Canine I Flashcards
(338 cards)
1
Q
What is hypoadrenocorticism (Addisons Disease)?
A
A condition caused by inadequate production of glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids by the adrenal glands.
2
Q
What is the most common cause of Addisons Disease?
A
Idiopathic adrenocortical atrophy.
3
Q
What electrolyte abnormalities are characteristic of Addisons Disease?
A
Hyponatremia
4
Q
Why is Addisons Disease called ‘The Great Imitator’?
A
It can mimic many other diseases
5
Q
What are the common acute clinical signs of Addisons Disease?
A
Hypovolemic shock
6
Q
What are the common chronic clinical signs of Addisons Disease?
A
Waxing and waning illness
7
Q
What cardiovascular abnormality is a key tip-off for Addisons?
A
Bradycardia despite cardiovascular collapse due to hyperkalemia.
8
Q
What urine-specific gravity is typical in Addisonian dogs?
A
USG <1.030 due to lack of aldosterone.
9
Q
What CBC finding is often absent in Addisons Disease?
A
Stress leukogram (which normally includes neutrophilia
10
Q
What is the diagnostic test of choice for Addisons Disease?
A
ACTH stimulation test.
11
Q
What result confirms Addisons Disease on an ACTH stimulation test?
A
Baseline and post-ACTH cortisol levels <2 ug/dL.
12
Q
Which steroid does not interfere with ACTH testing?
A
Dexamethasone.
13
Q
What ECG abnormalities are seen in Addisons Disease?
A
Tall tented T waves
14
Q
What radiographic findings might suggest Addisons Disease?
A
Microcardia
15
Q
What is the first step in treating an Addisonian crisis?
A
Rapid IV fluid therapy with 0.9% NaCl.
16
Q
How does IV fluid therapy help in Addisons crisis?
A
Restores perfusion
17
Q
What drug is used for cardioprotection in severe hyperkalemia?
A
Calcium gluconate.
18
Q
Which drugs can shift potassium intracellularly in hyperkalemia?
A
Dextrose
19
Q
What glucocorticoid is preferred in acute Addisons treatment?
A
Dexamethasone SP (does not interfere with ACTH testing).
20
Q
What is the main glucocorticoid used for long-term Addisons management?
A
Prednisone or prednisolone.
21
Q
What is the initial dose of prednisone in Addisons treatment?
A
0.5 mg/kg/day
22
Q
What adjustment should be made to prednisone during times of stress?
A
Increase to 2-4 times the maintenance dose.
23
Q
What are the two main mineralocorticoid replacement therapies?
A
Fludrocortisone (daily oral) and DOCP (injectable every 3-4 weeks).
24
Q
What are the four major types of allergic skin diseases in dogs and cats?
A
Flea allergy dermatitis (FAD)
25
What is the predominant clinical sign of allergic skin disease?
Pruritus (itching).
26
How can you distinguish between food allergies and atopy based on clinical signs alone?
You cannot; their lesion distribution is identical.
27
Which type of allergy typically occurs in dogs under 1 year of age and in older dogs?
Food allergy.
28
At what age does atopic dermatitis typically present?
Between 1-3 years of age (full range: 6 months to 6 years).
29
Which allergic condition has no specific age predilection?
Contact allergy and flea allergy dermatitis (FAD).
30
Which allergies can be seasonal or non-seasonal depending on the allergen?
Atopy
31
Which type of allergy is exclusively non-seasonal?
Food allergy.
32
Which allergic condition typically has a rapid onset
often in warm weather?
33
Which allergic condition often has a gradual onset but may occasionally present suddenly?
Food allergy.
34
Which allergic condition typically affects the caudal half of the body
including the tail base
35
Which two allergic conditions have an identical lesion distribution (face
paws
36
Which allergic condition primarily affects hairless areas in contact with environmental allergens?
Contact allergy.
37
What type of primary lesion should be present in contact allergy?
Vesicles and erythematous papules.
38
What are the two primary reaction patterns of allergic skin disease in cats?
Miliary dermatitis and eosinophilic granuloma complex.
39
What are the three presentations of eosinophilic granuloma complex in cats?
Indolent ulcer (upper lip)
40
What are three possible distributions of flea allergy dermatitis in cats?
Caudal dorsal
41
How is flea allergy dermatitis (FAD) diagnosed?
Based on lesion distribution
42
Why is atopy diagnosed by exclusion?
Because intradermal and serum allergy testing cannot confirm a diagnosis; they are used for immunotherapy development.
43
What is the gold standard test for diagnosing food allergy?
An 8-12 week strict elimination diet trial using a hydrolyzed or novel protein diet.
44
Why are serum tests not recommended for diagnosing food allergies?
They are not accurate.
45
What test is used to diagnose contact allergy?
Patch testing.
46
What is the proper stepwise approach to diagnosing pruritus in dogs and cats?
1. Rule out infectious causes (sarcoptes
47
What are the four main anti-pruritic drugs used in veterinary dermatology?
Apoquel (oclacitinib)
48
Why are anti-pruritic medications considered 'Band-Aids' in veterinary dermatology?
They provide relief from pruritus but do not cure the underlying cause.
49
What is the key cytokine responsible for pruritus in allergic dogs?
IL-31.
50
Which signaling pathway is activated by IL-31
leading to pruritus?
51
Which two anti-pruritic drugs act on the JAK/STAT pathway
but at different points?
52
How does Apoquel work?
Apoquel is a JAK inhibitor that preferentially targets JAK1
53
How does Cytopoint work?
Cytopoint is a monoclonal antibody that binds to IL-31
54
What is the mechanism of action of cyclosporin (Atopica)?
Cyclosporin is a calcineurin inhibitor that suppresses IL-2
55
How does prednisone reduce pruritus and inflammation?
Prednisone inhibits pro-inflammatory molecules and upregulates anti-inflammatory mediators like lipocortin-1.
56
How is Apoquel administered?
Orally
57
How is Cytopoint administered?
Subcutaneous injection given every 4-8 weeks.
58
How is cyclosporin administered?
Orally
59
How is prednisone administered?
Orally
60
Which three anti-pruritic drugs have a rapid onset of action (within 24 hours)?
Prednisone
61
Which anti-pruritic drug takes the longest to reduce pruritus?
Cyclosporin (4 weeks in dogs
62
Which anti-pruritic medication is the cheapest?
Prednisone.
63
Which two medications are moderately priced?
Apoquel and Cytopoint.
64
Which anti-pruritic drug is the most expensive
especially in large dogs?
65
What is a potential side effect of Apoquel related to immunosuppression?
Increased susceptibility to Demodex and other infections
66
Why should Apoquel not be given to dogs under one year of age?
Severe infections (e.g.
67
What are the common side effects of Cytopoint?
GI upset similar to the placebo group; appears to be well-tolerated with no observed hypersensitivity reactions.
68
What are some unique side effects of cyclosporin?
GI upset
69
How does cyclosporin affect diabetic patients?
It decreases pancreatic β-cell function
70
Why should cyclosporin not be used with ivermectin?
It inhibits P-glycoprotein
71
How can ketoconazole be used to reduce the cost of cyclosporin therapy?
Ketoconazole inhibits cytochrome P450
72
What are the most common side effects of prednisone?
PU/PD
73
Why should prednisone not be used with NSAIDs?
It increases the risk of GI ulceration and renal failure.
74
Is Apoquel recommended for use in cats?
No
75
Why should Cytopoint not be used in cats?
Cytopoint is a caninized monoclonal antibody
76
Which anti-pruritic drugs are commonly used in cats?
Cyclosporin and prednisolone (not prednisone
77
What is brachycephalic syndrome and what causes it?
A condition resulting from breeding short-faced (brachycephalic) dogs
78
Which three congenital abnormalities are characteristic of brachycephalic syndrome?
Elongated soft palate
79
Which two cat breeds are most commonly affected by brachycephalic syndrome?
Himalayans and Persians.
80
What is an elongated soft palate
and how does it contribute to airway obstruction?
81
What are stenotic nares
and how do they affect breathing?
82
What is a hypoplastic trachea
and which breed is most commonly affected?
83
What are some acquired components of brachycephalic syndrome due to increased airway resistance?
Everted laryngeal saccules
84
Which dog breeds are commonly affected by brachycephalic syndrome?
Bulldogs
85
What are the common clinical signs of brachycephalic syndrome?
Exercise intolerance
86
How is brachycephalic syndrome diagnosed?
Physical exam
87
What imaging modality can be used to evaluate a hypoplastic trachea?
Thoracic radiographs.
88
Why should an oral exam be performed under anesthesia when diagnosing brachycephalic syndrome?
To properly assess elongated soft palate
89
What is the surgical treatment for an elongated soft palate?
Resection to normal size
90
What is the treatment for stenotic nares?
Wedge resection of the nasal fold.
91
What is the treatment for hypoplastic trachea?
There is no effective treatment; management focuses on treating other abnormalities to improve breathing.
92
Why is accurate diagnosis essential before treating laryngeal collapse?
It should be distinguished from laryngeal paralysis
93
What is the best treatment option for advanced laryngeal collapse?
Permanent tracheostomy.
94
How are everted laryngeal saccules treated?
Removal using traction with hemostats or Allis tissue forceps.
95
What is a major post-operative risk following surgery for elongated soft palate?
Life-threatening airway obstruction due to excessive swelling.
96
What is dilated cardiomyopathy (DCM)?
A primary myocardial disease characterized by cardiac enlargement and impaired systolic function.
97
Which breeds are predisposed to DCM?
Doberman
98
What are the early clinical signs of DCM?
Fainting
99
Why can DCM be difficult to diagnose early?
Many dogs are asymptomatic until they suddenly develop symptoms of heart failure.
100
What are the signs of left-sided congestive heart failure (CHF) in DCM?
Respiratory distress.
101
What is collapsing trachea?
A condition where the tracheal rings weaken
102
Can collapsing trachea be a primary condition or secondary to another disease?
It can be primary or secondary to cardiopulmonary disorders such as heart failure or chronic bronchitis.
103
What are the two types of collapsing trachea?
Fixed or dynamic.
104
Which dog breeds are most commonly affected by collapsing trachea?
Small breeds
105
At what age do clinical signs of collapsing trachea typically appear?
Around 7 years of age.
106
What are the early clinical signs of collapsing trachea?
Mild productive cough and exercise intolerance.
107
What are the advanced clinical signs of collapsing trachea?
Honking cough
108
What triggers dyspnea in dogs with collapsing trachea?
Excitement or anxiety.
109
What common physical characteristic is seen in many dogs with collapsing trachea?
Obesity.
110
What structural abnormalities contribute to collapsing trachea?
Weak or redundant dorsal tracheal membrane and hypoplastic or fibrodystrophic cartilaginous rings.
111
When does extrathoracic (cervical) tracheal collapse occur?
On inspiration.
112
When does intrathoracic tracheal collapse occur?
On expiration.
113
What clinical test can be performed during a physical exam to suggest collapsing trachea?
Tracheal palpation
114
What radiographic finding is associated with collapsing trachea?
Flattened trachea.
115
What is the most useful diagnostic test for evaluating collapsing trachea in an awake patient?
Fluoroscopy in lateral recumbency.
116
What advanced diagnostic test allows visualization of collapsing bronchi?
Endoscopy.
117
Why is it important to first identify and treat primary upper respiratory conditions before addressing collapsing trachea?
Treating conditions such as stenotic nares
118
What concurrent disease should be ruled out before treating collapsing trachea?
Cardiac disease.
119
Why is surgery less successful if bronchial collapse is present?
Surgical treatment is less effective in these cases
120
What are three main components of medical management for collapsing trachea?
Weight loss
121
What is dorsal tracheal membrane plication
and when is it used?
122
Why is dorsal tracheal membrane plication not commonly performed?
Most mild cases are managed medically.
123
What are the potential complications of intratracheal stenting for collapsing trachea?
Stent fracture
124
What is the success rate of intratracheal stenting when performed correctly?
Up to 80%.
125
What materials have been attempted for external tracheal support?
Plastic rings
126
Why is external tracheal support not commonly used?
Results have been inconsistent.
127
Why is medical management preferred over surgical intervention for collapsing trachea?
Surgical interventions have a high risk of complications
128
What are the signs of right-sided CHF in DCM?
Abdominal distension due to ascites.
129
What is the gold standard diagnostic test for DCM?
Echocardiography.
130
What echocardiographic findings are characteristic of DCM?
Systolic dysfunction (poor contractility and shortening fraction).
131
What is a controversial treatment recommendation for subclinical DCM?
Some cardiologists recommend ACE inhibitors and/or pimobendan for early-stage cardiac dilation.
132
What are the treatment options for ventricular tachycardia in dogs with DCM?
Sotalol
133
What is another name for familial arrhythmogenic cardiomyopathy (ARVC)?
Arrhythmogenic Right Ventricular Cardiomyopathy (ARVC).
134
Which breed is primarily affected by ARVC?
Boxers.
135
What is the primary clinical sign of ARVC?
Syncope.
136
What causes sudden death in dogs with severe ARVC?
Ventricular premature complexes (VPCs) leading to fatal arrhythmias.
137
How is ARVC diagnosed?
24-hour Holter monitor to assess the frequency of VPCs.
138
Why is a 24-hour Holter monitor recommended over a brief ECG in diagnosing ARVC?
A brief ECG may overestimate or underestimate the frequency of VPCs due to their intermittent nature.
139
What are the three levels of severity in ARVC?
1) Asymptomatic dogs with VPCs
140
How many VPCs in 24 hours warrant treatment for ARVC?
More than 1000 VPCs per 24 hours
141
What are the two main treatment options for symptomatic ARVC (syncope)?
Sotalol or a combination of mexiletine and atenolol.
142
How should ARVC dogs with systolic dysfunction and heart failure be treated?
As dogs with DCM.
143
What nutritional supplement is sometimes recommended for ARVC?
L-carnitine.
144
What is the function of the cranial cruciate ligament (CCL)?
Prevents cranial drawer
145
Where does the cranial cruciate ligament originate?
Medial surface of the lateral femoral condyle.
146
Where does the cranial cruciate ligament insert?
Craniomedial surface of the tibial plateau beneath the intermeniscal ligament.
147
Which dog breeds are predisposed to cranial cruciate ligament disease?
Boxers
148
What are the typical clinical signs of CCL rupture?
Acute or chronic lameness that does not improve with rest and may improve mildly with NSAIDs.
149
What is the 'positive sit test' for CCL rupture?
The dog sits with the knee rotated outward.
150
What are the two primary orthopedic tests for diagnosing CCL rupture?
Cranial drawer test and tibial thrust test (tibial compression test).
151
What is a medial buttress
and why is it significant in CCL rupture?
152
What radiographic findings support a diagnosis of CCL rupture?
Joint effusion
153
What is the lateral suture (extracapsular) repair technique for CCL rupture?
A heavy suture is placed around the fabella and through the tibia to mimic the CCL.
154
What is a limitation of extracapsular repair for CCL rupture?
The suture may stretch
155
What is the tibial plateau leveling osteotomy (TPLO) procedure?
An osteotomy is performed at the proximal tibia
156
Why does TPLO not restore the cranial cruciate ligament?
It biomechanically stabilizes the leg without directly repairing the ligament.
157
What is the tibial tuberosity advancement (TTA) procedure?
A cut is made along the cranial tibia
158
Which surgical procedure is considered the 'gold standard' for CCL repair?
TPLO
159
Does any CCL repair completely prevent osteoarthritis?
No
160
Can strict cage rest be used instead of surgery for CCL rupture?
Yes
161
What is a major disadvantage of conservative management (cage rest) for CCL rupture?
Progression of arthritis is likely greater compared to surgical repair.
162
What is hyperadrenocorticism (Cushing’s Disease)?
A condition caused by excessive cortisol production due to pituitary or adrenal tumors.
163
What are the two most common causes of Cushing’s Disease?
Pituitary-dependent hyperadrenocorticism (PDH) and adrenal tumors (AT).
164
What is the most common form of Cushing’s Disease?
Pituitary-dependent hyperadrenocorticism (PDH)
165
What is iatrogenic Cushing’s Disease?
Hyperadrenocorticism caused by prolonged steroid administration.
166
What are the key clinical signs of Cushing’s Disease in dogs?
PU/PD
167
What is the hallmark clinical sign of equine Cushing’s Disease?
Hirsutism (abnormally long
168
Why does Cushing’s cause a pendulous abdomen?
Due to muscle wasting and hepatomegaly.
169
What bloodwork abnormalities are commonly seen with Cushing’s Disease?
Stress leukogram (neutrophilia
170
What is the most commonly used diagnostic test for Cushing’s Disease?
Low-dose dexamethasone suppression test (LDDST).
171
How does the LDDST diagnose Cushing’s Disease?
Plasma cortisol is measured before and at 4 and 8 hours after IV dexamethasone; most dogs with Cushing’s have 8-hour cortisol levels >1.4 µg/dL.
172
How can the LDDST differentiate between PDH and AT?
Dogs with PDH often show some suppression at 4 hours (<50% of baseline)
173
What is the ACTH stimulation test used for?
Diagnosing Cushing’s and monitoring therapy effectiveness.
174
What is the expected result of an ACTH stimulation test in a Cushing’s dog?
Exaggerated cortisol response after ACTH administration.
175
Why is abdominal ultrasound useful for diagnosing Cushing’s Disease?
It helps differentiate PDH (bilaterally enlarged adrenal glands) from AT (unilateral adrenal mass).
176
What is the Urine Cortisol:Creatinine Ratio used for?
It has high sensitivity but low specificity; a negative result rules out Cushing’s.
177
What is the role of endogenous ACTH testing?
Differentiating PDH (high plasma ACTH) from AT (low ACTH).
178
What is the high-dose dexamethasone suppression test used for?
To differentiate PDH from AT in additional cases not diagnosed by LDDST.
179
What is atypical Cushing’s Disease?
A form where dogs have normal LDDST results but abnormal 17-hydroxyprogesterone levels.
180
What is the treatment of choice for PDH?
Medical management with Mitotane (o
181
How does Mitotane treat Cushing’s?
It causes adrenocorticolysis (partial chemical adrenalectomy).
182
What monitoring is required with Mitotane treatment?
ACTH stimulation tests to avoid hypoadrenocorticism.
183
How does Trilostane work?
It is an oral steroid analogue that inhibits cortisol and aldosterone synthesis.
184
What are alternative treatments for Cushing’s Disease?
Selegiline (not recommended) and Ketoconazole (associated with side effects).
185
What surgical options exist for Cushing’s?
Adrenalectomy for adrenal tumors and hypophysectomy for pituitary tumors (rarely performed in North America).
186
What is the treatment of choice for equine Cushing’s Disease?
Pergolide mesylate
187
What is diabetes mellitus?
An endocrine disorder caused by inadequate insulin production or peripheral insulin resistance.
188
What are the two primary presentations of diabetes mellitus?
Healthy diabetic and severe diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA).
189
What are the key clinical signs of diabetes mellitus?
PU/PD
190
What are less common clinical signs that may suggest diabetes?
Plantigrade stance in cats (diabetic neuropathy) and cataracts in dogs.
191
What are the clinical signs of severe DKA?
Anorexia
192
How is diabetes mellitus diagnosed?
Based on clinical signs
193
Why is stress hyperglycemia a concern when diagnosing diabetes in cats?
Stress can cause transient hyperglycemia and sometimes glucosuria
194
What additional bloodwork abnormalities are common in diabetic patients?
Metabolic acidosis
195
What are the ancillary tests used to evaluate long-term glycemic control?
Fructosamine and glycosylated hemoglobin.
196
What is the primary treatment for healthy diabetic animals?
Insulin injections
197
Which species require insulin therapy for diabetes?
All dogs and 90% of cats.
198
What are examples of intermediate and long-acting insulins used for diabetes management?
Vetsulin
199
Why are blood glucose curves important in insulin therapy?
To ensure proper insulin potency and duration while avoiding the Somogyi effect.
200
What oral hypoglycemic drug is most commonly used in veterinary medicine?
Glipizide (Glucotrol).
201
Why is the efficacy of oral hypoglycemics in veterinary patients controversial?
They may reduce insulin requirements but are not consistently effective.
202
What type of diet is recommended for diabetic dogs?
High-fiber
203
What type of diet is recommended for diabetic cats?
High-protein
204
What is the primary treatment for severe DKA?
Aggressive IV fluid therapy and insulin administration.
205
Which type of insulin is used for treating severe DKA?
Regular insulin (fast-acting)
206
Why is frequent blood glucose monitoring necessary in DKA treatment?
To achieve gradual reduction in blood glucose and prevent complications.
207
When is bicarbonate therapy indicated in DKA patients?
If metabolic acidosis is severe and not improving with IV fluids.
208
Why is it important to identify and treat concurrent infections in diabetic patients?
Infections can worsen insulin resistance and lead to diabetic ketoacidosis.
209
What is elbow dysplasia?
An umbrella term for multiple congenital abnormalities affecting the elbow.
210
What are the four conditions included in elbow dysplasia?
Ununited anconeal process (UAP)
211
Which dog breeds are commonly affected by elbow dysplasia?
German Shepherds
212
What are the key clinical signs of elbow dysplasia?
Forelimb lameness
213
What radiographic sign suggests fragmentation of the medial coronoid process (FCP)?
Sclerosis of the ulna and degenerative changes above the anconeal process.
214
What is the typical age of onset for ununited anconeal process (UAP)?
4-12 months of age.
215
What is the best radiographic view to diagnose UAP?
Flexed lateral projection of the elbow.
216
What is the primary surgical treatment for UAP?
Excision of the anconeal process.
217
What causes osteochondrosis dissecans (OCD) of the humeral condyle?
Abnormal endochondral ossification leading to thickened cartilage and flap formation.
218
What is the most common radiographic finding in OCD of the elbow?
Lesion on the medial aspect of the humeral trochlea with visible flattening and subchondral bone defect.
219
What is the preferred treatment for OCD of the humeral condyle?
Arthroscopic surgical removal of the flap and debridement of subchondral bone.
220
What is the most common breed affected by fragmented medial coronoid process (FCP)?
Labrador Retrievers.
221
Why is FCP difficult to diagnose radiographically?
The fragment is often not visible
222
What imaging modality is preferred for diagnosing FCP?
CT or arthroscopy.
223
What is the treatment of choice for FCP?
Arthroscopic removal of the fragment.
224
What is elbow incongruity?
A mismatch in joint surface alignment
225
Why is elbow incongruity difficult to diagnose on radiographs?
It is highly dependent on positioning and can be subjective.
226
What imaging modality is more accurate for diagnosing elbow incongruity?
CT scan.
227
What surgical procedure may be attempted to correct elbow incongruity?
Ulnar osteotomy
228
How many cranial nerves are there?
12 pairs.
229
What is the function of CN I (Olfactory Nerve)?
Mediates the sense of smell.
230
How is CN I tested?
By observing the patient sniff around.
231
What is the function of CN II (Optic Nerve)?
Carries visual signals from the retina to the occipital lobe of the brain.
232
How is CN II tested?
Menace response
233
What is the function of CN III (Oculomotor Nerve)?
Motor to extraocular muscles (dorsal
234
How is CN III tested?
Observing for physiologic nystagmus when turning head and pupillary light reflex (PLR).
235
What is the function of CN IV (Trochlear Nerve)?
Motor to dorsal oblique extraocular muscle
236
How is CN IV tested?
Observing for dorsolateral rotation of the pupil.
237
What is the function of CN V (Trigeminal Nerve)?
Motor to mastication muscles; sensory to eyelids
238
How is CN V tested?
Palpating masticatory muscles
239
What is the function of CN VI (Abducens Nerve)?
Motor to lateral rectus and retractor bulbi muscles.
240
How is CN VI tested?
Corneal retraction
241
What is the function of CN VII (Facial Nerve)?
Motor to facial expression muscles
242
How is CN VII tested?
Menace response
243
What is the function of CN VIII (Vestibulocochlear Nerve)?
Sensory for hearing and head position.
244
How is CN VIII tested?
Hearing assessment
245
What is the function of CN IX (Glossopharyngeal Nerve)?
Motor and sensory to the pharynx for swallowing
246
How is CN IX tested?
Gag reflex and observing for dysphagia.
247
What is the function of CN X (Vagus Nerve)?
Innervates larynx
248
How is CN X tested?
Gag reflex
249
What is the function of CN XI (Spinal Accessory Nerve)?
Innervates cranial cervical muscles.
250
How is CN XI tested?
Rarely assessed and rarely a clinical problem.
251
What is the function of CN XII (Hypoglossal Nerve)?
Motor to the tongue.
252
How is CN XII tested?
Observing tongue movement
253
What are two common disorders affecting cranial nerves?
Idiopathic trigeminal neuritis and idiopathic facial nerve paralysis.
254
What are key signs of idiopathic trigeminal neuritis?
Peracute onset of dropped jaw
255
How is idiopathic trigeminal neuritis treated?
Supportive care
256
What are key signs of idiopathic facial nerve paralysis?
Acute onset of inability to blink
257
What are differentials for idiopathic facial nerve paralysis?
Otitis media
258
What is the treatment for idiopathic facial nerve paralysis?
Tear supplementation
259
What is the prognosis for idiopathic facial nerve paralysis?
Fair; complete recovery is rare
260
What are some mnemonic aids for remembering cranial nerves?
See Wikipedia for a list of over 20 mnemonics for cranial nerves.
261
What other disorders can affect cranial nerves?
Focal or multifocal central nervous system lesions of any etiology.
262
What are the primary systemic fungal diseases in veterinary medicine?
Histoplasmosis
263
What organism causes histoplasmosis?
Histoplasma capsulatum.
264
Which regions are endemic for histoplasmosis?
Ohio River Valley and East of Mississippi River.
265
How is histoplasmosis transmitted?
Inhalation of fungal spores from decaying vegetation
266
What are the common clinical signs of histoplasmosis?
Cough
267
What is the preferred diagnostic method for histoplasmosis?
Urinary antigen test or cytology of cutaneous lesions.
268
What is the primary treatment for histoplasmosis?
Itraconazole for 2-3 months (continued 1-2 months post clinical signs).
269
What organism causes blastomycosis?
Blastomyces dermatitidis.
270
Which species is more susceptible to blastomycosis?
Cats.
271
What is the primary mode of blastomycosis transmission?
Inhalation of spores from pigeon feces and soil in the Pacific Northwest.
272
What are the clinical signs of blastomycosis?
Sneezing
273
What is a characteristic nasal presentation in cats with blastomycosis?
Roman nose appearance (nasal bridge swelling).
274
What is the best diagnostic method for blastomycosis?
Cytology: Round
275
What is the primary treatment for blastomycosis?
Amphotericin B +/- fluconazole for 3-5 months to a year.
276
What organisms cause cryptococcosis?
Cryptococcus neoformans and Cryptococcus gattii.
277
Which regions are endemic for cryptococcosis?
Southwestern U.S. after heavy rainfall
278
What are the common clinical signs of cryptococcosis?
Cough
279
What is the preferred diagnostic method for cryptococcosis?
Cytology: Spherules with double walls and endospores.
280
What are the treatment options for cryptococcosis?
Ketoconazole or Itraconazole for at least 3 months; Amphotericin B for refractory cases.
281
What organism causes Valley Fever?
Coccidioides immitis.
282
What region is endemic for Valley Fever?
Southwestern U.S. (Arizona
283
How is Valley Fever transmitted?
Inhalation of fungal spores from soil
284
What are the clinical signs of Valley Fever?
Respiratory distress
285
What is the best diagnostic method for Valley Fever?
Serology and cytology of draining tracts.
286
What is the primary treatment for Valley Fever?
Fluconazole or Itraconazole for 6-12 months.
287
What organism causes heartworm disease?
Dirofilaria immitis.
288
How is heartworm transmitted?
By mosquito bites
289
Where do adult heartworms reside in the host?
Pulmonary artery and right ventricle.
290
How long can adult heartworms live?
Several years.
291
What bacterial symbiont has been identified in heartworms?
Wolbachia.
292
What are the primary clinical signs of heartworm disease in dogs?
Exercise intolerance
293
What are the acute clinical signs of heartworm disease in cats?
Salivation
294
What is HARD in feline heartworm disease?
Heartworm Associated Respiratory Disease
295
What are chronic clinical signs of heartworm in cats?
Cough
296
What is the preferred diagnostic test for heartworm disease in dogs?
Heartworm antigen test detecting adult female worms.
297
What test can detect microfilaria but is less sensitive than the antigen test?
Modified Knott’s test.
298
What are common thoracic radiographic findings in canine heartworm disease?
Right-sided cardiac enlargement ('reverse D' shape) and enlarged pulmonary arteries.
299
What additional lab findings are seen in canine heartworm disease?
Proteinuria and eosinophilia.
300
Why can feline heartworm antigen tests yield false negatives?
Low worm burden or all-male infections.
301
What test indicates exposure but not necessarily infection in cats?
Heartworm antibody test.
302
What imaging modality can confirm heartworms in cats?
Thoracic radiographs and echocardiography.
303
What is the echocardiographic appearance of heartworms?
Double-lined echodensity in the heart.
304
What is the treatment of choice for heartworm disease in dogs?
Melarsomine.
305
What is the current recommended melarsomine treatment protocol?
A single injection followed by two injections 24 hours apart after 1 month.
306
Why is strict confinement important during heartworm treatment?
To reduce the risk of thromboembolic disease.
307
What antibiotic is used to target Wolbachia bacteria in heartworms?
Doxycycline (or azithromycin
308
Why is the 'slow-kill' method using monthly preventatives not recommended?
It allows adult worms to persist
309
Why is melarsomine not used to treat heartworm in cats?
Cats do not tolerate melarsomine well.
310
What is the primary treatment approach for feline heartworm disease?
Symptomatic management with corticosteroids
311
What are the available oral heartworm preventatives?
Ivermectin (Heartgard) and Milbemycin (Sentinel).
312
What are the available topical heartworm preventatives?
Selamectin (Revolution) and Moxidectin/Imidacloprid (Advantage Multi).
313
What is the general recommendation for heartworm prevention?
Monthly administration of preventatives year-round.
314
What is heat stroke?
A life-threatening emergency caused by excessive heat load overwhelming the body's ability to dissipate heat.
315
Which dog breeds are predisposed to heat stroke?
Obese and brachycephalic breeds.
316
What is the primary method of heat dissipation in dogs?
Panting.
317
How can heat stroke be differentiated from a true fever?
True fever is caused by pyrogens
318
What are the key clinical signs of heat stroke?
Panting
319
What organ systems can be affected by heat stroke?
Cardiovascular
320
What is the critical temperature threshold for heat stroke complications?
Approximately 106°F.
321
What environmental conditions increase the risk of heat stroke?
High temperatures
322
What is the primary goal of emergency heat stroke treatment?
Normalizing body temperature while addressing cardiovascular compromise
323
What are the recommended cooling methods for heat stroke?
Soaking fur with tepid water
324
Why should cooling efforts be stopped at 103°F?
To avoid peripheral vasoconstriction and rebound hypothermia.
325
Which controversial cooling methods should be used cautiously?
Ice packs to the groin/axilla
326
What are the ABCs of emergency treatment for heat stroke?
Airway
327
What is the importance of securing an airway in heat stroke cases?
Ensures adequate breathing and heat dissipation via panting.
328
Why is oxygen supplementation beneficial in heat stroke treatment?
It reduces the work of breathing but should not interfere with panting.
329
What cardiovascular interventions are used in heat stroke patients?
Rapid IV crystalloid or colloid administration
330
How should neurologic complications from heat stroke be managed?
Monitor for hypoglycemia
331
What coagulation abnormalities should be monitored in heat stroke cases?
Petechiae
332
What renal parameters should be monitored in heat stroke patients?
Electrolytes
333
How can acute renal failure be treated in heat stroke patients?
Mannitol
334
Why is urine alkalinization recommended in some heat stroke cases?
To prevent myoglobin precipitation in the kidneys in cases of rhabdomyolysis.
335
What gastrointestinal complications are common with heat stroke?
Vomiting
336
How should GI complications be managed in heat stroke patients?
IV fluid replacement
337
What is the prognosis for heat stroke?
Guarded; 25-50% of patients may not survive due to complications such as DIC
338
What is the key factor for survival in heat stroke cases?
Aggressive treatment within the first 24 hours significantly improves prognosis.
