Cardiology V Flashcards

1
Q

Which drug can you use to treat PAD pain? [1]

A

Naftidrofuryl oxalate

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2
Q

State 4 classical causes of dialted cardiomyopathy [4]

A

Alcohol
Coxsackie B virus
Wet beri beri (thiamine deficiency)
Doxorubicin

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3
Q

At which stage of pregnancy does peri-partum cardiomyopathy usually occur [1] and go on till? [1]

Which subpopulations of pregnant women usually suffer from peripartum cardiomyopathy? [2]

A

peri-partum cardiomyopathy:
- last month of pregnancy and 5 months post-partum
- usually older; greater parity and multiple gestations

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4
Q

Name two infective organisms that can cause cardiomyopathy [2]

A

Coxsackie B virus
Chagas diesease

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5
Q

State an autoimmune disorders that dispose patients to cardiomyopathy [1]

A

SLE

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6
Q

Define HOCM [1]
Describe the pathophysiology of HOCM

A

HOCM: is defined as increased ventricular wall thickness or mass not caused by pathologic loading conditions.

Pathophysiology:
- mutation in the gene encoding β-myosin heavy chain protein or myosin-binding protein C
- This results in predominantly diastolic dysfunction:
- left ventricle hypertrophydecreased compliancedecreased cardiac output

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7
Q

Explain the clinical consequences of HOCM [5]

A

Myocardial hypertrophy:
- predominantly in the interventricular septum
- asymmetric septal hypertrophy narrows the left ventricular outflow tract (LVOT).

Diastolic dysfunction:
- Reduced compliance and elevated filling pressures ddue to hypertrophy

LVOT obstruction:
- The interventricular septal hypertrophy, combined with systolic anterior motion (SAM) of the mitral valve, causes dynamic obstruction of the LVOT during systole.
- This increases the pressure gradient across the LVOT, reducing cardiac output and provoking symptoms.

Mitral regurgitation:
- The SAM of the mitral valve contributes to mitral regurgitation by displacing the valve leaflets, exacerbating the hemodynamic abnormalities and worsening heart failure symptoms

Arrhythmogenesis:
- Myocardial disarray, fibrosis, and ischemia increase the risk of ventricular and atrial arrhythmias
- can lead to sudden cardiac death.

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8
Q

Describe the typical signs seen in HOCM patient [7]

A

Ejection systolic murmur (left ventricular outflow obstruction):
- harsh crescendo-decrescendo shortly after S1 and loudest at the apex and lower left sternal edge

Mid-late systolic murmur (mitral regurgitation):
- occurs at the apex. Depending on the extent of mitral regurgitation and the direction of the jet regurgitating through the mitral valve it may be pansystolic

S4 gallop:
- This can be heard in patients with impaired diastolic function, reflecting atrial contraction against a noncompliant left ventricle.

Heave (visible or palpation pulsation)

Thrill (palpable murmur)

Features of heart failure:
- raised JVP, crackles on lung auscultation, peripheral oedema

Bifid carotid pulse:
- A rapid upstroke followed by a mid-systolic dip may be observed, known as the ‘spike and dome’ pulse.

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9
Q

Increased left ventricular wall thickness ≥[] mm in the absence of any other identifiable cause is consistent with HCM

A

Increased left ventricular wall thickness ≥15 mm in the absence of any other identifiable cause is consistent with HCM

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10
Q

How would an ECG indicate HOCM? [3]

A

Left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH)

T-wave inversions:
- Deep, symmetric T-wave inversions in the precordial leads are suggestive of HOCM.

Arrhythmias:
- Atrial fibrillation or ventricular tachycardia may be detected.

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11
Q

Which imaging modality can be usefull to differentiate HOCM from other causes of LVH? [1]

A

Cardiac Magnetic Resonance Imaging (CMR): provides detailed assessment of myocardial hypertrophy, fibrosis (using late gadolinium enhancement), and ventricular function.

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12
Q

Describe the medical managment plan for a patient with HOCM used to reduce symptoms and LVOT obstruction [5]

A

A. Beta blockers
- 1st line: atenolol or propranolol

B. CCBs:
- Verapamil

C. antiarrhythmic agents:
- Disopyramide

D. Diuretics:
- furosemide
- Caution is warranted due to the potential for hypovolemia and exacerbation of LVOT obstruction.

E. Anticoagulation:
- Indicated in patients with atrial fibrillation or a history of thromboembolic events.

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13
Q

Name and describe the results seen in th 1st investigations to order for suspected HOCM? [3]

BMJ BP

A

ECG:
- Deep, narrow (“dagger-like”) Q waves in lateral (I, aVL, V5-6) +/- inferior (II, III, aVF) leads
- LVH (present with QRS complexes that are tallest in the midprecordial leads): deep T wave inversion in I, II, VL & V3-6
- ST-T wave abnormalities;
- normal

CXR:
- cardiomegaly
- normal

echocardiography
- cardinal feature is left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH)
- asymmetric septal hypertrophy

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14
Q

Describe the surgical managment that can be given for severe, symptomatic LVOT obstruction refractory to medical therapy? [2]

A

Septal myectomy:
- Surgical removal of a portion of the hypertrophied septum, with a low operative mortality rate and durable long-term symptomatic relief.

Alcohol septal ablation
- A percutaneous approach, involving injection of ethanol into a septal coronary artery to induce localized myocardial infarction and septal thinning.
- Outcomes are comparable to septal myectomy but may be less effective in patients with extreme septal thickness.

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15
Q

Which differentials should you think of when investigating TCM? [3]

A

Requires the exclusion of other potential causes, such as acute coronary syndrome (ACS), myocarditis, and pheochromocytoma

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16
Q

Which specific type of cardiomyopathy is the most well characterised arrhythmogenic cardiomyopathy caused by a genetic mutation? [1]

A

Arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy (ARVC) is the most well characterised ACM caused by a genetic mutation.

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17
Q

What is a good pneumonic for learning causes of restrictive CM? [5]

A
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18
Q

What is the management for HOCM? [5]

A

Management:
Amiodarone
Beta-blockers or verapamil for symptoms
Cardioverter defibrillator
Dual chamber pacemaker
Endocarditis prophylaxis*

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19
Q

Which drug classes should be avoided in HOCM patients? [3]

A

nitrates
ACE-inhibitors
inotropes

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20
Q

Describe what is meant by Arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy

A

Form of inherited cardiovascular disease which may present with syncope or sudden cardiac death:
* inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern with variable expression
* the right ventricular myocardium is replaced by fatty and fibrofatty tissue
* around 50% of patients have a mutation of one of the several genes which encode components of desmosome

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21
Q

[] is generally regarded as the second most common cause of sudden cardiac death in the young after hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.

A

Arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy

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22
Q

How would you investigate arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy? [3]

A
  • ECG abnormalities in V1-3, typically T wave inversion. An epsilon wave is found in about 50% of those with ARV - this is best described as a terminal notch in the QRS complex
  • echo changes are often subtle in the early stages but may show an enlarged, hypokinetic right ventricle with a thin free wall
  • magnetic resonance imaging is useful to show fibrofatty tissue
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23
Q

How do you manage arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy? [3]

A

Management
* drugs: sotalol is the most widely used antiarrhythmic
* catheter ablation to prevent ventricular tachycardia
* implantable cardioverter-defibrillator

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24
Q

Describe the different classifications of Necrotising soft tissue infections (NSTIs) with regards to their infective organisms

A

Type I:
- polymicrobial: typically mixed anaerobes & aerobes, on average four or more organisms

Type II:
- group A streptococcus (Strep. pyogenes +/- Staph. aureus)

Type III:
- Gram-negative monomicrobial infection.
- Typically associated with Vibrio species infection

Type IV:
- Fungal infection (typically Candida species, zygomycetes).

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25
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of NSTI [3]

A

Microbial invasion and enzyme release
- Initially there is microbial invasion within the superficial fascia (e.g. from minor trauma).
- The release of enzymes and endo/exotoxins results in rapid spread through the fascial planes.

Disruption to microcirculation
- Thrombosis of the small veins and arteries which pass up through the fascia results in ischaemia to the overlying skin.
- Early on, these skin changes are NOT obvious, despite extensive infection below.

Haemorrhagic bullae, ulceration & necrosis
- As the infection progresses skin necrosis becomes more evident. In the later stages, signs of profound sepsis and multi-organ failure may appear.

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26
Q

Describe a key clinical feature of NSTI [1v]

A

Disproportionate pain compared with physical findings is typical.

Pain often PRECEDES skin changes by 24-48hrs.

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27
Q

Skin changes of NSTIs typically occur in three stages.

Describe these stages [3]

A

Stage I
- Erythema, tenderness, swelling and warmth.

Stage II
- Bullae formation, blistering and fluctuation of the skin.

Stage III
- Haemorrhagic bullae, crepitus and tissue necrosis.

28
Q

Describe the Abx treatment given to NSTI patients

A

Antibiotics should be perceived as an adjunct to surgical debridement. Broad-spectrum antibiotics should be initiated without delay according to Trust guidelines. Commonly used agents include:

  • Tazocin (piperacillin & tazobactam)
  • Meropenem
  • Clindamycin - particularly useful at ‘switching off’ exotoxin production.
  • Linezolid - similarly inhibits exotoxin production.
29
Q

NSTI:Type 2 is caused by []

PassMed

A

type 2 is caused by Streptococcus pyogenes

30
Q

What is the overall mangement plan for NSTI? [2]

A

Management
1. urgent surgical referral debridement
2. intravenous antibiotics

31
Q

What are causes of chronic ischaemia causing gangrene? [2]

A

Peripheral arterial disease:
- due to atherosclerosis.

Venous insufficiency:
- The veins may fail to clear blood from the tissues because of valve dysfunction (varicose veins) and obstruction from deep venous thrombosis (DVT) or thrombophlebitis.

32
Q

Treatment of gangrene varies depending on location and cause but is centred around radical surgical debridement +/- amputation. Surgical procedures may also include what? [4]

A
  • Removal of embolus or thrombus
  • Balloon catheterisation or stent
  • Arterial or venous bypass surgery
  • Hyperbaric oxygen treatment.
33
Q

Which of the following is usually caused by trauma, such as a bite?

Type 1
Type 2
Type 3
Type 4

A

Which of the following is usually caused by trauma, such as a bite?

Type 1
Type 2
Type 3
Type 4

34
Q

What are the four common types of skin ulcers? [4]

A

There are four common types of skin ulcers:

  • Venous ulcers
  • Arterial ulcers
  • Diabetic foot ulcers
  • Pressure ulcers
35
Q

What features of an ulcer would indicate that its an arterial ulcer? [+]

A
  • Occur distally, affecting the toes or dorsum of the foot
  • Are associated with peripheral arterial disease, with absent pulses, pallor and intermittent claudication
  • Are smaller than venous ulcers
  • Are deeper than venous ulcers
  • Have well defined borders
  • Have a “punched-out” appearance
  • Are pale colour due to poor blood supply
  • Are less likely to bleed
  • Are painful
  • Have pain worse at night (when lying horizontally)
  • Have pain is worse on elevating and improved by lowering the leg (gravity helps the circulation)
36
Q

Venous ulcers typically occur in which areas of the body? [1]

A

Occur in the gaiter area (between the top of the foot and bottom of the calf muscle)

37
Q

[] (taken orally) can improve healing in venous ulcers (but is not licensed).

A

Pentoxifylline (taken orally) can improve healing in venous ulcers (but is not licensed).

38
Q

What score is used to screen for patients who are at risk of developing pressure areas [1]

A

The Waterlow score:
- includes a number of factors including body mass index, nutritional status, skin type, mobility and continence.

39
Q

Describe how to manage venous leg ulcers if conservative management doesn’t work? [1]

What must the ABPI be to initiate ^? [1]

A

Multicomponent compression bandaging, changed once or twice every week

ABPI must be measured as at least greater than 0.6 before any bandaging is applied.

30-75% of venous leg ulcers will heal after six months of compression therapy.

40
Q

What antibiotic is commonly started for infected arterial ulcers, due to good coverage of Gram positive bacteria

Flucloxacillin

Gentamicin

Metronidazole

Fluconazole

A

What antibiotic is commonly started for infected arterial ulcers, due to good coverage of Gram positive bacteria

Flucloxacillin

Gentamicin

Metronidazole

Fluconazole

41
Q

Describe the surgical treament options for PAD [3]

A

Angioplasty:
- inserting a catheter through the arterial system under x-ray guidance
- at the site of the stenosis, a balloon is inflated to create space in the lumen. A stent is can be ( but not always) inserted to keep the artery open

Endarterectomy
- cutting the vessel open and removing the atheromatous plaque

Bypass surgery
- using a graft to bypass the blockage
- may have to remove valve in a vein
- can use prosthetic graft if needed (Goretex / PTFE)
- veins last longer that prosthetic grafts}

42
Q

How do you manage acute limb ischaemia? [6]

A

Acute emergency!

Endovascular thrombolysis:
- inserting a catheter through the arterial system to apply thrombolysis directly into the clot

Endovascular thrombectomy:
- inserting a catheter through the arterial system and removing the thrombus by aspiration or mechanical devices

Surgical thrombectomy
- cutting open the vessel and removing the thrombus

Endarterectomy
Bypass surgery

Amputation of the limb if it is not possible to restore the blood supply

43
Q

You investigate a patient who is demonstrating signs of CLI.

How do you determine from the vessel affected if this patient needs open surgery or endovascular revascularization? [2]

A

Open surgery: lesions of common femoral artery and infrapopliteal disease
Endovascular: short segments: aortic iliac disease

44
Q

What ECG changes would indicate myocarditis [3]

A
  • tachycardia
  • Prolonged QRS
  • QT prolongation
  • Diffuse T wave inversion

Can trigger arrhythmias

45
Q

What are the potential complications of myocarditis? [2]

A

Complications
* heart failure
* arrhythmia; frequent premature ventricular complexes, irregular and polymorphic VT, or ventricular fibrillation possibly leading to sudden death
* dilated cardiomyopathy: usually a late complication

46
Q

Which chemotherapeutic drugs may cause myocarditis? [2]

A
  • Doxorubicin
  • Trastuzumab (also known as Herceptin)
47
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of a patient with myocarditis

A
  • Chest pain
  • Systemic features (fatigue, fevers)
  • SOB
  • Reduced exercise tolerance
  • Palpitations (could be triggered by arrythmias)
  • Collapse (arrhythmias leading to low output cardiac state)
  • Sudden death

The is often a history of a recent preceding viral infection, which may be upper respiratory or gastrointestinal.

48
Q

What are differential diagnoses for myocarditis? [5]

A

Myocardial ischaemia secondary to vasospasm or infarction

Aortic dissection

Sudden cardiac death of another cause e.g. long QT syndrome

Pericarditis

Takotsubo cardiomyopathy

Cardiomyopathy

49
Q

What treatment is given to patients with suspected giant cell myocarditis? [1]

A

In patients with suspected giant cell myocarditis, steroids are recommended and have been shown to improve survival

E.g. methylprednisolone

50
Q

Define pericardial effusion [1]

Define pericardial tamponade [3]

A

Pericardial effusion is when the potential space of the pericardial cavity fills with fluid. This creates an inward pressure on the heart, making it more difficult to expand during diastole (filling of the heart).

Pericardial tamponade
* Pericardial effusion is large enough to raise the intra-pericardial pressure.
* This increased pressure squeezes the heart and affects its ability to function: it reduces heart filling during diastole, decreasing cardiac output during systole.
* This is an emergency and requires prompt drainage of the pericardial effusion to relieve the pressure.

51
Q

What are the triad (Beck’s) assocaited with cardiac tamponade? [3]

A

Classical features - Beck’s triad:
* Hypotension
* Raised JVP
* Muffled heart sounds

Other features:
* Dyspnoea
* Tachycardia
* An absent Y descent on the JVP - this is due to the limited right ventricular filling
* Pulsus paradoxus - an abnormally large drop in BP during inspiration
* Kussmaul’s sign - much debate about this
* ECG: electrical alternans

52
Q

What are key differences between constrictive pericarditis and cardiac tamponade with regards to: [4]

  • JVP
  • Pulsus paradoxus
  • Kussmauls sign
  • Features on CXR
A
53
Q

What sign is thought to be is considered to be specific for pericarditis? [1]

A
  • Pain that has radiation to the trapezius ridge
54
Q

When is pericardiocentesis indicated in pericarditis? [2]

A

Pericardiocentesis is only indicated where there is suspicion of a bacterial or neoplastic aetiology.

It may also be done as a therapeutic intervention for a large pericardial effusion.

55
Q

What are the differential diagnoses for pericarditis? [3]

A
  • Myocarditis
  • Acute coronary syndromes
  • Pulmonary embolism
56
Q

The main consequence of chronic pericarditis is development of [].

A

The main consequence of chronic inflammation of the pericardium is development of constrictive pericarditis.

57
Q

Patients with constrictive pericarditis typically present with symptoms related to what? [1]

A

Patients characteristically present with features of right heart failure.

Symptoms
* Shortness of breath
* Leg swelling
* Abdominal swelling
* Exercise intolerance

Signs
* Raised jugular venous pressure
* Peripheral oedema
* Ascites
* Hepatomegaly

58
Q

What is the most common mechanism resulting in heart failure in patients with myocarditis?

High-output heart failure
Low-output heart failure
Systolic dysfunction
Diastolic dysfunction

A

What is the most common mechanism resulting in heart failure in patients with myocarditis?

High-output heart failure
Low-output heart failure
Systolic dysfunction
Diastolic dysfunction

59
Q

Which heart sound is likely heard in constrictive pericarditis

S1
S2
S3
S4

A

Which heart sound is likely heard in constrictive pericarditis

S1
S2
S3
S4

60
Q

What is the most common mechanism resulting in heart failure in patients with constrictive pericarditis?

High-output heart failure
Low-output heart failure
Systolic dysfunction
Diastolic dysfunction

A

What is the most common mechanism resulting in heart failure in patients with constrictive pericarditis?

High-output heart failure
Low-output heart failure
Systolic dysfunction
Diastolic dysfunction

61
Q

Explain the effect of cardiac tamponade on chamber pressures [2]

A
  • Because the pericardial sac isn’t very compliant, when it becomes full of liquid it doesn’t expand much
  • Therefore the pressures inside the heart chambers equalise as the ventricles have less room to fill during diastole
  • Therefore EDV, SV & BP decrease
62
Q

What is Kussmaul’s sign? [1]

A

Increased jugular venous pressure with inspiration

63
Q

Name the ECG alteration shown [1]
What pathology is it pathognomic for? [1]

A

Electrical alternans
- Alternating loud and soft QRS complexes during to variation in fluid around the heart in each beat

  • is suggestive of cardiac tamponade
64
Q

What is the difference between Kussmaul’s sign and pulsus paradoxus? [2]

Which pathologies do they relate to? [2]

A

Kussmaul’s sign is typical of constrictive pericarditis, and is a raised JVP with inspiration

Pulsus paradoxus, which is an abnormally large drop in blood pressure (and stroke volume) caused by inspiration, and is typical of cardiac tamponade.

65
Q

What size pericardial effussion is classified as small, moderate and large? [3]

A

Small: < 1cm
Moderate: 1-2cm
Large: > 2cm