Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

past questions > cardio > Flashcards

cardio Flashcards

(89 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

treatment for acute MI?

A

MONA: morphine, O2 (if sats are <94%), nitrates, aspirin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

pharmacology of spironolactone?

A

inhibition of aldosterone receptor at K+/Na+ channel in the distal tubules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

list some risk factors for hypertension

A

High caffeine consumption, Sedentary lifestyle, Smoking, Type A personality, alcohol, family history, increasing age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

presentations of mitral regurgitation?

A

SOB, fatigue, pan-systolic high-pitched “whistling” murmur at apex, may radiate to left axilla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

presentations of aortic stenosis?

A

syncope, angina, ejection systolic murmur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

presentations of aortic regurgitation?

A

syncope, angina, early diastolic / austin flint murmur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

presentations of mitral stenosis?

A

SOB, fatigue, low pitched, “rumbling” mid-diastolic murmur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

MI ECG changes?

A

ST elevation, T wave inversion, abnormal Q wave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what underlying heart condition can predispose you to strokes?

A

atrial fibrillation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what framework determines heart attack risk in those with hypertension?

A

QRISK2 score

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

describe the correct order for the electrical conduction of the heart?

A

SA node -> atria -> AV node -> bundle of His -> Purkinje fibres -> L and R bundle branches -> ventricles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

explain the pathophysiology of aortic stenosis

A

coarctation (narrowing) of the aortic valve typically either due to calcification or bicuspid valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

XR for mitral stenosis?

A

enlarged left and right atriums

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

List some clinical signs you might find on examination or on a chest X-ray in heart failure

A

ABCDE:
- Alveolar oedema
- kerley B lines
- Cardiomegaly
- Dilation of the upper lobe vessels
- pleural Effusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What marker might you find in blood that could be indicative of heart failure?

A

BNP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

List 3 investigations that you would want to do for initial investigations of infective endocarditis

A

blood cultures, echocardiogram, ECG, FBC (anaemia), urinalysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Define atherosclerosis

A

build up of lipids, macrophages and smooth muscle cells in the intima of arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Other than chest pain, name 4 other symptoms or signs you may find on the history or examination in a STEMI

A

sweating, hypotension, N/V, dizziness, SOB, anxiety, palpitations, pallor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Name the 4 cardiac defects involved in Tetralogy of Fallot.

A

ventricular septal defect, pulmonary stenosis, right ventricular hypertrophy, overriding aorta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what does 1st degree HB show?

A

prolonged PR interval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what does 2nd degree type I (Mobitz I or Wenckebach) show?

A

progressive prolongation of the PR interval followed by a dropped QRS complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what does 2nd degree type II (Mobitz II) show?

A

intermittent non-conducted P waves without progressive PR prolongation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what does 3rd degree HB show?

A

absence of AV conduction; no association between P waves and QRS complexes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

define thrombosis

A

formation of a blood clot inside a blood vessel which obstructs flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
define embolism
blocked vessel caused by a foreign body e.g. blood clot or air bubble
26
define infarction
death of cells due to a reduced or absent blood supply
27
define ischaemia
restriction in blood supply to tissues causing a shortage of oxygen that is needed for cell function
28
give 4 functions of the RAAS system
- increased sympathetic activity and arteriolar vasoconstriction therefore increases HR/BP - increased tubular reabsorption of Na and Cl and K+ excretion - increased aldosterone secretion resulting in Na reabsorption in DCT - ADH secretion leading to H2O reabsorption - overall: salt and water retention and an increase in BP
29
what is the difference between essential and secondary hypertension?
Essential hypertension occurs independent of any identifiable cause, secondary hypertension occurs as a result of an identifiable cause
30
state 4 causes of secondary hypertension
renal artery stenosis, chronic renal disease, primary hyperaldosteronism, stress
31
which part of the heart is likely to be affected if there is ST elevation in leads V3 and V4?
anterior
32
abnormalities in leads II, III, and aVF - Which coronary artery is most likely to be implicated?
right coronary
33
what is the treatment given post MI?
ACEi, dual antiplatelet therapy e.g. clopidogrel and aspirin/BBlocker, statin
34
what is given as acute management for supraventricular tachycardia?
valsalvar manoeuvre - nose and mouth is held during forceful expiration to stimulate the vagus nerve to return the heart into sinus rhythm
35
Which tool assesses starting anticoagulation in patients with stroke risk due to atrial fibrillation?
CHA2DS2-VASc
36
first line test for heart failure?
BNP
37
What is the most appropriate diagnostic investigation for aortic stenosis?
echocardiogram
38
define unstable angina
incomplete coronary artery occlusion usually by a thrombus, e.g. atherosclerotic plaque has ruptured which causes a clot to form and occlude the artery.
39
4 signs if infective endocarditis?
janeway lesions, roth spots, splinter haemorrhages, osler nodes
40
define cardiac tamponade
Accumulation of a large amount of fluid in the pericardial cavity that compresses the heart and reduces cardiac function
41
would you see ascites in left sided heart failure?
no
42
Which ECG abnormality is most associated with Wolff-parkinson-white syndrome?
delta wave
43
what is the ductus arteriosus?
a vessel that connects the pulmonary arteries to the aorta in the fetus allowing oxygenated maternal blood to bypass the lungs
44
state some signs of Dressler's syndrome
- central chest pain worse on breathing in or lying flat, relieved by leaning forward - fever - friction rub heard on auscultation
45
what is Dressler's syndrome
- also known as postmyocardial infarction syndrome - a form of secondary pericarditis with or without pericardial effusion that occurs as a result of injury to the heart or pericardium.
46
where do roth spots typically occur?
eye
47
state some signs of right sided HF
raised JVP, pitting oedema, ascites
48
first line investigation for stable angina?
CT coronary angiography
49
what is treatment for stable angina?
- GTN spray for acute attacks - beta blocker e.g. bisoprolol OR cardioselective CCB e.g. verapamil for long term prevention
50
second line treatment for angina?
beta blocker + non-cardioselective CCB e.g. nifedipine
51
why can you not combine a beta blocker with a cardioselective CCB?
risk of asystole
52
what is the first line treatment in heart failure with reduced ejection fraction?
ACE-i and beta blocker
53
what is the second line treatment in heart failure with reduced ejection fraction?
addition of spironolactone to ACE-i and beta blocker
54
what is the first line treatment for hypertension in those with type 2 diabetes?
always an ACE-i
55
what is the first line medication given to those with a fib to prevent a stroke?
DOAC or warfarin -> warfarin is better if any previous valve surgery
56
treatment of pericarditis?
NSAIDs + colchicine
57
what does TIMI stand for?
thrombosis in myocardial infarction
58
A common cause of MI is coronary artery disease, what causes this?
The coronary arteries get blocked by plaque build-up / deposits of cholesterol
59
What does the ST elevation indicate?
complete blockage of coronary artery
60
How does MI lead to contracted scar formation of the heart?
Death of heart muscle cells occur due to lack of oxygen, this leads to necrosis. This happens over about 2 weeks with a scar forming due to formation of granulation tissue
61
Name 2 risk factors for developing Mitral Valve Stenosis
- Rheumatic fever - Untreated streptococcus infections - increasing age
62
Name 1 class of drug used to manage Mitral Valve Stenosis and give 1 example
- Beta Blockers + example: e.g. bisoprolol/ propranolol etc. - Diuretics + example: e.g. Furosemide (Salt + loop diuretic) / Bendroflumethiazide (thiazide diuretic) etc.
63
Name 2 surgical interventions that can be used to treat Mitral Valve Stenosis
- Percutaneous mitral balloon valvotomy - Mitral valve replacement
64
What cardiac arrhythmia is often associated with Mitral Valve Stenosis?
a fib
65
Give 2 investigations the GP might request for HTN, and the relevant features of them that indicate it.
- Urinalysis: protein/albumin:creatinine ratio/haematuria - Blood tests, serum creatinine/eGFR - Fundoscopy/ophthalmoscopy, retinal haemorrhage/papilloedema - ECG/Echocardiography: left ventricular hypertrophy
66
How might the size of a kidney change with hypertension?
reduced size
67
What class of drug is used to treat Infective Endocarditis and how long is this treatment given for?
antibiotics for 4-6 weeks
68
what does the CHADS VASc score stand for?
- Congestive Heart Failure - Hypertension - Age (75+=2) - Diabetes - Stroke/ TIA/ Thromboembolism - Vascular disease - Age (65-74) - Sex category (female=1)
69
what are the 3 cardinal signs of HF?
SOB, fatigue, ankle oedema
70
first line management for acute coronary syndrome?
fibrinolysis with IV tenecteplase
71
which 2 structures are required to prevent the ventricles from contracting at very high rates in a fib?
annulus fibrosus and AVN
72
describe the management of AF
- Haemodynamically unstable – cardioversion with synchronised DC shock + anticoagulation. - Haemodynamically stable – either: Rate control (Beta blockers / CCBs) + anticoagulation OR Rhythm control (cardioversion) -> beta blockers + anticoagulation
73
gold standard investigation for heart failure?
echocardiogram
74
define atrial fib and how it is different to atrial flutter
irregularly irregular atrial rhythm at 300-600bpm, a flutter is fast but regular atrial rhythm
75
What are the two main things seen on an ECG for a patient with AF?
- no P wave - irregularly irregular - rapid QRS complex
76
suspects Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. If their suspicions are correct what should the ECG show?
Wide QRS, short PR, delta wave
77
What type of arrhythmia is Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome?
atrioventricular re-entry tachycardia
78
What is the normal length of the PR interval on an ECG?
0.12-0.2s
79
what is the appropriate first line medication to treat a patient with heart failure?
BBlocker + ACEi
80
What is the correct method of action of clopidogrel?
P2Y12 inhibitor
81
What is the gold standard test used to diagnose unstable angina?
angiography
82
what is the first line treatment for unstable angina?
GTN spray and either B-blocker or CCB
83
which cardiac murmur presents with malar flush and what does it sound like?
mitral stenosis, diastolic murmur
84
give an example of a CCB
amlodipine
85
what is beck's triad?
for cardiac tamponade symptoms: - hypotension, - distended jugular veins, - muffled heart sounds
86
what is the name of the treatment to relieve pressure in cardiac tamponade
pericardiocentesis
87
give 3 diagnostic tests of cardiac tamponade
ECG, CXR, echocardiogram
88
state some signs/symptoms of cardiac tamponade
- decreased exercise tolerance - progressive dyspnoea at rest. - ankles oedema - raised JVP - pulsus paradoxus.
89
what is pulsus paradoxus?
bp decreases with inhalation

past questions (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions