Feline Flashcards
(256 cards)
1
Q
What is chronic renal insufficiency (CRI)?
A
A common disease in geriatric cats and dogs characterized by progressive loss of kidney function.
2
Q
How is CRI typically diagnosed?
A
By identifying isosthenuria and azotemia after significant renal function loss.
3
Q
What is the primary goal of CRI treatment?
A
Slow disease progression and manage clinical manifestations through dietary and medical interventions.
4
Q
Why is dehydration common in CRI?
A
Polyuria leads to renal hypoperfusion
5
Q
How can dehydration in CRI patients be managed?
A
Increase water consumption with canned food
6
Q
How is metabolic acidosis managed in CRI?
A
Potassium citrate as an oral alkalinizing agent; sodium bicarbonate if HCO3 < 17 mEq/L.
7
Q
Why does hypokalemia occur in CRI?
A
Increased urinary potassium loss.
8
Q
How is hypokalemia managed?
A
Oral potassium supplementation.
9
Q
What are the clinical signs of uremia?
A
CNS depression
10
Q
How is uremia managed?
A
Dietary therapy and fluid diuresis.
11
Q
What causes anorexia in CRI?
A
Uremic ulcers
12
Q
What drugs are used to reduce gastric irritation in CRI patients?
A
H2-blockers such as famotidine (Pepcid).
13
Q
Why is phosphorus control important in CRI?
A
Excess phosphate leads to increased PTH secretion
14
Q
How is hyperphosphatemia managed in CRI?
A
Low-phosphorus diet and phosphate binders (aluminum hydroxide
15
Q
What is the role of calcitriol therapy in CRI?
A
Reduces PTH levels and improves therapeutic outcomes.
16
Q
What is the primary cause of anemia in CRI?
A
Inadequate erythropoietin production by the kidneys.
17
Q
How is anemia managed in CRI?
A
Recombinant human erythropoietin (if anemia compromises quality of life).
18
Q
Why is hypertension a concern in CRI?
A
It promotes proteinuria and accelerates kidney damage.
19
Q
What drugs are used to manage hypertension in CRI?
A
ACE inhibitors and other antihypertensives.
20
Q
What dietary changes benefit CRI patients?
A
Low protein
21
Q
How much can dietary therapy prolong life in CRI patients?
A
By 2-3 times.
22
Q
What fluids are commonly used for fluid therapy in CRI?
A
Saline or lactated Ringer’s solution.
23
Q
What is feline asthma?
A
A common condition characterized by airway inflammation and mucus accumulation
24
Q
How is feline asthma diagnosed?
A
It is a diagnosis of exclusion
25
What are key clinical signs of feline asthma?
Expiratory dyspnea (expiratory push)
26
What is the characteristic radiographic pattern in feline asthma?
Bronchial pattern with 'train tracks' and 'doughnuts' from thickened bronchial walls.
27
What are the underlying causes of feline asthma?
Inflammatory cell infiltration leading to airway damage
28
What factors contribute to airflow reduction in feline asthma?
Airway edema
29
Why do small airway changes cause dramatic clinical signs?
A 50% reduction in airway diameter results in a 16-fold reduction in airflow.
30
What are the three clinical presentations of feline asthma?
1) Intermittent signs (< daily occurrence)
31
What are the major differential diagnoses for feline asthma?
Heart disease
32
What are the recommended diagnostic tests for feline asthma?
CBC and thoracic radiographs.
33
What is the treatment for cats with intermittent asthma signs?
Inhalant bronchodilators (albuterol) for symptomatic relief.
34
What is the primary treatment for cats with consistent asthma signs?
Long-term corticosteroids (oral initially
35
What is the initial oral corticosteroid regimen for feline asthma?
Prednisolone 1-2 mg/kg PO BID for 10-14 days
36
Why is inhaled steroid therapy preferred long-term?
It reduces systemic steroid side effects while effectively controlling airway inflammation.
37
What are the key steps in managing an acute respiratory distress episode?
Administer oxygen
38
What is the prognosis for feline asthma?
It is not curable but can be managed effectively with appropriate therapy.
39
What inhaled medications are used for feline asthma?
Fluticasone propionate (Flovent®) and albuterol (Proventil®).
40
What is the purpose of using a spacer like Aerokat®?
To facilitate inhalation of metered-dose inhalers since cats cannot inhale on command.
41
What is the most common cause of feline hyperthyroidism?
Adenomatous hyperplasia of the thyroid glands.
42
What is a less common cause of feline hyperthyroidism?
Functional thyroid carcinoma.
43
What are the key historical signs of feline hyperthyroidism?
Weight loss
44
What are the key physical exam findings in feline hyperthyroidism?
Thyroid nodule ('slip')
45
What are the main physiologic effects of thyroid hormones?
Increased metabolic rate
46
What catabolic effects do thyroid hormones have?
Breakdown of muscle and adipose tissue.
47
What is the preferred screening test for hyperthyroidism?
Serum total T4 (>4.0 ug/dL).
48
What additional tests may be considered for borderline T4 cases?
Free T4
49
What are common bloodwork abnormalities in hyperthyroid cats?
Elevated ALT
50
What are the three major treatment options for feline hyperthyroidism?
Medical (methimazole)
51
What is the first-line medical treatment for hyperthyroidism?
Oral methimazole (Tapazole).
52
Why is methimazole often used as initial therapy?
It can be stopped or reduced if renal values worsen.
53
What are the possible side effects of methimazole?
Facial excoriations
54
What is the primary surgical treatment for hyperthyroidism?
Bilateral thyroidectomy.
55
What are possible complications of thyroidectomy?
Iatrogenic hypoparathyroidism (hypocalcemia)
56
What is the mechanism of I-131 treatment?
A single dose of radioactive iodine destroys hyperactive thyroid tissue.
57
What is a major advantage of I-131 therapy?
It is a definitive
58
What are the possible side effects of I-131 treatment?
Iatrogenic hypothyroidism (<5%)
59
Why is hospitalization required for I-131 treatment?
Radiation safety laws require isolation for several days to weeks.
60
Why should renal function be monitored in hyperthyroid cats?
Renal insufficiency may be masked by hyperthyroidism and worsen after treatment.
61
What are FeLV and FIV?
Retroviral diseases of cats that cause immunosuppression and increased susceptibility to infections.
62
How is FeLV primarily transmitted?
Through close contact
63
How is FIV primarily transmitted?
Through bite wounds ('unfriendly' cat disease).
64
What percentage of FeLV-infected cats develop transient infections and clear the virus?
Up to 98%.
65
What is the median survival time for cats with progressive FeLV infections?
80% die within 3 years.
66
Can FIV-positive cats live a long life?
Yes
67
What clinical signs are common in both FeLV and FIV?
Lymphadenopathy
68
What types of opportunistic infections are common in FeLV/FIV?
Fungal (Cryptococcus
69
What test is used for FeLV diagnosis?
ELISA detects core antigen; IFA confirms progressive infection.
70
Why should FeLV-positive healthy cats be retested in 1-3 months?
To differentiate transient vs. persistent infection (98% clear transient infections).
71
What are the primary tests used for FIV?
ELISA and Western Blot (both detect antibodies).
72
Why should kittens under 6 months not be tested for FIV?
Maternal antibodies can cause false positives or false negatives.
73
What other advanced diagnostic tests exist for FIV?
PCR and viral isolation (not widely available or validated).
74
What is the general approach to treating FeLV/FIV-positive cats?
Aggressive management of secondary infections
75
What antiviral drug is sometimes used for FIV?
AZT (reverse transcriptase inhibitor)
76
What are the key risk factors for FeLV infection?
Young age and outdoor exposure.
77
How is the FeLV vaccine administered?
Two injections 2-3 weeks apart in kittens 8-9 weeks or older
78
Why is vaccinating FeLV-positive cats not recommended?
They remain FeLV-positive
79
What is the key risk factor for FIV infection?
Outdoor lifestyle with exposure to fights/bites.
80
How is the FIV vaccine administered?
Three injections 2-3 weeks apart
81
What is a major drawback of the FIV vaccine?
It causes a positive result on all commercial FIV antibody tests.
82
What is Feline Infectious Peritonitis (FIP)?
A deadly viral disease of young cats caused by mutation of feline enteric coronavirus (FECV).
83
What is the primary age group affected by FIP?
Cats 6 months to 2 years old.
84
How is FIP transmitted?
Direct contact
85
How stable is FIP outside the host?
Relatively unstable
86
What are the two clinical forms of FIP?
Effusive (wet) and non-effusive (dry) forms.
87
What characterizes the effusive (wet) form of FIP?
Widespread vasculitis leading to protein and fibrin-rich fluid accumulation in pleural and peritoneal cavities.
88
What is the key diagnostic clue in the effusive form?
Fluid that is dark yellow
89
What characterizes the dry form of FIP?
Granulomatous reaction affecting tissues such as the nervous system
90
Why is the dry form more difficult to diagnose?
It lacks characteristic effusions
91
What is the gold standard for diagnosing FIP?
Histopathology of biopsied tissues showing perivascular pyogranulomatous inflammation.
92
What common lab findings support a diagnosis of FIP?
Mature neutrophilia
93
Why is coronavirus serology not always useful for diagnosing FIP?
Many healthy cats have coronavirus antibodies
94
What is the main treatment approach for FIP?
Supportive care
95
What drugs may provide palliative relief in FIP?
Cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan) and corticosteroids.
96
What other experimental treatments have been reported?
Interferon gamma and pentoxifylline.
97
Is there a vaccine for FIP?
Yes
98
What is the best prevention strategy for FIP?
Good hygiene
99
Question
Answer
100
What is the most common cause of pruritus in both dogs and cats?
Flea allergy dermatitis (FAD).
101
What flea species is the primary cause of flea allergy dermatitis in dogs and cats?
Ctenocephalides felis felis.
102
What zoonotic pathogens can Ctenocephalides felis felis transmit?
Bartonella henselae
103
What type of hypersensitivity reactions are involved in flea allergy dermatitis?
Type 1
104
What compounds in flea saliva trigger hypersensitivity reactions?
Proteolytic enzymes
105
What are the common clinical signs of flea allergy dermatitis?
Intense pruritus
106
What additional skin changes may develop in chronic flea allergy dermatitis?
Hyperpigmentation and lichenification.
107
What is the classic lesion distribution of flea allergy dermatitis in dogs?
Caudal-dorsal distribution: base of tail
108
What is the classic lesion distribution of flea allergy dermatitis in cats?
Neck and face; may also include symmetrical alopecia and miliary dermatitis.
109
What is a common secondary dermatologic condition associated with flea allergy dermatitis in cats?
Eosinophilic granuloma complex.
110
How is flea allergy dermatitis diagnosed in dogs?
Based on lesion distribution and clinical signs
111
How is flea allergy dermatitis diagnosed in cats?
Response to flea treatment is often more reliable than lesion distribution.
112
Why might fleas or flea dirt not be present in patients with flea allergy dermatitis?
Allergic animals tend to groom excessively
113
How can flea dirt be identified?
Place flea dirt on a wet paper towel; if it dissolves into a reddish hue
114
What is the role of intradermal testing in diagnosing flea allergy dermatitis?
It is highly specific but not very sensitive.
115
Why is immunotherapy not a reliable treatment for flea allergy dermatitis?
It has inconsistent efficacy.
116
What is the primary treatment approach for flea allergy dermatitis?
Eliminate flea infestations from the pet
117
How long does it take to fully eliminate fleas from an environment?
2-3 months
118
What are the two primary categories of flea control products?
Adulticides and insect growth regulators (IGRs).
119
What is the purpose of adulticides in flea control?
To kill fleas present on the animal but not prevent re-infestation.
120
Why is the speed of flea kill important in flea allergy dermatitis treatment?
Fleas must be killed before they lay eggs to break the infestation cycle.
121
What flea control ingredients act as repellents?
DEET
122
Why is permethrin contraindicated in cats?
It is highly toxic to cats.
123
What are examples of insect growth regulators (IGRs)?
Methoprene
124
Which insect growth regulator is UV light sensitive and should not be used outdoors?
Methoprene.
125
What is an example of an insect development inhibitor (IDI) that prevents chitin synthesis?
Lufenuron.
126
Why should spinosad not be used with ivermectin?
It increases the risk of neurotoxicity.
127
Which flea control ingredient is toxic to rabbits?
Fipronil.
128
What are the primary flea control products used in veterinary medicine?
Afoxalaner
129
What is hypercalcemia?
Elevated serum calcium levels (>12 mg/dL total calcium or >1.4 mmol/L ionized calcium).
130
What are the primary regulators of calcium homeostasis?
Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
131
What is the role of PTH in calcium regulation?
Increases calcium mobilization from bone
132
What is the role of calcitriol in calcium regulation?
Increases calcium absorption from intestines and raises phosphorus levels.
133
What is the role of calcitonin in calcium regulation?
Reduces calcium levels by inhibiting osteoclastic bone resorption.
134
At what serum calcium level do clinical signs typically appear?
>15 mg/dL.
135
What are the clinical signs of hypercalcemia?
PU/PD
136
What is a critical calcium level where patients may be severely debilitated?
>18 mg/dL.
137
What is a common mnemonic used for hypercalcemia differentials?
GOSH DARN IT.
138
What does 'G' stand for in GOSH DARN IT?
Granulomatous disease
139
What does 'O' stand for in GOSH DARN IT?
Osteolytic disease (osteomyelitis
140
What does 'S' stand for in GOSH DARN IT?
Spurious causes (lipemia
141
What does 'H' stand for in GOSH DARN IT?
Hyperparathyroidism (primary).
142
What does 'D' stand for in GOSH DARN IT?
Drugs (thiazides
143
What does 'A' stand for in GOSH DARN IT?
Addison’s disease (hypoadrenocorticism).
144
What does 'R' stand for in GOSH DARN IT?
Renal failure (acute or chronic).
145
What does 'N' stand for in GOSH DARN IT?
Nutritional causes (hypervitaminosis D from drugs
146
What does 'I' stand for in GOSH DARN IT?
Idiopathic hypercalcemia (mainly in cats).
147
What does 'T' stand for in GOSH DARN IT?
Tumors (humoral hypercalcemia of malignancy
148
What is the most common cause of hypercalcemia in dogs?
Lymphoma and apocrine gland anal sac adenocarcinoma.
149
What is the most common neoplastic cause of bone osteolysis?
Multiple myeloma
150
What is the first step in diagnosing hypercalcemia?
Repeat fasting serum calcium measurement to rule out spurious causes.
151
What diagnostic tests should be performed for hypercalcemia?
CBC
152
What test is used to differentiate primary hyperparathyroidism from neoplasia?
PTH and PTH-rP levels.
153
What electrolyte abnormality suggests Addison’s disease?
Sodium:potassium ratio <27:1.
154
What additional diagnostic imaging may be useful for hyperparathyroidism?
Cervical ultrasound or cross-sectional imaging (CT/MRI).
155
What is the best treatment for hypercalcemia?
Addressing the underlying cause.
156
What is the fluid of choice for treating hypercalcemia?
0.9% NaCl IV fluid diuresis.
157
Which diuretic promotes calcium excretion and should only be given to hydrated patients?
Furosemide (loop diuretic).
158
Why should thiazide diuretics be avoided in hypercalcemia?
They promote calcium retention.
159
What glucocorticoids help lower calcium levels?
Prednisone or dexamethasone.
160
Why should glucocorticoids be avoided before diagnosing lymphoma?
They can interfere with diagnosis and reduce chemotherapy effectiveness.
161
What medication is commonly used to inhibit osteoclastic bone resorption?
Bisphosphonates (e.g.
162
What emergency drug can be used for hypervitaminosis D cases?
Calcitonin.
163
How does sodium bicarbonate help in hypercalcemia management?
It decreases ionized calcium levels and is used in emergency cases.
164
What are injection site sarcomas (ISS)?
Locally aggressive tumors induced by injections
165
What is the biologic behavior of ISS?
Extremely locally invasive with tendrils or 'fingerlike projections' and a metastatic rate of 20-25%.
166
What is the recommended approach for preventing ISS?
Vaccinate as distally as possible on a limb to allow for amputation if ISS develops.
167
What is the proposed cause of ISS?
Inflammation associated with injections
168
Which vaccines have been historically implicated in ISS?
Rabies and FeLV vaccines.
169
What other injections have been associated with ISS?
FVRCP vaccines
170
Why is fine needle aspirate (FNA) not always definitive for ISS?
ISS can have necrosis
171
What are the histologic characteristics of ISS on biopsy?
Increased necrosis
172
What is the 1-2-3 rule for when to biopsy a vaccination site lump?
Biopsy if it continues to grow after 1 month
173
Why are thoracic radiographs recommended for ISS?
To assess for pulmonary metastasis.
174
What advanced imaging modalities are recommended for ISS surgical planning?
CT or MRI to assess tumor invasiveness.
175
What is the recommended surgical margin for ISS removal?
3-5 cm lateral margins and 2 fascial planes deep.
176
What is the preferred surgical approach for ISS on a limb?
Amputation.
177
What surgical approaches are needed for interscapular ISS?
Dorsal spinous process removal and partial scapulectomy.
178
What is the recurrence time for ISS with conservative surgery?
Approximately 2 months.
179
What is the recurrence time for ISS with radical surgery by a specialist?
Approximately 9 months.
180
What is the recurrence time for ISS if clean surgical margins are achieved?
Approximately 16 months.
181
When is radiation therapy used for ISS?
As an adjuvant to surgery if margins are narrow or incomplete.
182
Can radiation therapy be used before or after surgery?
Yes
183
What chemotherapy agent has been used for ISS?
Doxorubicin (Adriamycin).
184
What is the response rate to doxorubicin in ISS?
Up to 50% in small studies
185
When is chemotherapy most useful in ISS cases?
For microscopic metastatic disease or when surgical margins are incomplete and radiation therapy is not an option.
186
How should vaccine sites be standardized for ISS prevention?
Rabies vaccines in the right pelvic limb
187
Why is it important to record injection sites?
To track potential ISS development and allow for proper surgical intervention.
188
What is a soft tissue sarcoma (STS)?
A group of tumors originating from mesenchymal cells
189
What percentage of all skin and subcutaneous tumors in dogs are soft tissue sarcomas?
0.15
190
What are the key characteristics of soft tissue sarcomas?
Locally invasive
191
What is the most common site of metastasis for soft tissue sarcomas?
Lungs (pulmonary nodules).
192
Which sarcomas are NOT considered STS due to different biologic behaviors?
Hemangiosarcoma
193
Why is fine needle aspirate (FNA) often non-diagnostic for STS?
STS exfoliate poorly and may be read as 'spindle cell proliferation' in well-differentiated tumors.
194
What diagnostic test is required for grading soft tissue sarcomas?
Biopsy.
195
Why are CT or MRI recommended for STS surgical planning?
The palpable tumor is often just the 'tip of the iceberg' and imaging helps assess deeper invasion.
196
What is the primary treatment for soft tissue sarcoma?
Surgical excision with a minimum of 3 cm margins.
197
When is limb amputation considered for STS?
Only if the tumor is painful
198
What is the role of radiation therapy in STS treatment?
Used as an adjuvant therapy if surgical margins are incomplete or narrow.
199
When is chemotherapy considered for STS?
For metastatic disease
200
What is the most commonly used chemotherapy drug for STS?
Doxorubicin (Adriamycin)-based protocols.
201
What is the metastasis rate for low or intermediate grade STS?
< 20%.
202
What is the metastasis rate for high-grade STS?
40-50%.
203
What factors are used to determine STS grade?
Tumor differentiation
204
What mitotic index is associated with high-grade STS?
>19 mitoses per 10 high power fields.
205
What is the 1-year control rate for incomplete surgical excision with adjuvant radiation therapy?
0.95
206
What percentage of dogs with STS ultimately die from tumor-related causes?
Up to 1/3.
207
What species is most commonly affected by urethral obstruction?
Male cats.
208
Why are male cats more predisposed to urethral obstruction than females?
The male urethra is longer and narrower
209
What are the possible causes of urethral obstruction?
Uroliths
210
What is the most life-threatening electrolyte disturbance in urethral obstruction?
Hyperkalemia.
211
Why does hyperkalemia occur in urethral obstruction?
Decreased renal potassium excretion and extracellular shift due to acidosis.
212
What are the characteristic ECG changes seen with hyperkalemia?
Bradycardia
213
What is the emergency treatment for hyperkalemia?
IV fluids (0.9% NaCl)
214
What is the role of calcium gluconate in hyperkalemia treatment?
Stabilizes the cardiac membrane potential but does not lower serum potassium.
215
Why does metabolic acidosis occur in urethral obstruction?
The kidneys cannot excrete hydrogen ions
216
How does the body compensate for metabolic acidosis?
Increased respiratory rate and tidal volume to blow off CO2.
217
How is severe metabolic acidosis treated?
IV fluid therapy and sodium bicarbonate (if pH < 7.1
218
Why does azotemia occur in urethral obstruction?
Decreased renal excretion of urea and other waste products due to obstruction.
219
How is azotemia managed?
Bladder decompression and IV fluid diuresis.
220
Why does hyperphosphatemia occur in urethral obstruction?
Phosphorus accumulates due to impaired renal excretion.
221
Why does severe hyperphosphatemia cause hypocalcemia?
Calcium binds to phosphorus (law of mass action)
222
What are the clinical signs of severe hypocalcemia?
Seizures
223
How is hypocalcemia treated in urethral obstruction?
IV calcium gluconate (50-100 mg/kg).
224
What is the first step in treating urethral obstruction?
Rehydration with potassium-free IV fluids (0.9% NaCl).
225
How is the obstruction typically relieved?
Urinary catheter placement with retropulsion of the obstruction into the bladder.
226
What are key considerations for urinary catheter placement?
Use appropriate sedation/analgesia to minimize urethral trauma.
227
What is post-obstructive diuresis?
Profound polyuria following relief of the obstruction due to osmotic diuresis.
228
Why is urine output monitoring crucial post-obstruction?
To ensure fluid therapy matches urine losses and prevent dehydration.
229
When should a urinary catheter be removed?
Once azotemia
230
How long should a patient be observed after urinary catheter removal?
12-24 hours to confirm spontaneous urination.
231
What diagnostic tests should be performed after stabilization?
Urinalysis
232
How can urethral obstruction be prevented in cats?
Increased water intake
233
What are the most common urinary stones in dogs and cats?
Struvite and calcium oxalate.
234
Which stones can be dissolved with dietary management?
Struvite
235
Which stones require surgical removal or lithotripsy?
Calcium oxalate stones.
236
How can urine volume be increased to reduce stone formation?
Feeding a high-moisture diet to keep urine dilute.
237
What is the dietary approach for managing urolithiasis?
Reduce crystal-forming substrates
238
What are struvite stones composed of?
Magnesium ammonium phosphate.
239
What is the primary cause of struvite stones in dogs?
Urinary tract infections (UTI) with urease-positive bacteria.
240
How are struvite stones treated in dogs?
Low magnesium
241
Are struvite stones in cats typically sterile or infection-induced?
Sterile.
242
What pH environment promotes struvite stone formation?
Alkaline urine.
243
How can struvite stones be prevented?
Urinary acidification and infection control.
244
Which dog breeds are predisposed to calcium oxalate stones?
Schnauzer
245
Why can't calcium oxalate stones be dissolved with diet?
They do not dissolve with urine alkalinization or dietary changes.
246
What surgical or mechanical treatments are available for calcium oxalate stones?
Surgical removal
247
What dietary modifications help prevent calcium oxalate stones?
Avoid excessive protein
248
What pH environment promotes calcium oxalate stone formation?
Acidic urine.
249
Which dog breeds are predisposed to cystine stones?
Bulldogs
250
How can cystine stones be managed?
Reduced protein
251
What medications help dissolve cystine stones?
Potassium citrate (preferred) or sodium bicarbonate; Thiola (2-MPG) to bind cystine and increase solubility.
252
Which breed is most predisposed to urate stones?
Dalmatians.
253
What is the cause of urate stone formation?
Defective uric acid metabolism leading to excess uric acid excretion.
254
How are urate stones treated?
Reduced protein
255
Why must allopurinol be given with a low-protein diet?
To prevent formation of xanthine stones or a xanthine shell around preexisting urate stones.
256
What are rare urinary stones in dogs and cats?
Calcium phosphate
