Respiratory I Flashcards

1
Q

What respiratory pathology is indicated by these results? [1]

A
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2
Q

What changes to the face might suggest someone is suffering from sarcoidosis [1]

A

Bilateral parotid gland swelling

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3
Q

The most common radiological sign of tuberculosis on chest X-ray is [], which is seen in around 50-70% of cases.

A

he most common radiological sign of tuberculosis on chest X-ray is cavity formation, which is seen in around 50-70% of cases.

Cavity formation occurs due to necrosis and cavitation of the lung tissue as a result of the infection.

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4
Q

How do you differentiate between pleural plaques, mesothelioma and asbestosis? [3]

A

Mesothelioma
- pleural thickening
- haemoptysis
- As a rule of thumb, the pleurae should only be the thickness of a pencil line on a radiograph
- often presents with pleural effusion
- Clubbing

Pleural plaques
- asymptomatic and would not cause the dyspnoea, chest pain and cough

Asbestosis:
- is a form of lung fibrosis resulting from chronic, repeated asbestos exposure. It could cause the symptoms (dyspnoea, chest pain and cough) but will not cause the pleural thickening on the radiograph

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5
Q

Which factors make the Centor criteria? [4]

A

The Centor criteria are as follows:
* presence of tonsillar exudate
* tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy or lymphadenitis
* history of fever
* absence of cough

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6
Q

A patient has PCP.

What is the standard treatment? [1]
Under what conditions do you add steroids to ^? [1]

A

Co-trixamazole
- Adjunctive steroids should be administered to patients with PaO2 ≤8 kPa and/or evidence of hypoxaemia e.g. oxygen saturations < 92%.

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7
Q

Which stages of sarcoidosis do you provide treatment for? [4]

What is the treatment? [4]

A

Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy alone:
- Usually self-limiting and often does not require treatment

Acute sarcoidosis:
- Bed rest and NSAIDs for symptom control

Steroid treatment:
- Oral or intravenous, depending on the severity of the disease

Immunosuppressants
- Used in severe disease.

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8
Q

What is hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy (HPOA)? [2]

A

combination of clubbing and periostitis of the small hand joints

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9
Q

[] is associated with hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy (HPOA)

Squamous cell carcinoma
Small cell carcinoma
Adenocarcinoma
Large cell carcinoma

A

[] is associated with hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy (HPOA)

Squamous cell carcinoma
Small cell carcinoma
Adenocarcinoma
Large cell carcinoma

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10
Q

A patient presents with small cell lung cancer.

What is the main stay of treatment? [1]

A

Surgery plays little role in the management of small cell lung cancer, with chemotherapy (& radiotherapy) being the mainstay of treatment

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11
Q

A patient is diagnosed with small cell lunger cancer. What is the mainstay of treatment? [1]

A

Surgery plays little role in the management of small cell lung cancer, with chemotherapy being the mainstay of treatment

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12
Q

The patient has symptoms of a lung abscess further supported by foul smelling sputum, recurrent fever and a history of stroke (risk of aspiration due to impaired swallow).

[] is an additional clinical feature than can be seen in patients with recurrent lung abscesses

A

The patient has symptoms of a lung abscess further supported by foul smelling sputum, recurrent fever and a history of stroke (risk of aspiration due to impaired swallow).

Finger clubbing is an additional clinical feature than can be seen in patients with recurrent lung abscesses

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13
Q

What do you need to spefically look at on a blood test prior to treating a pneumothorax with a chest drain? [1]

A

Correct clotting abnormalities (INR ≥1.5 or platelets ≤50 x 10⁹/L) before inserting a chest drain in patients who are not critically unwell

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14
Q

What is the most common finding of an ABG of pneumothorax patient? [1]

A

respiratory alkalosis is the most common finding

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15
Q

Describe the location of chest drain procedure [4]

A

Chest drains are inserted in the “triangle of safety”. This triangle is formed by the:

  • 5th intercostal space (or the inferior nipple line)
  • Midaxillary line (or the lateral edge of the latissimus dorsi)
  • Anterior axillary line (or the lateral edge of the pectoralis major)

The needle is inserted just ABOVE the rib to avoid the neurovascular bundle that runs just below the rib. Once the chest drain is inserted, obtain a chest x-ray to check the positioning.

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16
Q

What should you do to check positioning of chest drain? [1]

A

Once the chest drain is inserted, obtain a chest x-ray to check the positioning.

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17
Q

How long do most pneumothoraces resolve with a chest drain? [1]

What would you call it if after two days there was no resolution? [1]

A

Should resolve in 2-3 days
If not: called a persistent air leak - call the thoracic surgeons

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18
Q

How do you manage secondary pneumothorax persistent leak? [1]

A

Risk of surgery is greater: need to consider risk benefit:

  • medical pleurodesis: put talc through chest drain (not as effective as surgical pleurodesis & painful)
  • Abrasive / surgical pleurodesis (using direct physical irritation of the pleura)
  • Open thoracotomy
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19
Q

You are a junior doctor on A+E and your patient has become acutely short of breath. On examination, you become convinced that this patient has a left tension pneumothorax.

Which clinical signs would best support this diagnosis?

Left hyper-resonance, left trachial deviation, absent JVP
Left hyper-resonance, left trachial deviation, raised JVP
Left hyper-resonance, right trachial deviation, raised JVP
Left hypo-resonance, left trachial deviation, absent JVP
Left hyper-resonance, right trachial deviation, absent JVP

A

You are a junior doctor on A+E and your patient has become acutely short of breath. On examination, you become convinced that this patient has a left tension pneumothorax.

Which clinical signs would best support this diagnosis?

Left hyper-resonance, right trachial deviation, raised JVP

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20
Q

How do you manage haemothoraxes? [4]

A
  • Sufficient analgesia
  • For trauma cases: tranexamic acid
  • The majority of haemothorax require the insertion of a surgical chest drain, to evacuate the blood from the pleural cavity
  • For patients with large volume blood loss (approx. >1500ml) or continuing moderate volume blood loss (approx. >200ml per hour), surgical exploration should be considered, in attempt to identify and stop the bleeding vessel - usually via VATS

Timing of VATS is crucial when evacuating a haemothorax, ideally being performed within 48-72 hours, to enable successful evaluation and early re-expansion of the lung.

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21
Q

State 5 drugs that cause exudative pleuritic effusion

A

nitrofurantoin
valproate
propylthiouracil
dantrolene (used for motor neurone)
methotrexate

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22
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of Meig’s syndrome [3]

A

TOM TIP: Meigs syndrome involves a triad of a :
- benign ovarian tumour (usually a fibroma)
- pleural effusion
- ascites.

This often appears in exams. The pleural effusion and ascites resolve with the removal of the tumour.

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23
Q

In some causes of pleural effusions, RBC might be found in the pleural fluid. State the causes where this could occur [4]

A

malignancy
trauma
parapneumonic effusions
pulmonary embolism

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24
Q

A raised lymphocyte count in pleural fluid would most likely indicate which two causes of pleural effusion? [2]

A

If the lymphocyte population is >90%, lymphoma and TB are the two most likely diagnoses.

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25
Q

How would pH analysis of pleural fluid help to determine cause? [3]

A

< 7.20 in complicated parapneumonic effusion & empyema, rheumatoid arthritis, or advanced malignancy

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26
Q

How would glucuose analysis of pleural fluid help to determine cause? [4]

A

Low glucose (< 3.3 mmol/L (60 mg/dL)) in empyema, rheumatoid arthritis, TB, and malignancy

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27
Q

What size needle [1] and syringe [1] should be used for pleural aspiration?

A

A 21G needle and 50ml syringe should be used

28
Q

Which pathologies would a raised amylase in pleural fluid indicate? [2]

A

pancreatitis, oesophageal perforation

29
Q

How would you treat the following? [3]
- simple parapneumonic effusion
- complicated parapneuomic effusion
- Empyema

A
  • simple parapneumonic effusion: Abx
  • complicated parapneuomic effusion: chest drain
  • Empyema: chest drain
30
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of mesothelioma patients [5]

A

Dyspnoea,
weight loss
chest wall pain
Clubbing
30% present as painless pleural effusion
fatigue, profuse sweating, weight loss, anorexia and difficulty in swallowing become common as the disease progresses

presentation and diagnosis often occur at an advanced stage and the prognosis for most patients is extremely poor

31
Q

How do you investigate for mesothelioma? [4]

A
  1. CXR:
    either a pleural effusion or pleural thickening
  2. next step is normally a CT thorax
  3. if a pleural effusion is present fluid should be sent for MC&S, biochemistry and cytology (but cytology is only helpful in 20-30% of cases)
  4. local anaesthetic thoracoscopy is increasingly used to investigate cytology negative exudative effusions as it has a high diagnostic yield (around 95%)
    if an area of pleural nodularity is seen on CT then an image-guided pleural biopsy may be used
32
Q

Describe the management of mesothelioma [5]

A

Pleural effusions
- Drainage & pleurodesis (medical or surgical)

Radiotherapy
- To reduce chest wall invasion risk & pain relief

Chemotherapy
- Cisplatin with Pemetrexed or Gemcitibine

Surgery
- selected cases only (high mortality)

  • Pain relief
  • Palliative Care
33
Q

Describe chemotherapy that can be used for mesothelioma [3]

A
  • Chemotherapy
  • Cisplatin with Pemetrexed or Gemcitibine
34
Q

Describe the treatment algorithm for a patient with mesothelioma with operable disease [3]

BMJ BP

A

1ST LINE: surgery
- extra-pleural pneumonectomy [EPP]: removes parietal and visceral pleura
- pleurectomy with decortication pleurectomy removes the lining around the lung (the pleura). Decortication removes tumors or fibrous tissue from the surface of the lung.

PLUS – pre- and/or postoperative chemotherapy:
- cisplatin
AND
- pemetrexed

CONSIDER – radiotherapy
- Post-extrapleural pneumonectomy (EPP) radiotherapy (RT)

35
Q

Describe the treatment algorithm for a patient with mesothelioma with inoperable disease [3]

A

1ST LINE – chemotherapy and/or immunotherapy

CONSIDER – radiotherapy

CONSIDER – palliative procedures + supportive care
- Therapeutic thoracentesis and pleurodesis may provide symptomatic relief.

In patients with inoperable or recurrent mesothelioma, chemotherapy and/or immunotherapy is often given in an attempt to improve quality of life and survival.

36
Q

The effects of asbestos usually take several decades to develop. Asbestos inhalation causes several problems. What are they? [4]

A

Lung fibrosis
Pleural thickening and pleural plaques
Adenocarcinoma
Mesothelioma

37
Q

What is the difference between length of asbestos exposure between abestos and mesothelioma? [1]

A

The severity of asbestosis IS related to the length of exposure. This is in contrast

Mesothelioma: even very limited exposure can cause disease.

The latent period is typically 15-30 years.

38
Q

Which conditions would you not perform a needle aspiration and go straight to a chest drain to manage a pneumothorax? [6]

A
  • Haemodynamic compromise (suggesting a tension pneumothorax)
  • Significant hypoxia
  • Bilateral pneumothorax
  • Underlying lung disease
  • ≥ 50 years of age with significant smoking history
  • Haemothorax
39
Q

If a patient has persistent pneumothoraces, how do you treat them? [1]

A

If a patient has a persistent air leak or insufficient lung reexpansion despite chest drain insertion, or the patient has recurrent pneumothoraces, then video-assisted thoracoscopic surgery (VATS) should be considered to allow for mechanical/chemical pleurodesis +/- bullectomy.

40
Q

How long should you get a primary spontaneous pneumothorax patient to come to outpatients after letting them go? [1]

How long should you get a secondary spontaneous pneumothorax patient to come to outpatients after letting them go? [1]

A

Primary spontaneous pneumothorax that is managed conservatively should be reviewed:
- every 2-4 days as an outpatient

Secondary spontaneous pneumothorax:
- follow-up in the outpatients department in 2-4 weeks

41
Q

What is Apnoea and Hypopnoea Index? [1]

What are normal, mild, moderate and severe scores? [4]

A

AHI – number of apnoeas and hypopnoeas
per hour of the study

  • 0 to 5 Within normal limits
  • 5 to 15 Mild OSA
  • 15 to 30 Moderate OSA
  • 30 plus Severe OSA
42
Q

What is this? [1]

When is it indicated? [1]

A

Mandibular splint
If CPAP not tolerated

43
Q

What is the most common surgery for sleep apnoea? [1]

A

Surgery is an option but involves significant surgical reconstruction of the soft palate and jaw. The most common procedure is called uvulopalatopharyngoplasty (UPPP).

44
Q

Describe what hypoglossal nerve stimulation is [1]
How does it work? [1]

A

Hypoglossal nerve stimulation aims to treat obstructive sleep apnoea by preventing the tongue prolapsing backwards and causing upper airway obstruction during sleep. It works by delivering an electrical current to the hypoglossal nerve

45
Q

What trio of crtieria make a diagnosis of obesity hypoventilation syndrome? [3]

A
  • Daytime hypercapnia PaCO2 ≥ 45 mmHg
  • Obesity (BMI > 30)
  • Sleep disordered breathing (which can include OSA)
46
Q

Desribe a key difference in OSA and OHS [1]

A

Patients with OHS often experience daytime hypoventilation, which leads to chronic hypercapnia and hypoxemia, resulting in symptoms such as dyspnea, exercise intolerance, morning headaches, and cognitive dysfunction.

In summary, OHS is a more complex disorder involving chronic hypoventilation, obesity, and sleep-disordered breathing, whereas OSA is specifically characterized by upper airway obstruction during sleep

47
Q

Which type of hypersensitivty is asthma? [1]

A

Type 1

48
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of asthma

A

Airway inflammation:
- Immune cells activated by TH2, mast cells and eosinophils
- Causes pro-inflam mediators (cytokines, chemokines, histamines, leukotrines) to cause airway oedema, mucus production, and bronchoconstriction

Bronchoconstriction
- narrowing of the airways and obstruction of airflow.

Airway hyperresponsiveness
- airways exhibit excessive narrowing in response to various stimuli, such as allergens, irritants, and cold air
- mediated by several factors, including the release of inflammatory mediators, increased airway smooth muscle contractility, and impaired bronchodilator mechanisms

Mucus production and airway remodeling:
* Chronic inflammation causes airway remodeling
* Subepithelial fibrosis, increased smooth muscle mass, mucus gland hypertrophy, and angiogenesis.

49
Q

What level of FeNO would be considered positive for asthma in children? [1]

A
  • in children a level of >= 35 parts per billion (ppb) is considered positive
50
Q

Describe what is meant by direct bronchial challenge testing [1]

What results would indicate a positive result for asthma? [1]

A

Direct bronchial challenge testing is the opposite of reversibility testing.

Inhaled histamine or methacholine is used to stimulate bronchoconstriction, reducing the FEV1 in patients with asthma.

NICE say a PC20 (provocation concentration of methacholine causing a 20% reduction in FEV1) of 8 mg/ml or less is a positive test result.

51
Q

What five steps should you educate / make on self management plans for patietns? [5]

A

How to use treatment
Self monitoring/assessment skills
Action plan with regard to goals
Recognition and management of exacerbations
Allergen/trigger avoidance

52
Q

Name two drugs used for reliever medication for asthma? [1]

State the class of drug [1] and MoA [2]

A

Name:
* Salbutamol
* terbutaline

Class:
* beta 2 agonist

MoA:
- relax smooth muscle to cause bronchodilation and mucociliary clearane
- relieve bronchospasm

53
Q

What are low [1], moderate [1] and high doses [1] used ICS in asthma tx? [3]

A

Low dose:
* <= 400 micrograms budesonide or equivalent

Medium dose:
* 400 micrograms - 800 micrograms budesonide or equivalent

High dose:
* > 800 micrograms budesonide or equivalent

54
Q

Describe the MoA of Omalizumab [1]

When is it indicated? [2]

A

Mechanism of action:
* monoclonal antibody to IgE
* decreases IgE

Considered when:
* confirmed allergic IgE-mediated asthma as an add-on to optimised standard therapy after all others used
* suffer from asthma with continuous or frequent treatment with oral corticosteroids (defined as 4 or more courses in the previous year)

55
Q

What is a common choice for SABA dose? [1]

A

Salbutamol 100-200 micrograms inhaled as required

56
Q

What is important to note about taking ICS? [1]
How do you combat this? [1]

A

In some patients can cause paradoxical bronchospasm
Take SABA before to counteract.

57
Q

What is the rule about caring for pregnant asthma patients? [1]

A

Pregnant women who have a severe asthma attack should be admitted to hospital, EVEN if they initially improve with treatment

58
Q

What are the indications for CPAP? [4]

A
  • Hypoxia in the context of chest wall trauma despite adequate anaesthesia and high flow oxygen (pneumothorax should be ruled out using a chest x-ray prior to commencing CPAP)
  • Cardiogenic pulmonary oedema
  • Pneumonia: as an interim measure before invasive ventilation or as a ceiling of treatment
  • Obstructive sleep apnoea
59
Q

CPAP is often started at [] H2O and gradually increased to reduce hypoxia.

NIV is often started at iPAP [] and ePAP []

H2O is typically increased in [] cm intervals by approximately [] cms every [] minutes until a therapeutic response is achieved.

A

CPAP is often started at 4cm H2O and gradually increased to reduce hypoxia.

NIV is often started at iPAP 10 and ePAP 4.4

H2O is typically increased in 2-5cm intervals by approximately 5cms every 10 minutes until a therapeutic response is achieved.

60
Q

Based on current evidence CPAP & NIV pressures should not exceed [] cm H2O at any point.

A

Based on current evidence CPAP & NIV pressures should not exceed 25 cm H2O at any point.

61
Q

What are the different colours of venturi mask colours? [6]

What are the oxygen flow rate (L/min) for these different colours of venturi mask? [6]

What are the FiO2 (approx. oxygen) delivered for these different colours of venturi mask? [6]

A
62
Q

Label A-F

A

A: Blue
B: White
C: Orange
D: Yellow
E: Red
F: Green

63
Q

Explain what is meant by Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome [2]

ARDS has an acute onset of which pathological features? [4]

A

ARDS: Severe inflammatory reaction in the lungs, often secondary to sepsis or trauma.

Only a small portion of the total lung volume is aerated and has functional alveoli. The remainder of the lungs are collapsed and non-aerated.

There is an acute onset of:
* Collapse of the alveoli and lung tissue (atelectasis)
* Pulmonary oedema (not related to heart failure or fluid overload)
* Decreased lung compliance (how much the lungs inflate when ventilated with a given pressure)
* Fibrosis of the lung tissue (typically after 10 days or more)

64
Q

What is the management of ARDS? [5]

A
  • Due to the severity of the condition patients are generally managed in ITU:
  • Respiratory support to treat hypoxaemia
  • Prone positioning (lying on their front)
  • Careful fluid management to avoid excess fluid collecting in the lung
  • General organ support e.g. vasopressors as needed
  • Treatment of the underlying cause e.g. antibiotics for sepsis
65
Q

Explain what is meant by central sleep apnea (CSA). What are the two mechanisms involved with CSA? [2]

A

Central sleep apnea (CSA) is caused by alterations in respiratory drive, which during sleep is highly dependent on carbon dioxide levels. Two mechanisms are distinguished:

Hypoventilation-related CSA:
- Decreased ventilatory drive causes transient decreases and/or pauses in respiration.

Hyperventilation-related CSA:
- Increased ventilatory drive during sleep leads to hypocapnia which causes a compensatory fall in ventilation that, if abnormally prolonged, leads to recurrent central apnea with arousals.

66
Q

Name some causes of central sleep apnea (both hypoventilation related and hyperventilation) [5]

A

Causes of hypoventilation-related CSA with hypercapnia
- hypothyroidism
- neural lesions (eg, brain stem infarctions, encephalitis, Chiari II type malformation)
- certain drugs (most commonly opioids—including methadone).

Hyperventilation-related CSA:
- occurs at high altitude in healthy people as a consequence of hypobaric hypoxia.
- It also occurs in patients with heart failure and occasionally during treatment of obstructive apneas.