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USMLE Step 1 - Buzz Words > Buzz Words 3 > Flashcards

Buzz Words 3 Flashcards

(100 cards)

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1
Q

Interferon Gamma effect on lungs with infections

A

Pulmonary cavitations secondary to tuberculosis

-Granuloma formation

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2
Q

Transforming Growth Factor-bets

A

Scar formation after injury and plays a role in fibrosis seen with chronic inflammation

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3
Q

HIV, multiple ring-enhancing lesions, seizures

A

Cerebral Toxoplasmosis

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4
Q

Treatment for Cerebral Toxoplasmosis

A

Pyrimenthamine and sulfadiazine

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5
Q

Astrocyte CNS Tumor

A

Glioblastoma multiforme

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6
Q

Test to screen Cystic-fibrosis related diabetes?

A

OGTT

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7
Q

Glutamic acid to LYSINE

A

at position 6 in beta globin chain = Hemoglobin C disease; ly-C-ne

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8
Q

Glutamic acid to VALINE

A

at position 6 in beta globin chain = Sickle Cell Disease

VA-SICKLE-INE

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9
Q

Hydrophobic interaction among hemoglobin molecules

A

Sickle Cell Disease

HbS has a hydrophobic pocket because of the glu-val

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10
Q

Impaired oxygen unloading of hemoglobin

A

Carboxyhemoglobin

due to an allosteric change that increases the affinity of the remaining 3 oxygen-binding sites

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11
Q

Location of the SA node

A

Right atrium near

SUPERIOR VENA CAVA

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12
Q

Location of the AV Node

A

Right Atrium near

the SEPTAL CUSP OF THE TRICUSPID VALVE

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13
Q

Hematoma over mastoid process + Periorbital ecchymoses (+ cleat otorrhea)

A

basilar skull fracture

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14
Q

Parasthesia with orbital floor fracture

A

numbness of upper cheek, upper lip, upper gingiva secondary to infraorbital (CN V) damage

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15
Q

Abdominal organ supplied by an artery of the foregut even though the organ itself is not a foregut derivative

A

Spleen
from the mesoderm of the dorsal mesentery
splenic artery from the celiac trunk

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16
Q

S3 and S4 are best heard..

A

with the bell of the stethoscope over the cardiac apex while the patient is in the left lateral decubitus position and listening at end expiration (decrease lung volume and bring heart closer to the chest wall)

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17
Q

MOA of Oseltamivir in Treatment of Influenza

A

Inhibits virion particle release
Neuraminidase inhibitor

neuraminidase is required for the release of virus from infected cells and for the spread of virus within the respiratory track; reducies spread of virus to other host cells.

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18
Q

Last to change in normal respiratory mucosa from trachea to alveolar ducts

(Cartilage/Cilia/Goblet Cells/Mucous Glands/Serous Glands)

A

CILIA!!!

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19
Q

Genetic Testing: Analyze for the presence of mRNA

to determine whether a gene is being TRANSCRIBED

A

Northern Blot

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20
Q

Genetic Testing: Analyze for the presence of DNA

A

Southern Blot

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21
Q

Genetic Testing: Analyze for the presence of Protein

to determine whether a gene is being EXPRESSED

A

Western Blot

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22
Q

Genetic Testing: Analyze for the presence of DNA-bound protein

A

SouthWestern Blot

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23
Q

Testing: Test commonly employed to measure the amount of a protein in body fluids

A

ELISA

Enzyme Linked Immunosorbent Assay

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24
Q

Progressive motor weakness over the course of the day;

A

Myasthenia gravis

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25
Decreased compound muscle action potential amplitude on electromyography with repeated excitation
Myasthenia gravis
26
Myasthenia gravis is antibodies against what?
postsynaptic nicotinic acetylcholine receptors
27
Step in collagen synthesis impaired in Ehlers-Danlos
N terminal propeptide removal defect impaired peptide removal results in the formation of soluble collagen that does not properly crosslink
28
Microbio Test: Selective medium containing Vancomycin, Colistin, Nystatin, and Trimethoprim
Thayer-Martin Medium to identify Neisseria
29
What is the Chemoreceptor trigger zone that induces vomiting
Area Postrema
30
Where is the chemoreceptor trigger zone?
Dorsal surface of the medulla at the caudal end of the 4th ventricle
31
Damage to the nerves within the fascia of the prostate can cause
``` Erectile dysfunction (Cavernous Nerves) ```
32
Cremasteric reflex | What nerve?
Genitofemoral Nerve
33
Fecal incontinence, Decreased penile sensation, External Urethral Sphincter Paralysis What nerve damaged?
Pudendal Nerve
34
Polyuria: Serum Sodium - HIGH Urine osmolality after water deprivation - NO CHANGE/MILD INCREASE Urine osmolality after vasopressin injection - LARGE INCREASE
Central Diabetes insipidus
35
Polyuria: Serum Sodium - HIGH Urine osmolality after water deprivation - NO CHANGE/MILD INCREASE Urine osmolality after vasopressin injection - MILD INCREASE
Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus
36
Polyuria: Serum Sodium - LOW Urine osmolality after water deprivation - INCREASE Urine osmolality after vasopressin injection - NO ADDITIONAL INCREASE
Primary polydypsia
37
Polyuria: Serum Sodium - NORMAL Urine osmolality after water deprivation - INCREASE Urine osmolality after vasopressin injection - NO ADDITIONAL INCREASE
Normal
38
circulating immune complexes, pediatric disease
Henoch schonlein purpura IgA antigen immune complexes
39
disseminated purpura
meningococcemia or disseminated gonococcus
40
purpura limited to the lower extremities
Henoch schonlein purpura
41
Nerve injury common from abdominal retractors during laparotomy (psoas muscle)
Genitofemoral nerve --> labial/scrotal anesthesia
42
Nerve injury common during closure of Pfannensteil skin incisions (eg Cesarean section)
Iliohypogastric nerce --> burning pain and paresthesias
43
Nerve injury common during retroperitoneal pelvic lymph node dissection
Obturator Nerve --> loss of medial thigh sensation and inability to adduct the thigh
44
Pudendal nerve block markers
medial to ischial spine, through the sacrospinous ligament
45
Antifungal Binds ergosterol Pore Formation
Amphotericin B
46
Antifungal | Inhibits both DNa and RNA in fungal cells
Flucytosine
47
Antifungal | Binds microtubules and inhibits mitosis
Griseofulvin
48
Antifungal | Inhibits ergosterol synthesis
Azoles | and Terbinafine
49
Tumor Lysis Syndrome Increased uric acid Uric acid becomes stones because of ____
``` acidic environments (low pH) e.g. distal tubules and collecting ducts ```
50
Biliary tract disease, cholangiocarcinoma | Parasite?
Clonorchis sinensis
51
Brain cysts, seizures | Parasite?
Taenia solium
52
Hematuria, Squamous cell bladder cancer | Parasite?
Schistosoma haematobium
53
Liver (hydatid) cysts | Parasite?
Echinococcus granulosum
54
Microcytic anemia | Parasite?
Ancylostoma | Necator
55
Myalgias, Periorbital edema | Parasite?
Trichinella spiralis
56
Perianal pruritus | Parasite?
Enterobius
57
Portal hypertension | Parasite?
Schistosoma mansoni | Schistosoma japonicum
58
Vitamin B12 Deficiency | Parasite?
Diphyllobothrium latum
59
Receptors used by CMV?
Integrins (heparin sulfate)
60
Receptors used by EBV?
CD21 (B lymphocytes)
61
Receptors used by HIV?
CCR5, CD4, CXCR4
62
Receptors used by Parvovirus B19?
P antigen on RBCs
63
Receptors used by Rabies?
Nicotinic AChR
64
Receptors used by Rhinovirus?
ICAM-1
65
Exposure to air contaminated by animal waste (e.g. farms) --> pneumonia, thrombocytopenia
Q Fever | Coxiella burnetii
66
Pathogenicity: Activation of Electrolyte Transport
Irreversible activation of Gs | Vibrio Cholerae
67
Pathogenicity: Blockade of Neurotransmitter Release
Blockade of ACh - Clostridium botulinum Blockade of GABA and Glycine - Clostridium tetani
68
Pathogenicity: Cellular Membrane Disruption
Phospholipase/Lecithenase - Clostridium perfringens
69
Pathogenicity: Impairment of Protein Synthesis
Inhibition of protein syntheisis by ADP-ribosylation of EF-2 Diphtheria Toxin Corynebacterium diphtheriae
70
Pathogenicity: Widespread T Cell activation
Superantigen | Staph - Toxic Shock Syndrome Toxin
71
Pathogenicity: Actin depolymerization
Clostridium difficile | Toxin B --> pseudomembranous colitis
72
Pathogenicity; plasminogen activator
Streptokinase - Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A Strep)
73
Food poisoning from: Reheated rice
Bacillus cerues
74
Food poisoning from: Improperly canned foods (toxin) / honey (spores)
Clostridium botolinum
75
Food poisoning from: | Reheated meat
Clostridium perfringens
76
Food poisoning from: | Undercooked meat
E Coli O157:H7
77
Food poisoning from: | Deli meats, soft cheeses
Listeria monocytogenes
78
Food poisoning from: | Poultry, meat, and eggs
Salmonella
79
Food poisoning from: | Meats, mayonnaise, custard
Staphylococcus aureus
80
Food poisoning from: | Contaminated seafood
Vibrio parahaemolyticus | Vibrio vulnificus
81
Bloody diarrhea, liver abscess
Entamoeba histolytica
82
Bloody diarrhea, pseudoappendicitis, day care outbreak
Yersinia enterolitica
83
Cave exploration in Ohio
Histoplasma capsulatum
84
Recent travel to Arizona
Coccidioides immitis
85
Pigeon droppings
Cryptococcus neoformans
86
buy AT 30 | CCEL at 50
Aminoglycosides (gentamicin, neomycin, amikacin, tobramycin, streptomycin) Tetracycline (doxycycline) Chloramphenicol Clindamycin Erythromycin (Macrolides) Linezolid
87
Cowdry Type A inclusions
HSV
88
Temporal Lobe Encephalitis
HSV
89
Pareventricular Subependyma encephalitis
CMV
90
Greatly enlarged oligodendrocyte nuclei with glassy amorphic viral inclusions
Progressive Multifocal Leukoencephalopathy (PML) / JC Virus
91
Microglial nodules containing multinucleated giant cells
chronic HIV encephalitis
92
Hypoglycemia but NO acetoacetate after prolonged fasting
Hypoketotic Hypoglycemia - either Primary Carnitine Deficiency or Acyl CoA Dehydrogenase Deficiency
93
Mushrooms that cause hepatotoxicity because alpha amanitin inhibits...
RNA polymerase II -- mRNA
94
Promoter region : Site where RNA polymerase II bind
TATA box
95
Acanthocytes on peripheral smear
abetalipoproteinemia
96
Crumpled silk histiocytes on BM biopsy
Gaucher disease
97
Globoid cells on brain biopsy
Krabbe disease
98
Metachromatic deposits on sural nerve biopsy
Metachromatic leukodystrophy
99
Sea blue histiocytes on BM biopsy
Niemann-Pick Disease
100
Increased IDLElevated Cholesterol AND TAG
Apolipoprotein E abnormality | Type II Hyperlipoproteinemia

USMLE Step 1 - Buzz Words (6 decks)

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