium transit time to the transverse colon.
b. Ingesta or sand in the large intestine has a significant effect on barium transit.
c. Barium enemas in the foal, using barium sulphate suspensions are diagnostically useful only in evaluation of the large colon, transverse colon, and rectum.
d. The dose of barium sulphate suspension for foal upper GI series is 5 ml/kg.
e. Barium sulphate suspension at 20% w/v should be used

Answer 120

d. The dose of barium sulphate suspension for foal upper GI series is 5 ml/kg.

Question 121

121 Which of the following statements is TRUE?

a. Sedation is not recommended when administering barium orally with a dose syringe
b. Diazepam, fentanyl-droperidol, and oxymorphone increase the resting gastro-oesophageal sphincter pressure.
c. Barbiturates and opiates are ideal for fractious patients as they have no effect on gastric emptying time.
d. Anti-diarrheal medications such as Pepto-Bismol are usually radiolucent.
e. Ketamine increases intestinal transit time.

Answer 121

a. Sedation is not recommended when administering barium orally with a dose syringe

Question 122

122 Which of the following statements about arthrography is TRUE?

a. Contrast media @ 600-800 mg iodine / ml solutions should be used
b. Water soluble, non-ionic iodinated contrast media and water soluble, ionic iodinated contrast media give comparable definition of joint structures in positive contrast arthrography.
c. Non-ionic iodinated contrast media produces a lesser inflammatory response in the joint after intra-articular injection than do the ionic iodinated contrast media.
d. After injection of positive contrast medium into an equine joint, the joint should be flexed and extended for 15-25 minutes to allow adequate and even dispersal of contrast throughout the joint.
e. To avoid air bubbles during double-contrast arthrography, the positive contrast medium should be injected before the negative contrast medium.

Answer 122

c. Non-ionic iodinated contrast media produces a lesser inflammatory response in the joint after intra-articular injection than do the ionic iodinated contrast media.

Question 123

123 You are asked to evaluate a dog with a suspected oesophageal perforation secondary to a foreign body. With respect to selection of an appropriate contrast medium, which statement is TRUE?

a. Iodinated contrast medium is the most effective at identifying perforation
b. Ionic iodinated contrast medium should not be used as if there is leakage into the mediastinum, the hyperosmolarity may result in a fulminating mediastinitis.
c. Non-ionic iodinated contrast media are likely to cause less mediastinal fluid accumulation than the ionic agents.
d. Barium paste should be used as it coats the oesophageal mucosa allowing easy visualization of any defect in the mucosa.
e. Barium liquid is ideal as it is essentially inert and will not cause fluid to draw into the mediastinum if a leak is present.

Answer 123

c. Non-ionic iodinated contrast media are likely to cause less mediastinal fluid accumulation than the ionic agents.

Question 124

124 You have been asked to evaluate a cat with a suspected dysphagia and a predisposition to aspiration and want to minimize any complications associated with the procedure. Which statement is most correct?

a. Barium paste is preferred in these cases, as being viscous and thick, there is less chance of contrast medium inhalation and the associated complications.
b. Barium sulphate suspension could be used with caution, since small amounts can be cleared by normal pulmonary physiological mechanisms.
c. Mixing barium with kibble will reduce the risk of any inhalation and asphyxiation as a result of cricopharyngeal dysfunction.
d. Barium mixed with a liquid has the optimum viscosity for this situation.
e. Ionic iodinated contrast media are less likely to cause problems than barium sulphate suspension if aspirated.

Answer 124

b. Barium sulphate suspension could be used with caution, since small amounts can be cleared by normal pulmonary physiological mechanisms.

Question 125

125 A dog requires a positive-contrast upper gastrointestinal tract examination. Unfortunately, it is too fractious to obtain the study without sedation. Acepromazine (0.1 mg/kg, IV) and butorphanol tartrate (0.05 mg/kg, IV) were administered. Which of the following statements is true:

a. The gastric emptying time will be slightly prolonged; however, morphologic information about the GI tract can still be obtained.
b. Intestinal transit time will be unaffected.
c. The examination will be non-diagnostic since the sedation will cause a functional ileus and the contrast medium will not be able to pass into the gastrointestinal tract.
d. The sedatives will have little effect on gastric emptying or morphologic information.
e. Butorphanol tartrate at 0.1 mg/kg, IV should be used alone instead of combining the drug with acepromazine to prevent the delays in gastric emptying time.

Answer 125

a. The gastric emptying time will be slightly prolonged; however, morphologic information about the GI tract can still be obtained.

Question 126

126 What factors determine the relative opacity of a urolith compared to the opacity of surrounding positive contrast medium?

a. The concentration of the contrast medium.
b. The composition of the urolith.
c. Thickness of the urolith compared to the depth of the contrast medium
d. The degree of contrast medium adhesion to or absorption by the urolith
e. All of the above.

Answer 126

e. All of the above.

Question 127

127 Myelography is properly performed when contrast medium disperses between which structures?

a. Vertebral canal and dura
b. Dura and arachnoid
c. Pia mater and spinal cord
d. Arachnoid and pia mater
e. Ligamentum flavum and dura

Answer 127

d. Arachnoid and pia mater

Question 128

128 Balloon valvuloplasty is a common treatment in the management of pulmonic stenosis. In some patients, this procedure is contra-indicated due to a circumpulmonary left coronary artery originating from a single right coronary artery. What breed is pre-disposed to this anomaly?

a. Boxer
b. Bulldog
c. Pug
d. German shepherd dog
e. Mastiff

Answer 128

b. Bulldog

Question 129

129 With respect to optimising image quality in retrograde contrast urethrograms in both male and female dogs, which statement is generally most CORRECT?

a. The bladder should be near fully distended so as to afford some resistance during infusion of contrast medium into the urethra.
b. The bladder should be emptied before performing a retrograde study to ensure there is not inadvertently excessive pressure in the bladder and urethra resulting in rupture.
c. The relative filling or distension of the bladder makes no difference to the quality of the urethrogram.
d. Pre-filling the bladder with carbon dioxide rather than positive contrast medium is preferable when performing retrograde urethral studies.
e. The radiograph should be made 5 minutes after terminating the injection

Answer 129

a. The bladder should be near fully distended so as to afford some resistance during infusion of contrast medium into the urethra.

Question 130

130 With respect to positive contrast retrograde urethrograms in male dogs, what statement is most CORRECT?

a. Opacification of cystic structures within the prostate is normal.
b. Opacification of the prostatic ducts is abnormal and an indicator of prostatic disease
c. Opacification of the prostatic ducts is commonly seen in normal intact males but is abnormal in castrated males.
d. A small defect in the ventral wall of the urethra near the centre of the prostate usually represents the colliculus seminalis and the presence of this defect indicates disruption to the integrity of the prostatic urethra.
e. A small defect in the dorsal wall of the urethra near the centre of the prostate usually represents the colliculus seminalis and the presence of this defect is usually of no clinical significance.

Answer 130

e. A small defect in the dorsal wall of the urethra near the centre of the prostate usually represents the colliculus seminalis and the presence of this defect is usually of no clinical significance.

Question 131

131 What types of adverse intravenous iodinated contrast media reactions are appropriately treated with steroids and anti-histamines?

a. Coughing, sneezing
b. Bradycardia, hypotension
c. Erythema, urticaria
d. Anxiety, agitation
e. Vomiting

Answer 131

c. Erythema, urticaria

Question 132

132 Double contrast gastrography is best indicated to evaluate for:

a. Gastric motility
b. Gastric foreign body
c. Gastric mucosal mass
d. Gastric perforation
e. All of the above

Answer 132

c. Gastric mucosal mass

Question 133

133 In double contrast cystography, which of these describes air bubbles?

a. Round to irregular in shape, indistinct borders, located in the centre of the positive contrast puddle
b. Round shape, smooth borders, located in the periphery of the positive contrast puddle
c. Irregular shape and borders, located anywhere in bladder lumen
d. Not usually visualized since they blend in with the negative contrast
e. Irregular shape, crisp borders, tend to coalesce over time

Answer 133

b. Round shape, smooth borders, located in the periphery of the positive contrast puddle

Question 134

134 Gastric pneumatosis in dogs with gastric dilatation-volvulus

a. is caused by bacterial fermentation.
b. may be secondary to gastric wall necrosis or gastric trocharisation.
c. has low specificity as a test for gastric wall necrosis.
d. indicates a greater than 50% chance that gastric wall necrosis is present.
e. predicts a greater than 50% chance that gastric wall resection will be required at surgery.

Answer 134

b. may be secondary to gastric wall necrosis or gastric trocharisation.

Question 135

135 Which one of the following blood test results is least likely to be observed in a dog with chronic renal disease?

a. Elevated serum phosphorus
b. Low-normal or low serum ionized calcium
c. Low serum lipase
d. Non-regenerative anaemia
e. Elevated serum amylase

Answer 135

c. Low serum lipase

Question 136

136 Which of the following primary neoplasms is appropriately paired with its paraneoplastic syndrome?

a. Adrenal adenocarcinoma - Hypercalcaemia
b. Gastrointestinal lymphoma - Hypertrophic osteopathy
c. Multiple myeloma - Polyclonal hypergammaglobulinaemia
d. Thymoma - Megaoesophagus
e. Tonsillar carcinoma - Budd-Chiari syndrome

Answer 136

d. Thymoma - Megaoesophagus

Question 137

137 With regard to canine brain infarction, which of the following statements is most correct?

a. Small breed dogs are more likely to have lacunar thalamic infarcts than large breed dogs.
b. Midbrain infarcts are more common than cerebellar infarcts.
c. Lacunar cerebellar infarcts carry a better prognosis
d. Chronic renal disease and hyperadrenocorticism are the most common concurrent diseases found in affected dogs.
e. Systemic hypertension is a common concurrent finding.

Answer 137

d. Chronic renal disease and hyperadrenocorticism are the most common concurrent diseases found in affected dogs.

Question 138

138 Which of the following statements regarding feline hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) is true?

a. The disease is characterized by enlarged papillary muscles and thickened right and left ventricular myocardium.
b. Because of its autosomal dominant inheritance, feline HCM is more common in purebred cats than in mixed breed cats.
c. The mechanism for pleural effusion with left heart failure is likely due to pulmonary hypertension leading to secondary right heart failure.
d. Systolic anterior motion of the mitral valve is commonly associated with left ventricular outflow obstruction and mitral regurgitation.
e. Clinical signs are usually associated with output failure.

Answer 138

d. Systolic anterior motion of the mitral valve is commonly associated with left ventricular outflow obstruction and mitral regurgitation.

Question 139

139 Which one of the following statements about chylothorax is true?

a. Chylothorax only occurs when there is disruption of the thoracic duct.
b. Thoracic lymphangiectasia is often associated with chylothorax.
c. Italian Greyhounds are predisposed to development of chylothorax.
d. Caudal vena cava thrombi can induce chylothorax.
e. Chylothorax is more common Persian in than Siamese cats

Answer 139

b. Thoracic lymphangiectasia is often associated with chylothorax.

Question 140

140 Which of the following statements about Hansen type I disk disease is true?

a. It is associated with chondroid disc degeneration that occurs primarily in non-chondrodystrophoid breeds.
b. It is associated with fibroid disc degeneration primarily affecting chondrodystrophoid breeds.
c. It occurs with degeneration and protrusion of the dorsal annulus into the vertebral canal.
d. It occurs with rupture of the dorsal annulus fibrosus and extrusion of the nucleus pulposus into the vertebral canal.
e. It is associated with minimal compression but marked swelling of the spinal cord.

Answer 140

d. It occurs with rupture of the dorsal annulus fibrosus and extrusion of the nucleus pulposus into the vertebral canal.

Question 141

141 Which of the following statements about Hansen type II disk disease is true?

a. Even with marked cord compression, the neurologic signs may be chronic, progressive and mild
b. It is frequently associated with radiographic evidence of concurrent disc calcification.
c. It is an acute, forceful extrusion that causes cord compression and severe neurologic signs.
d. It occurs with rupture of the dorsal annulus fibrosus and extrusion of the nucleus pulposus into the vertebral canal.
e. It is common in Dachshunds

Answer 141

a. Even with marked cord compression, the neurologic signs may be chronic, progressive and mild

Question 142

142 Which of the following breeds of dog is predisposed to ununited anconeal process?

a. Bernese Mountain dog
b. German Shepherd dog
c. Labrador retriever
d. Greyhound
e. Bulldog

Answer 142

a. Bernese Mountain dog

Question 143

143 Which type of urinary tract calculi are usually caused by urinary tract infections?

a. Calcium oxalate
b. Calcium phosphate
c. Struvite
d. Urate
e. Cystine

Answer 143

c. Struvite

Question 144

144 Which type of urinary tract calculi are usually seen in dogs with portosystemic shunting?

a. Calcium oxalate
b. Calcium phosphate
c. Struvite
d. Urate
e. Cystine

Answer 144

d. Urate

Question 145

145 Choose the correct phrase to complete the following statement: “In the beagle, radiographic signs of fetal mineralization are first observed _________________”.

a. affecting the skull and spine
b. affecting the scapulae and pelvis
c. affecting the appendicular skeleton
d. at 30-36 days of gestation.
e. at 36-42 days of gestation.

Answer 145

a. affecting the skull and spine

Question 146

146 Which one of the following radiographic signs most reliably denotes recent (within 18 hours) fetal death?

a. Collapse of the calvarial bones.
b. Foetal intravascular gas.
c. Curvature of the vertebral column.
d. Unequal size of the foetuses.
e. Compression of the fetus

Answer 146

b. Foetal intravascular gas.

Question 147

147 Choose the correct phrase to complete the following statement: “Bone infarcts affecting the medullary cavity of dogs have most frequently been associated with _____________________”

a. high dose glucocorticoid therapy.
b. systemic lupus erythematosus.
c. lymphosarcoma and multiple myeloma.
d. osteosarcoma and fibrosarcoma
e. panosteitis

Answer 147

d. osteosarcoma and fibrosarcoma

Question 148

148 Nodular dermatofibrosis in German Shepherd dogs should alert the clinician to the possibility of concomitant:

a. renal cystadenocarcinoma.
b. hepatocellular carcinoma.
c. pancreatic carcinoma.
d. prostatic carcinoma.
e. gastric carcinoma

Answer 148

a. renal cystadenocarcinoma.

Question 149

149 In the dog, which heart valves always have two cusps?

a. left A-V valve
b. both left and right A-V valves
c. left A-V valve and the pulmonic valve
d. right A-V valve and the pulmonic valve
e. None - all may have more than two cusps

Answer 149

e. None - all may have more than two cusps

Question 150

150 The guttural pouch of the horse has

a. one compartment
b. two equal compartments
c. a small lateral and a large medial compartment
d. a large lateral and a small medial compartment
e. a small cranial and a large caudal compartment

Answer 150

c. a small lateral and a large medial compartment