Misc Flashcards
(410 cards)
1
Q
What is the drug class of amlodipine?
A
Calcium channel blocker and vasodilator.
2
Q
What is the mechanism of action of amlodipine?
A
Inhibits calcium entry into smooth muscle cells
3
Q
How is amlodipine administered?
A
Orally (PO).
4
Q
What is amlodipine commonly used to treat?
A
Systemic hypertension.
5
Q
What are important considerations when using amlodipine?
A
Monitor for signs of hypotension and bradycardia.
6
Q
What is the drug class of enalapril?
A
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor.
7
Q
What is the mechanism of action of enalapril?
A
Blocks angiotensin II formation
8
Q
How is enalapril administered?
A
Orally (PO).
9
Q
What are the common indications for enalapril?
A
Used as a vasodilator in congestive heart failure (CHF) and for systemic hypertension.
10
Q
What additional conditions can enalapril be used to treat?
A
Chronic renal failure (CRF) and protein-losing nephropathy (PLN).
11
Q
What should be monitored when using enalapril?
A
Blood pressure
12
Q
What is the drug class of furosemide?
A
Loop diuretic.
13
Q
What is the mechanism of action of furosemide?
A
Acts in the thick ascending loop of Henle to inhibit sodium (Na) and chloride (Cl) reabsorption.
14
Q
How is furosemide administered?
A
Orally (PO) or intravenously (IV).
15
Q
What are the common indications for furosemide?
A
Used in CHF to reduce pulmonary edema
16
Q
What are important side effects of furosemide?
A
Can cause fluid and electrolyte imbalances and azotemia.
17
Q
What should be monitored when using furosemide?
A
Hydration status and blood work values.
18
Q
What is a key clinical tip for owners when prescribing furosemide?
A
Advise that pets will urinate more frequently and must have access to fresh water at all times.
19
Q
What is the drug class of lidocaine?
A
Antiarrhythmic (Class 1B) and local anesthetic.
20
Q
What is the mechanism of action of lidocaine?
A
Binds to and inhibits voltage-gated sodium channels.
21
Q
How is lidocaine administered for cardiac indications?
A
Intravenously (IV) or regional infusion.
22
Q
What cardiac condition is lidocaine commonly used to treat?
A
Ventricular tachyarrhythmias.
23
Q
What are the non-cardiac indications for lidocaine?
A
Used as a local anesthetic for analgesia.
24
Q
When should lidocaine be used cautiously?
A
In patients with hepatic disease.
25
What electrolyte imbalance can decrease the efficacy of lidocaine?
Hypokalemia.
26
What is the drug class of pimobendan?
Inotropic drug with vasodilatory properties.
27
What is the mechanism of action of pimobendan?
Calcium sensitizer and selective phosphodiesterase-3 (PDE3) inhibitor.
28
How is pimobendan administered?
Orally (PO).
29
What are the primary indications for pimobendan?
Used as adjunctive therapy in CHF secondary to DCM and mitral valve disease.
30
In which species is pimobendan not FDA-approved?
Cats.
31
In which cardiac condition is pimobendan contraindicated?
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM).
32
What additional precaution should be taken when using pimobendan?
Use with caution in cases of arrhythmias.
33
What is the drug class of spironolactone?
Aldosterone competitive antagonist.
34
What is the mechanism of action of spironolactone?
Competitively inhibits aldosterone at the distal renal tubules.
35
How is spironolactone administered?
Orally (PO).
36
What are the common indications for spironolactone?
Used as a diuretic in CHF and in renal conditions such as nephrotic syndrome.
37
Why is spironolactone considered a weak diuretic?
It is often used in combination with more potent diuretics.
38
Why should potassium levels be monitored when using spironolactone?
Spironolactone is potassium-sparing and can cause hyperkalemia.
39
What is the definitive host for Dipylidium caninum?
Dogs and cats.
40
Where in the host does Dipylidium caninum reside?
Small intestine.
41
What are the common clinical signs of Dipylidium caninum infection?
Often asymptomatic
42
How is Dipylidium caninum transmitted?
Ingestion of an infected intermediate host (fleas or lice).
43
What diagnostic method is most commonly used to identify Dipylidium caninum?
Visualization of proglottid segments in feces
44
Why is fecal flotation not a reliable diagnostic method for Dipylidium caninum?
Eggs do not consistently float
45
How can Dipylidium caninum infection be prevented?
Prevent ingestion of intermediate hosts by ensuring adequate flea and lice control.
46
Is Dipylidium caninum zoonotic?
Yes
47
What are the treatment options for Dipylidium caninum?
Praziquantel and epsiprantel.
48
What is the most common species of Taenia in dogs?
Taenia pisiformis.
49
What is the most common species of Taenia in cats?
Taenia taeniaeformis.
50
What are the intermediate hosts for Taenia pisiformis and Taenia taeniaeformis?
Rabbits for T. pisiformis and rodents for T. taeniaeformis.
51
What are the common clinical signs of Taenia spp. infection?
Usually asymptomatic
52
How is Taenia spp. transmitted?
Ingestion of infected intermediate host tissue containing cysticerci (T. pisiformis) or strobilocerci (T. taeniaeformis).
53
What diagnostic methods are used for Taenia spp.?
Identification of proglottids in feces and fecal flotation with high specific gravity.
54
Why can fecal flotation be unreliable for diagnosing Taenia spp.?
Proglottids are not uniformly distributed in feces
55
Why is it difficult to distinguish Taenia eggs from Echinococcus eggs under a microscope?
Their eggs are morphologically identical.
56
How can Taenia spp. infections be prevented?
Prevent predatory activities and ingestion of intermediate hosts.
57
What are the treatment options for Taenia spp.?
Praziquantel
58
What are the two main species of Echinococcus that affect dogs and cats?
Echinococcus granulosus and Echinococcus multilocularis.
59
What is the definitive host for Echinococcus granulosus?
Dogs.
60
What is the definitive host for Echinococcus multilocularis?
Dogs and cats.
61
What are the intermediate hosts for Echinococcus spp.?
Ungulates for E. granulosus and rodents for E. multilocularis.
62
How do definitive hosts become infected with Echinococcus spp.?
By ingesting intermediate hosts containing hydatid cysts (E. granulosus) or multilocular cysts (E. multilocularis).
63
What is the main clinical sign associated with Echinococcus spp. infection?
Usually asymptomatic
64
Why is diagnosing Echinococcus spp. difficult?
Proglottids are very small and require specialized testing (CELISA or PCR) for confirmation.
65
Why is fecal flotation unreliable for diagnosing Echinococcus spp.?
Echinococcus eggs are not distinguishable from Taenia eggs under a microscope.
66
What are the treatment options for Echinococcus spp.?
Praziquantel.
67
Is Echinococcus spp. zoonotic?
Yes
68
What is the active ingredient in Frontline Top Spot?
Fipronil.
69
What parasites does Frontline Top Spot target?
Fleas
70
What is the application method for Frontline Top Spot?
Topical once monthly for fleas
71
What species can Frontline Top Spot be used on?
Dogs and cats.
72
Why should Frontline Top Spot not be used in rabbits?
Fipronil is toxic to rabbits.
73
What additional ingredient does Frontline Plus contain compared to Frontline Top Spot?
S-methoprene.
74
What is the role of S-methoprene in Frontline Plus?
It is an insect growth regulator (IGR) that prevents flea eggs from developing.
75
What is the active ingredient in Advantage II?
Imidacloprid and Pyriproxyfen.
76
What parasites does Advantage II target?
Fleas and lice.
77
What is the application method for Advantage II?
Topical once monthly.
78
What species can Advantage II be used on?
Dogs and cats.
79
What is the difference between Advantage Multi and Advantage II?
Advantage Multi contains Moxidectin
80
What is the active ingredient in Revolution?
Selamectin.
81
What parasites does Revolution treat in dogs?
Fleas
82
What parasites does Revolution treat in cats?
Fleas
83
What is the application method for Revolution?
Topical once monthly; every two weeks for sarcoptic mange and ear mites.
84
What is the active ingredient in Bravecto?
Fluralaner.
85
What is the application method for Bravecto?
Oral every 12 weeks (dogs); topical every 12 weeks (cats).
86
What is the active ingredient in Nexgard?
Afoxolaner.
87
What is the application method for Nexgard?
Oral once monthly.
88
What is a common side effect of Nexgard?
Vomiting
89
What is the active ingredient in Comfortis?
Spinosad.
90
Why should Comfortis not be used with ivermectin?
It increases the risk of neurotoxicity.
91
What is the active ingredient in Capstar?
Nitenpyram.
92
What is the primary use of Capstar?
Kills adult fleas rapidly but has no residual effect.
93
How is Capstar administered?
Oral or rectal
94
What is the active ingredient in Seresto collars?
Flumethrin and Imidacloprid.
95
How long does a Seresto collar provide flea and tick protection?
8 months.
96
What is the active ingredient in Sentinel?
Milbemycin and Lufenuron.
97
What is the function of Lufenuron in Sentinel?
It inhibits flea development but does not kill adult fleas.
98
What is the active ingredient in Trifexis?
Spinosad and Milbemycin Oxime.
99
What parasites does Trifexis target?
Fleas
100
What is the most common side effect of Trifexis?
Vomiting
101
Why is permethrin contraindicated in cats?
It is highly toxic to cats and can cause severe neurotoxicity.
102
What is the drug class of famotidine?
H2 receptor antagonist.
103
How is famotidine administered?
PO
104
What is famotidine commonly used for?
Reducing acid production in various GI cases.
105
What are the two primary uses of lactulose?
Stool softener and ammonia reducer.
106
How is lactulose administered?
Orally (PO).
107
In addition to constipation
what other condition is lactulose used for?
108
What is the drug class of maropitant?
NK1 (Neurokinin) receptor antagonist.
109
What is the mechanism of action of maropitant?
Blocks substance P to prevent vomiting.
110
How is maropitant administered?
PO (tablets)
111
What are the two labeled indications for maropitant?
Treatment and prevention of acute vomiting; prevention of motion sickness.
112
Why should Cerenia be used cautiously in foreign body obstruction cases?
It may mask vomiting
113
What is a common side effect of SC maropitant injection
and how can it be reduced?
114
What are the two main effects of metoclopramide?
GI prokinetic and antiemetic.
115
How is metoclopramide administered?
IV
116
What are the common indications for metoclopramide?
Gastric motility disorders
117
When should metoclopramide be avoided?
GI obstruction
118
Why should injectable metoclopramide be protected from light?
It is light-sensitive.
119
Why should metoclopramide IV compatibility be checked before administration?
It may be incompatible with other IV therapeutics.
120
What is the drug class of metronidazole?
Nitroimidazole antibiotic and antiparasitic agent.
121
How is metronidazole administered?
PO or IV.
122
What are the primary indications for metronidazole?
Giardia and other protozoal infections
123
What is the mechanism of action of metronidazole?
Inhibits nucleic acid synthesis by disrupting microbial DNA.
124
What is a major side effect of metronidazole
particularly at high doses?
125
How should metronidazole dosing be adjusted in patients with liver disease?
The dose should be reduced.
126
Why is metronidazole often compounded into a flavored suspension?
It has a very bitter taste.
127
Why should injectable metronidazole be protected from light?
It is light-sensitive.
128
What is the drug class of mirtazapine?
Tetracyclic antidepressant; 5-HT3 antagonist.
129
What is mirtazapine primarily used for in veterinary medicine?
Appetite stimulation.
130
How is mirtazapine administered?
PO or transdermally.
131
What is the feline transdermal form of mirtazapine called?
Mirataz.
132
Why should mirtazapine not be used with MAOIs or SSRIs?
It may cause serotonin syndrome.
133
What is the typical dosing interval for mirtazapine?
Every 72 hours.
134
What drug class do omeprazole and pantoprazole belong to?
Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs).
135
How is omeprazole administered?
PO.
136
How is pantoprazole administered?
IV.
137
What is the primary indication for omeprazole and pantoprazole?
Reducing gastric acid secretion in GI disorders.
138
What is the drug class of ondansetron?
5-HT3 receptor antagonist.
139
How is ondansetron administered?
IV or PO.
140
What is the primary indication for ondansetron?
Antiemetic for vomiting cases.
141
What veterinary specialty commonly uses ondansetron?
Oncology
142
Why should ondansetron IV compatibility be checked before administration?
It may be incompatible with other drugs.
143
What unexpected condition can ondansetron help treat in brachycephalic breeds?
Sleep apnea.
144
What is the drug class of sucralfate?
Gastroprotectant.
145
How is sucralfate administered?
PO.
146
What is sucralfate primarily used for?
Protection against GI ulceration.
147
Why should sucralfate not be given within two hours of food or other medications?
It can interfere with drug absorption.
148
How is sucralfate commonly administered to patients?
Tablets are crushed
149
What is the definitive host for Toxocara canis?
Dogs.
150
What is the definitive host for Toxocara cati?
Cats.
151
Where do Toxocara spp. reside in their hosts?
Small intestine.
152
What is the most common mode of transmission for Toxocara canis?
Transplacental (transuterine) transmission.
153
What is the zoonotic significance of Toxocara spp.?
Toxocara canis is associated with visceral larval migrans in humans.
154
How is Toxocara diagnosed?
Fecal flotation.
155
What are common treatment options for Toxocara infections?
Fenbendazole
156
What is the common name for Ancylostoma spp.?
Hookworms.
157
Which Ancylostoma species infects dogs?
Ancylostoma caninum.
158
Which Ancylostoma species infects cats?
Ancylostoma tubaeforme.
159
What are the clinical signs of Ancylostoma infection?
Diarrhea
160
What is the zoonotic significance of Ancylostoma?
It causes cutaneous larval migrans in humans.
161
How is Ancylostoma diagnosed?
Fecal flotation.
162
What are common treatment options for Ancylostoma infections?
Fenbendazole
163
What is the common name for Trichuris spp.?
Whipworms.
164
Which Trichuris species infects dogs?
Trichuris vulpis.
165
Where does Trichuris vulpis reside in the host?
Cecum.
166
What are the clinical signs of Trichuris infection?
Diarrhea
167
Why can Trichuris infections be difficult to diagnose?
Intermittent shedding and low egg numbers make fecal flotation unreliable.
168
What are the recommended treatments for Trichuris infections?
Fenbendazole (3 days
169
What is the transmission route for Uncinaria stenocephala?
Oral ingestion of eggs (most common).
170
What are the treatment options for Uncinaria stenocephala?
Pyrantel pamoate
171
Which nematode species is more common in growing puppies and kittens?
Toxocara spp.
172
What is the drug class of Proparacaine HCL?
Ocular anesthetic.
173
How is Proparacaine HCL administered?
Topically applied to the cornea.
174
What is Proparacaine HCL commonly used for?
Used before procedures that might cause ocular discomfort
175
Why should the Schirmer Tear Test (STT) be performed before administering Proparacaine?
Topical anesthesia can affect STT results.
176
What is the drug class of Tropicamide?
Mydriatic-cycloplegic vasoconstrictor.
177
How is Tropicamide administered?
Topically applied to the cornea.
178
What is Tropicamide commonly used for?
Dilating pupils to facilitate fundic examination.
179
What is a contraindication of Tropicamide?
May cause acute congestive glaucoma in predisposed patients.
180
What is the drug class of Atropine Sulfate?
Mydriatic-cycloplegic vasoconstrictor.
181
How is Atropine Sulfate administered?
Topically applied to the cornea.
182
What is Atropine Sulfate used for?
Controls pain due to corneal and uveal disease by relaxing ciliary muscle spasm.
183
What is a contraindication for Atropine Sulfate?
Glaucoma patients.
184
What is the drug class of Flurbiprofen?
Topical ophthalmic NSAID.
185
What is Flurbiprofen used for?
Uveal inflammation.
186
Why is Flurbiprofen contraindicated in corneal ulcers?
It has possible immunosuppressive effects.
187
What is the drug class of Prednisolone Acetate?
Steroidal anti-inflammatory ophthalmic agent.
188
What is Prednisolone Acetate commonly used for?
Anterior uveitis and steroid-responsive inflammatory eye conditions.
189
Why should a fluorescein stain be done before prescribing Prednisolone Acetate?
To rule out corneal ulcers
190
What is the drug class of Timolol Maleate?
Beta adrenergic antagonist.
191
What is Timolol Maleate used for?
Decreasing intraocular pressure in glaucoma cases.
192
Why should Timolol Maleate be used cautiously in CHF or feline asthma patients?
It has beta-blocker properties that can affect cardiovascular and respiratory function.
193
What is the drug class of Dorzolamide HCL?
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor.
194
How does Dorzolamide HCL reduce intraocular pressure?
By decreasing aqueous humor production.
195
What is a common side effect of Dorzolamide HCL?
Stinging upon application.
196
What is the drug class of Latanoprost?
Prostaglandin F2 alpha analog.
197
What is Latanoprost used for?
Decreasing intraocular pressure in primary glaucoma cases.
198
What are common side effects of Latanoprost?
Topical irritation
199
How should Latanoprost be stored?
Refrigerate until opened and protect from light.
200
What is the drug class of Tobramycin?
Aminoglycoside antibiotic.
201
What type of infections is Tobramycin used for?
Gram-negative infections such as Pseudomonas
202
What is the drug class of Ofloxacin?
Fluoroquinolone antibiotic.
203
What is Ofloxacin used for?
Gram-negative bacterial eye infections.
204
What is the drug class of Erythromycin?
Macrolide antibiotic.
205
What is Erythromycin used for?
Gram-positive infections such as Mycoplasma spp.
206
What is the drug class of Oxytetracycline?
Tetracycline antibiotic.
207
What is Oxytetracycline commonly used for?
Conjunctivitis due to Chlamydia and Mycoplasma.
208
What is the drug class of Bacitracin Zinc/Neomycin/Polymyxin B Sulfate?
Broad-spectrum antibiotic agent.
209
What are the indications for Bacitracin Zinc/Neomycin/Polymyxin B Sulfate?
Canine conjunctivitis and prophylactic use in corneal ulcers.
210
Why should Bacitracin Zinc/Neomycin/Polymyxin B Sulfate be avoided in cats?
Neomycin can cause allergic reactions and anaphylaxis in cats.
211
What is the drug class of Cyclosporine?
Immunosuppressant.
212
What is Cyclosporine used for?
Keratoconjunctivitis sicca (KCS) and pannus in German Shepherds.
213
What is the drug class of Tacrolimus?
Macrolide antibiotic with immunomodulating properties.
214
What is Tacrolimus used for?
Keratoconjunctivitis sicca (KCS).
215
How does Tacrolimus stimulate tear production?
Exact mechanism is unknown.
216
What is the drug class of Synotic Otic Solution?
Corticosteroid.
217
What are the active ingredients in Synotic Otic Solution?
Fluocinolone and DMSO.
218
What is Synotic Otic Solution used for?
Acute or chronic allergic otitis.
219
What is the drug class of Baytril Otic?
Quinolone antibiotic.
220
What are the active ingredients in Baytril Otic?
Enrofloxacin and Silver Sulfadiazine.
221
What is Baytril Otic used for?
Bacterial otitis caused by Pseudomonas spp.
222
Why is culture and sensitivity testing recommended before using Baytril Otic?
To guide bacterial otitis treatment.
223
What is the drug class of Posatex?
Combination antifungal
224
What are the active ingredients in Posatex?
Posaconazole
225
What is Posatex used for?
Canine otitis externa caused by Malassezia pachydermatis
226
Why should Posatex not be used if tympanic membranes are not intact?
Risk of ototoxicity.
227
What are the active ingredients in Mometamax?
Gentamicin
228
What is Mometamax used for?
Canine otitis externa caused by Malassezia pachydermatis
229
Why should Gentamicin-containing ear medications be used cautiously?
Gentamicin is known to be ototoxic.
230
What are the active ingredients in Surolan Otic Suspension?
Miconazole nitrate
231
What is Surolan used for?
Canine otitis externa caused by Malassezia pachydermatis and Staphylococcus pseudintermedius.
232
Why should Surolan not be used if tympanic membranes are not intact?
Risk of ototoxicity.
233
What are the active ingredients in Tresaderm?
Neomycin
234
What is Tresaderm used for?
Bacterial
235
What is a key storage requirement for Tresaderm?
Store in the refrigerator.
236
Why should Tresaderm be avoided in patients sensitive to neomycin?
Some patients may have hypersensitivity reactions to neomycin.
237
What is the drug class of Claro?
Combination antibiotic
238
What are the active ingredients in Claro?
Florfenicol
239
What is Claro used for?
Canine otitis externa caused by Malassezia pachydermatis and Staphylococcus pseudintermedius.
240
How often is Claro administered?
Single-use treatment regimen.
241
What is the drug class of Osurnia?
Combination antibiotic
242
What are the active ingredients in Osurnia?
Florfenicol
243
What is Osurnia used for?
Canine otitis externa caused by Malassezia pachydermatis and Staphylococcus pseudintermedius.
244
How is Osurnia administered?
Applied in-clinic after ear cleaning; requires a second application one week later.
245
Why should Osurnia be stored in the refrigerator?
To maintain stability before use.
246
Why should owners avoid cleaning their pet's ears after Osurnia treatment?
Ear cleaning should not be done for 45 days after initial treatment.
247
What is the drug class of Praziquantel?
Cestode parasiticide.
248
What parasites does Praziquantel treat in dogs?
Dipylidium caninum
249
What parasites does Praziquantel treat in cats?
Dipylidium caninum
250
What are some common products containing Praziquantel?
Droncit
251
What is the drug class of Epsiprantel?
Cestode parasiticide.
252
What parasites does Epsiprantel treat?
Dipylidium caninum and Taenia spp.
253
What is a common brand name for Epsiprantel?
Cestex.
254
What is the drug class of Fenbendazole?
Cestode and nematode parasiticide.
255
What cestode does Fenbendazole remove in dogs?
Taenia pisiformis.
256
What is Fenbendazole ineffective against?
Dipylidium caninum.
257
What is a common brand name for Fenbendazole?
Panacur.
258
What is the drug class of Pyrantel Pamoate?
Nematode parasiticide.
259
What parasites does Pyrantel Pamoate treat?
Toxocara canis
260
What is a common brand name for Pyrantel Pamoate?
Strongid.
261
What are some common products containing Pyrantel?
Heartgard
262
What is the drug class of Milbemycin Oxime?
Nematode parasiticide.
263
What parasites does Milbemycin Oxime control?
Adult Ancylostoma caninum
264
What are some common products containing Milbemycin Oxime?
Sentinel Spectrum
265
Why should Milbemycin be given with food?
Fat aids in absorption.
266
What is the drug class of Moxidectin?
Nematode parasiticide.
267
What parasites does Moxidectin treat in dogs?
Hookworms (4th stage larvae
268
What parasites does Moxidectin treat in cats?
Hookworms (Ancylostoma tubaeforme)
269
What are some common products containing Moxidectin?
Advantage Multi
270
What is the drug class of Selamectin?
Nematode parasiticide.
271
What parasites does Selamectin treat?
Hookworms (Ancylostoma tubaeforme)
272
What is a common brand name for Selamectin?
Revolution.
273
What is the drug class of Emodepside + Praziquantel?
Nematode and cestode parasiticide.
274
What parasites does Emodepside + Praziquantel treat?
Hookworms (Ancylostoma tubaeforme)
275
What is a common brand name for Emodepside + Praziquantel?
Profender.
276
What is the drug class of Praziquantel/Pyrantel Pamoate/Febantel?
Nematode and cestode parasiticide.
277
What parasites does Praziquantel/Pyrantel Pamoate/Febantel treat?
Hookworms
278
What is a common brand name for Praziquantel/Pyrantel Pamoate/Febantel?
Drontal Plus.
279
What is the drug class of Albon (Sulfadimethoxine)?
Sulfonamide antimicrobial agent.
280
What is Albon commonly used for?
Coccidiosis.
281
What are possible side effects of Albon?
KCS
282
What is the drug class of Sulfadiazine/Trimethoprim (TMS)?
Potentiated sulfonamide antimicrobial.
283
What is TMS used for?
Broad-spectrum antibiotic; inhibits protozoa like Coccidia and Toxoplasma spp.
284
Why should TMS be avoided in Dobermans?
Higher risk of adverse side effects.
285
What is the drug class of Ponazuril (Marquis)?
Antiprotozoal.
286
What is Ponazuril used for?
EPM (Equine Protozoal Myeloencephalitis) caused by Sarcocystis neurona; also used in small animals for Coccidia.
287
What is the drug class of Clindamycin?
Lincosamide antibiotic with antiprotozoal activity.
288
What protozoal infection is Clindamycin used for?
Toxoplasmosis (Toxoplasma gondii).
289
What is a common side effect of Clindamycin?
Nausea and GI upset.
290
What is the drug class of Metronidazole (Flagyl)?
Nitroimidazole.
291
What is Metronidazole used for?
Giardia
292
What is a major risk of Metronidazole at high doses?
Neurotoxicity.
293
Why is Metronidazole commonly compounded into a flavored liquid?
It has a very bitter taste.
294
What is the drug class of Ronidazole?
Antiprotozoal.
295
What is Ronidazole used for?
Feline Tritrichomonas foetus infections.
296
What is a major side effect of Ronidazole?
Neurotoxicity at high doses.
297
What is the most common Giardia species in dogs?
Giardia duodenalis.
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How is Giardia transmitted?
Fecal-oral route via ingestion of cysts from contaminated water
299
What are the clinical signs of Giardia infection?
Diarrhea
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What are the diagnostic options for Giardia?
Direct smear
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What treatments are recommended for Giardia?
Fenbendazole
302
What is the zoonotic risk of canine and feline coccidia?
None; they are not zoonotic.
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What species of Isospora infect dogs?
Cystoisospora canis
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What species of Isospora infect cats?
Cystoisospora felis
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How is coccidia transmitted?
Ingestion of sporulated oocysts or infected transport hosts.
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What is the primary treatment for coccidiosis?
Sulfadimethoxine (Albon).
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What alternative treatments are available for coccidiosis?
Ponazuril
308
What is the causative agent of feline Tritrichomonas infection?
Tritrichomonas blagburni (formerly T. foetus).
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How is Tritrichomonas transmitted?
Fecal-oral route.
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What is the primary clinical sign of Tritrichomonas infection?
Chronic or intermittent diarrhea.
311
What are the diagnostic options for Tritrichomonas?
Direct fecal smear
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How can Tritrichomonas be distinguished from Giardia on a smear?
T. blagburni has jerky
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What is the treatment for Tritrichomonas infection?
Ronidazole (though drug resistance and neurotoxicity are concerns).
314
What are the primary hosts of Toxoplasma gondii?
Cats.
315
How is Toxoplasma transmitted?
Ingestion of infective oocysts
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What are the diagnostic options for Toxoplasmosis?
Fecal floatation (oocysts)
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What is the treatment of choice for Toxoplasmosis?
Clindamycin.
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Why is Toxoplasma gondii a major zoonotic concern?
It can cause congenital defects in humans; pregnant women should avoid cat litter.
319
What is the definitive host for Neospora caninum?
Dogs.
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How is Neospora transmitted?
Ingestion of infected tissue (bradyzoites) or transplacental transmission.
321
What is the key clinical sign of Neospora infection in young dogs?
Ascending paralysis.
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What are the diagnostic options for Neospora?
Fecal floatation
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What is the treatment for Neospora?
Clindamycin
324
What Cryptosporidium species affect dogs and cats?
C. canis (dogs)
325
How is Cryptosporidium transmitted?
Fecal-oral route via sporulated oocysts.
326
What are the diagnostic options for Cryptosporidium?
Fecal floatation
327
What are the treatment options for Cryptosporidium?
Nitazoxanide (Alinia)
328
What is the diagnostic test of choice for rabies?
Direct Fluorescent Antibody (DFA) testing on the brain.
329
Which brain regions are tested for rabies diagnosis?
Brainstem and cerebellum.
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Is rabies a reportable disease?
Yes
331
What are the primary reservoirs of rabies?
Wildlife
332
What is the most common source of human rabies cases?
Bats.
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What are the two key clinical signs of rabies?
Behavior change and vocalization.
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What are examples of behavioral changes in rabies?
Aggression
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Can rabies present with lameness?
Yes
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How long can rabies remain asymptomatic?
1-2 months.
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What are the two forms of rabies?
Furious form and dumb form.
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What are the clinical signs of the furious form of rabies?
Anxiety
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What are the clinical signs of the dumb form of rabies?
Hypersalivation and difficulty swallowing.
340
How should an unvaccinated pet exposed to rabies be managed?
Euthanasia and testing OR 4-month quarantine (dogs/cats) or 6-month quarantine (ferrets) with immediate vaccination.
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How should a vaccinated pet exposed to rabies be managed?
Booster rabies vaccine immediately and 45-day owner observation.
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How should a pet overdue for a rabies vaccine but with proof of prior vaccination be managed?
Booster vaccine and 45-day owner observation.
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What is the post-exposure prophylaxis for an unvaccinated human exposed to rabies?
Rabies immunoglobulin and rabies vaccine on days 0
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What is the post-exposure prophylaxis for a vaccinated human?
Rabies vaccination at 0 and 3 days.
345
How is a healthy animal that bites a human managed?
10-day quarantine regardless of vaccination status. Do not vaccinate.
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What should be done if a quarantined animal shows signs of rabies?
Report to health department and euthanize for rabies testing.
347
How is a stray or unwanted dog/cat/ferret that bites a human managed?
Euthanize immediately and submit for rabies testing.
348
What is the toxic principle of anticoagulant rodenticides?
Inhibits Vitamin K1 epoxide reductase
349
What are examples of first-generation and second-generation anticoagulant rodenticides?
First-gen: Warfarin; Second-gen: Brodifacoum
350
What are the typical clinical signs of anticoagulant rodenticide toxicity?
Hemorrhage into body cavities
351
When do clinical signs of anticoagulant rodenticide toxicity typically appear?
3-7 days post-ingestion
352
What diagnostic test is most indicative of anticoagulant rodenticide toxicity?
Prolonged PT (prothrombin time)
353
What is the treatment for recent ingestion of anticoagulant rodenticides?
Emesis (if within 2-4 hours)
354
What is the treatment for a dog presenting with hemorrhage due to anticoagulant rodenticide toxicity?
Plasma transfusion
355
What is the toxic principle of bromethalin?
Inhibits oxidative phosphorylation
356
What are the clinical signs of bromethalin toxicity at high doses?
Acute onset (<12 hrs): Tremors
357
What are the clinical signs of bromethalin toxicity at lower doses?
Delayed onset (days to weeks): Ascending paralysis beginning in hindlimbs.
358
What is the treatment for acute bromethalin ingestion?
Emesis
359
What is the treatment for symptomatic bromethalin toxicity?
Supportive care
360
What is the prognosis for severe bromethalin toxicity?
Poor.
361
What is the toxic principle of cholecalciferol rodenticide?
Converted to active Vitamin D3
362
What are the clinical signs of cholecalciferol rodenticide toxicity?
PU/PD
363
When do signs of cholecalciferol toxicity typically appear?
Hyperphosphatemia at 12 hours
364
What is the treatment for acute cholecalciferol ingestion?
Emesis
365
What is the role of bisphosphonates in cholecalciferol toxicity?
Inhibit osteoclast activity to prevent bone resorption of calcium (pamidronate is most effective).
366
What is the prognosis if cholecalciferol toxicity progresses to renal failure?
Guarded to grave.
367
What factors should be considered when selecting suture material?
Memory
368
What is memory in suture material?
The tendency for suture to return to its original shape.
369
What is tensile strength in suture material?
The ability of the suture to resist deformation and breakage under stress.
370
What is capillarity in suture material?
The degree of fluid transfer by the suture due to absorption.
371
How does suture size correlate with diameter?
As you move from 0 to 2-0 to 3-0
372
What are the different types of suture needles?
Taperpoint
373
When should a taperpoint needle be used?
For delicate soft tissue
374
What is the advantage of a reverse cutting needle?
Stronger than a regular cutting needle and less traumatic to tissues.
375
What are the advantages of monofilament suture?
Less tissue drag
376
What are the advantages of multifilament suture?
Greater strength and flexibility
377
What are examples of absorbable suture materials?
Catgut
378
What is the main disadvantage of catgut suture?
Rapid proteolytic breakdown
379
Which absorbable suture has the longest tensile strength?
PDS II (polydioxanone)
380
Which absorbable suture is rapidly absorbed and loses all tensile strength within 2-3 weeks?
Caprosyn (Polyglytone 6211).
381
What are examples of non-absorbable suture materials?
Nylon (Ethilon)
382
What is a key property of polypropylene (Prolene)?
Excellent prolonged strength
383
Why is silk not commonly used for internal sutures?
It has high tissue reactivity and significant strength loss within 12 weeks.
384
When should polymerized caprolactam (Vetafil) be used?
Only on the skin to avoid sinus formation.
385
What is the primary toxic compound in antifreeze?
Ethylene glycol.
386
Why is ethylene glycol frequently ingested by animals?
It has a sweet taste.
387
What enzyme metabolizes ethylene glycol?
Alcohol dehydrogenase.
388
What are the toxic metabolites of ethylene glycol?
Glycoaldehyde
389
What are the three clinical stages of ethylene glycol toxicity?
Stage I (neurological)
390
What is the hallmark sign of Stage I ethylene glycol toxicity?
Ataxia
391
What is a key early diagnostic finding of ethylene glycol toxicity?
Calcium oxalate crystalluria (as early as 6 hours post-ingestion).
392
What are the key signs of Stage III ethylene glycol toxicity?
Oliguric renal failure
393
What competitive inhibitors are used to treat ethylene glycol toxicity?
Fomepizole (4-MP) and ethanol.
394
Why is ethanol therapy less preferred than fomepizole?
It requires close monitoring and can worsen acidosis
395
What is the prognosis for ethylene glycol toxicity?
Good if treated within 4-8 hours
396
What types of damage do acids and alkalis cause?
Acids cause caustic burns
397
When do burns from acid ingestion appear?
Immediately.
398
When do burns from alkali ingestion appear?
8-12 hours post-ingestion.
399
What is the first-line treatment for caustic ingestion?
Dilute milk or water.
400
Why should vomiting NOT be induced in acid or alkali ingestion?
It can further damage the esophagus.
401
Why is activated charcoal not used for acid or alkali toxicity?
It does not effectively bind acids or alkalis.
402
What is the primary risk of paint thinner ingestion?
Aspiration pneumonia.
403
What should be used to remove paint from a pet's fur?
Mild soap and water; avoid paint thinners or turpentine.
404
What is the first-line treatment for paint thinner ingestion?
Milk or water; do NOT induce vomiting.
405
What is the toxic principle in moldy food ingestion?
Penitrem A
406
What is the mechanism of action of penitrem A?
It raises the resting membrane potential
407
What are the key clinical signs of moldy garbage toxicity?
Panting
408
What is the first-line treatment for penitrem A ingestion?
Induce vomiting (if the animal is not neurologically compromised).
409
What drugs are used to treat muscle tremors in moldy garbage toxicity?
Methocarbamol (Robaxin).
410
What drugs are used to treat seizures in moldy garbage toxicity?
Diazepam
