endo Flashcards

1
Q

what medication is to be prescribed prior to an adrenalectomy to stabilise BP and K+ levels?

A

spironolactone - it is a potassium sparing diuretic so will retain the K+ ions in body

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2
Q

diagnosis from raised renin and raised aldosterone?

A

secondary hyperaldosteronism - renin secreting tumour is present

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3
Q

presentations of Cushing’s syndrome?

A

abdominal striae, moon face, buffalo hump
and weight loss in extremities

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4
Q

presentations of Addison’s disease?

A

hyperpigmentation, central weight loss, hypotension

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5
Q

Loss of which feedback system results in an increase of cortisol in the body?

A

Hypothalamo-pituitary-adrenal axis

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6
Q

what test determines cranial or nephrogenic diabetes insipidus?

A

water deprivation test with desmopressin

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7
Q

what is the diagnostic criteria for DM?

A
  • Fasting plasma glucose >7mmol/L
  • HbA1c of ≥48mmol/mol
  • Symptoms
  • random plasma glucose >11mmol/L
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8
Q

hyperkalaemia ECG?

A
  • absent P waves
  • prolonged PR
  • tall T waves
  • wide QRS complex
  • bradycardia
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9
Q

what is carcinoid syndrome?

A

a paraneoplastic syndrome where a rare cancerous tumour (carcinoid tumour) secretes 5-HT
- classical triad of cardiac involvement, diarrhoea and flushing

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10
Q

how can Crohn’s disease lead to secondary adrenal insufficiency?

A
  • long term medication for Crohn’s is corticosteroids, which causes suppression/atrophy of adrenal glands
  • withdrawal from these meds can cause secondary adrenal insufficiency
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11
Q

which cancers can cause SIADH?

A

ACTH secreting; small cell carcinoma, prostate, pancreatic, thymus cancer and lymphomas

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12
Q

list some symptoms of hyperkalaemia

A
  • muscle weakness/cramping
  • paraesthesia
  • anxiety
  • palpitations
  • abdo pain
  • diarrhoea
  • dyspnoea
  • hyperreflexia
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13
Q

list 6 complications of acromegaly

A
  • T2DM
  • obstructive sleep apnoea
  • cardiomyopathy
  • hypertension
  • stroke
  • colorectal cancer
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14
Q

first line investigation for acromegaly?

A

serum IGF-1, would be raised (IGF-1 increases with GH secretion)

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15
Q

first line treatment for acromegaly?

A

transsphenoidal resection of pituitary adenoma

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16
Q

name 3 classes of drugs used to treat acromegaly and an example of each

A
  • SST analogues, e.g. octreotide
  • GH antagonist, e.g. pegvisomant
  • dopamine antagonists, e.g. cabergoline
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17
Q

give 4 differential diagnoses of polyuria and polydipsia

A

DM, DI, SIADH, primary polydipsia

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18
Q

what is the main cause of primary hyperparathyroidism?

A

solitary adenoma (80% cases)

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19
Q

list the signs and symptoms of primary hyperparathyroidism

A
  • bones: bone pain/fractures
  • stones: renal/biliary stones
  • groans: constipation, abdo pain, PUD, pancreatitis
  • psychic moans: depression
  • thrones: polyuria, polydipsia
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20
Q

definitive treatment for primary hyperparathyroidism?

A

total parathyroidectomy

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21
Q

first line investigation for Cushing’s disease?

A

overnight dexamethasone suppression test

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22
Q

most common cause of Cushing’s syndrome?

A

exogenous, e.g. excess corticosteroid use

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23
Q

main feature of a U&E for hyperaldosteronism?

A

hyperkalaemia

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24
Q

first line investigation of hyperaldosteronism?

A

aldosterone renin ratio

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25
How do you distinguish between primary and secondary hyperaldosteronism?
High ratio = primary / low ratio = secondary
26
main finding on ECG in hypercalcaemia?
Shortening of the QT interval
27
2 signs for hypocalcaemia
- Chvostek's: tap over facial nerve causes spasm of facial muscles - Trousseau's: inflate bp cuff to 20mmHg above systolic for 5 mins and hand should form a claw
28
where does the superior thyroid artery arise from?
external carotid artery
29
cause of hypercalcaemia via malignancy?
excessive secretion of parathyroid hormone released peptide (PTHrP)
30
list 4 functions of PTH
- increases Ca2+ absorption in gut - increases Ca2+ reabsorbed in kidney -> less is excreted in urine - decreases phosphate reabsorption in kidney, increasing amount excreted - stimulates osteoclasts to reabsorb bone mineral, increasing bone remodelling and turnover
31
Give 5 generalised symptoms of a pituitary adenoma.
- N/V, - headaches, - infertility, - changes in periods, - fatigue, - depression/anxiety, - vision problems
32
list 5 signs or symptoms would you see with increased TSH
heat intolerance, sweating, weight gain, palpitations, anxiety, fatigue, irregular periods
33
what symptoms would you see in carcinoid syndrome?
cutaneous flushing, recurrent diarrhoea, abdo cramps, asthma-like wheezing
34
what would you see on physical exam in carcinoid syndrome?
- erythema - pellagra skin lesions - wheezing - hepatosplenomegaly from metastases - pulmonary systolic and diastolic heart murmur
35
What drug is commonly used to reduce thyroid hormone production?
carbimazole
36
outline the physiology of how carbimazole exerts its effects.
Blocks thyroid peroxidase from coupling and iodinating the tyrosine residues on thyroglobulin, leading to decreased thyroid hormone production
37
Provide 4 signs and/or symptoms of a patient experiencing DKA
nausea, fruity breath, abdo pain, hypotension, tachycardia, reduced consciousness
38
what is a phaeochromocytoma?
rare tumour of the adrenal medulla
39
which cells is a phaeochromocytoma usually composed of?
chromaffin cells
40
give 4 symptoms of a phaeochromocytoma
diaphoresis, hypertension, tachycardia/palpitations, pallor, diabetes
41
which test confirms a diagnosis of Addison's disease?
synacthen test - ACTH stimulation
42
which drug used in treatment of asthma may cause hypokalaemia?
salbutamol
43
persistent hypertension, chronic headache, muscle cramps and fatigue: suspect what?
primary hyperaldosteronism
44
treatment for DKA?
IV fluids before insulin therapy
45
what is the gold standard diagnosis for phaeochromocytoma?
elevated plasma free metanephrine
46
how does insulin act on cells?
reduces glycogenolysis
47
secondline treatment for T2DM?
metformin + sulfonylurea
48
diagnostic criteria for DKA?
- Blood Glucose >11 mmol/L - Plasma Ketones >3 mmol/L - Blood pH <7.3 - Bicarbonate <15 mmol/L
49
What is the most common subtype of Thyroid carcinoma?
papillary
50
blood test results for Graves disease?
low TSH, high T3/4
51
Where in the adrenal gland are catecholamines produced and secreted?
adrenal medulla
52
Conn’s syndrome is what type of mineralocorticoid excess syndrome?
primary aldosteronism
53
What class of immunoglobulin is involved in Graves disease?
IgG
54
What test would be most useful to confirm your diagnosis of carcinoid syndrome?
chromagranin-A + octreoscan
55
what would the blood test results show for primary hypothyroidism?
high TSH, low T4
56
what U&E blood test would you expect to find in SIADH?
hyponatraemia
57
what would the blood test results show for secondary hypothyroidism?
low TSH, low T3/4
58
what does glucagon stimulate?
lipolysis
59
where does fertilization occur?
ampulla
60
The first few cellular differentiation of a zygote is called cleavage. When does cleavage occur?
day 2-3
61
name 5 tests required for diagnosis of DKA and the results required
Blood glucose >= 11.1mmol/L Plasma ketones >= 3 mmol/L Ketonuria > 2+ on dipstick Venous pH <7.35 HCO3- <15.0mmol/L
62
name 4 risk factors for DKA
- stopped insulin - infection - pancreatitis - undiagnosed DMT1 - surgery
63
name 3 complications of DKA
- coma - cerebral oedema - pneumonia
64
What aspect on a urine dipstick would indicate that the patient has diabetes insipidus (DI) instead of diabetes mellitus?
glucose negative
65
The patient is diagnosed with diabetes insipidus, what test would be run to differentiate cranial and nephrogenic DI and what result would indicate it is cranial?
IM desmopressin test. Urine becomes concentrated in cranial.
66
what class of medication would you give to cranial DI and name an example of this
ADH analogue; desmopressin
67
In patients with nephrogenic DI you give them NSAIDs, what is the physiology behind this?
NSAIDs Inhibit prostaglandins which stops their inhibition of ADH action
68
give some examples of counselling advice you should give to someone undergoing a PSA test
- Raised PSA doesn’t indicate prostate cancer, at his age it will likely be raised - would a negative result reassure him? - if he does have cancer likely watch and wait
69
What is the difference between benign prostatic hyperplasia and benign prostatic enlargement?
Hyperplasia is a histological diagnosis and enlargement is a clinical diagnosis
70
What type of hypersensitivity reaction is Grave’s disease?
type 2
71
What causes the hyperparathyroidism in grave’s disease?
Pathological stimulation of the TSH receptor by circulating IgG autoantibodies
72
If left untreated what is a possible complication of Grave’s disease?
agranulocytosis
73
What rare but serious adverse effect of carbimazole will require close monitoring?
thyroid storm
74
what medication is given to control optical symptoms in Grave's disease?
high dose glucocorticoids -> immunosuppress
75
give 2 investigations of Grave's disease
thyroid ultrasound, iodine thyroid scan
76
give 3 treatments of Grave's disease
carbimazole, Radioiodine therapy, Thyroidectomy
77
Name 2 causes of Acromegaly
Benign Pituitary tumour (growth-hormone secreting), Ectopic Carcinoid tumour (growth-hormone secreting)
78
What are 3 other signs of Acromegaly?
- Skin darkening - Coarsening face - Wide nose - Big supraorbital ridge - Interdental separation - Deep voice - Large tongue
79
Name 2 investigations for diagnosing Acromegaly
- serum IGF - Glucose Tolerance Test (GTT) - MRI scan of Pituitary Gland
80
What hormonal changes result in thyroid storm / crisis?
rapid T4 increase
81
Name 2 things that a thyroid storm can progress to if not treated promptly.
delirium, coma, death, cerebral oedema, pneumonia
82
Name 2 events which can precipitate thyroid storm.
stress, infection, surgery
83
Name 3 drugs you would give orally to a patient in thyroid crisis.
- Oral carmbimazole - Oral propranolol - Oral potassium iodide
84
How does hydrocortisone work to reverse a thyroid storm?
inhibits peripheral conversion of T4 to T3
85
Why would measuring Plasma Growth Hormone levels alone not be diagnostic of Acromegaly?
GH secretion is pulsatile and can be elevated due to stress / pregnancy / puberty
86
what receptor antibody is specific for Grave's disease?
TSH-receptor antibody
87
what is the difference between an endocrine and an exocrine gland?
endo secretes hormones directly into bloodstream, exo secretes into a duct first
88
give 3 examples of primary adrenal insufficiency
Addisons, surgical removal, trauma
89
give 3 examples of secondary adrenal insufficiency
steroids, congenital, neoplasm
90
give 3 appropriate investigations for Cushing's disease
- 24 hour urinary collection - random blood cortisol test - dexamethasone suppression test
91
explain on a cellular level how hyperglycaemia leads to insulin secretion
- increased glucose uptake by cells - Glucose metabolism leads to increased levels of ATP within cell - Increased ATP causes K+ channels to close causing depolarisation of cell membrane - Ca2+ channels open and Ca2+ enters cell - Increased Ca2+ in cell causes exocytosis of insulin-containing vesicles - Insulin released by Pancreatic Beta cells / cells in Islets of Langerhans
92
give 2 examples of microvascular and macrovascular complications of DM
micro: retinopathy, neuropathy macro: peripheral artery disease, cerebrovascular disease
93
what are the thyroid autoantibodies found in graves disease?
thyroglobulin and anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies
94
What medication is used to treat hypothyroidism?
synthetic levothyroxine
95
what is the gold standard test for finding the CAUSE of primary hyper-aldosteronism?
adrenal vein sampling
96
what is Conn's disease in simple terms?
primary hyperaldosteronism
97
briefly describe the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system
- renin is released by juxtaglomerular cells in response to decrease in renal perfusion - renin increases ang 1 formation from angiotensinogen - ang 1 turns to ang 2 via ACE released from lungs - ang 2 stimulates ADH secretion from posterior pituitary
98
name and give an example of 1 drug used for the medical treatment of adrenal hyperplasia
aldosterone antagonists e.g. spironolactone
99
give 3 common presenting symptoms of hyperaldosteronism
HTN, weakness/fatigue, headaches, cramps, polyuria/dipsia
100
what is the triad of ketoacidosis?
hyperglycaemia, ketonaemia, acidaemia
101
pathophysiology of ketoacidosis?
- in absence of insulin - peripheral uptake of glucose by tissues is reduced - ketones are produced in absence of glucose and accumulate
102
blood results for secondary hyperparathyroidism?
high PTH, hypocalcaemia, hyperphosphataemia
103
what kind of HTN does addisons cause?
hypotension
104
name 5 complications of long term steorid use
DM, Immunosuppression, Osteoporosis, Proximal muscle weakness, Thinned skin
105
describe relapsing remitting MS
most common, acute attacks followed by periods of remission
106
describe primary progressive MS
progressive deterioration from onset
107
describe secondary progressive MS
relapsing remitting deterioration progressing onto straight onset
108
describe progressive relapsing MS
progressive deterioration from onset with relapsing
109
give 5 signs or symptoms of Cushing's
- mood change - acne - buffalo hump - osteoporosis - moon face - thinning of skin
110
give 2 diagnostic tests of Cushing's
24hr urine cortisol, overnight dexamethasone suppression test, ACTH plasma levels, pituitary MRI
111
give 2 complications that may arise from Cushing's
bone fractures, depression/mood changes, hypertension, infections, diabetes
112
what would the blood results be for primary hyperparathyroidism?
high PTH, high calcium, low phosphate
113
what is the karyotype for Turner's syndrome?
45, XO
114
what is first line step in addisonian crisis?
STAT dose of 100mg hydrocortisone
115
what can Conn's syndrome cause?
hypokalaemia
116
why does polyuria occur in diabetes mellitus?
increased conc of glucose in the tubule urine means it cannot all be reabsorbed in the kidneys so more water is drawn in and a larger volume of urine is produced