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01 - Nclex Board Review > Cardiovascular Disorders > Flashcards

Cardiovascular Disorders Flashcards

1
Q

How does a demand pacemaker monitors your heart rhythm?

A

Sends electrical pulses to your heart if your heart is beating too slow or if it misses a beat.

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2
Q

Left sided heart failure symptoms are caused by a diminished ability of the left ventricle to pump blood. This leads to back pressure in the

A

pulmonary circulation

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3
Q

The S/S of RHF are caused by a diminished ability of the right ventricle to pump blood, allowing it to back up into the ?

A

vena cava

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4
Q

What can develop in patients with frequent premature ventricular contractions (PVC)?

A

Vtach

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5
Q

Varicose veins are enlarged and tortuous, resulting from a genetic predisposition that results in less elastic veins from

A

venous insufficiency

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6
Q

What is the most common type of Sensorineural Hearing Loss caused by the natural aging of the auditory system?

A

Presbycusis

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7
Q

The most effective emergency treatment for ventricular fibrillation →

A

defibrillator + cpr

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8
Q

What is the measurement of dissolved particles in the urine ?

A

Urine Osmolarity

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9
Q

What are the causes or contributing factors to Myocardial Infarctions ?

A

S stress stimulants O obesity, bmi 25 D diabetes, HTN 140/90 D diet high cholesterol A african american male and age over 50 yrs old

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10
Q

What is the 1st cardiac enzyme to appear in M.I.?

A

Troponin

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11
Q

What’s the [Lab Value] of Trononin that indicates heart cell death?

A

0.5 indicates trauma to the heart, its the gold standard

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12
Q

What are the main causes of MI

A

A. Thrombus or clotting
B. Shock or hemorrhage

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13
Q

MI patients need to be in what bed position

A

Semi Fowler

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14
Q

Right sided heart failure symptoms are caused by a diminished ability of the right ventricle to pump blood. This causes blood to pool in what organs?

A

extremities, abdomen, neck, and liver

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15
Q

A tone that sounds like a drum when percussing the abdominal region ?

A

normal percussing abdominal sound

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16
Q

Pulmonary artery wedge pressure of 15 mm Hg. For which health problem will the nurse most likely plan interventions for this client?

A

Left ventricular failure.

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17
Q

The nurse is caring for a client with acute pericarditis. Which heart sound will the nurse most likely assess in this client ?

A

the sound of a pericardial friction rub

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18
Q

Intracellular enzymes that are released into circulation after an MI, can also be elevated after other intracoronary procedures ?

A

Creatine kinase (CK)

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19
Q

Which myocardial muscle protein is released into circulation after MI or injury with greater sensitivity and specificity for myocardial injury than CK MB?

A

troponin

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20
Q

How is pulse pressure in MI?

A

Narrowed → pulse pressure, e.g., 90/80 mm Hg::Narrowed or Widened

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21
Q

The most important cause of elevated pulse pressure is ?

A

stiffness of the aorta

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22
Q

Wet lung sounds are an indication of ?

A

heart failure

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23
Q

Client’s electrocardiogram tracing reveals a regular atrial rate, irregular ventricular rate with two PR intervals to each QRS complex

A

second degree AV block, type II (Mobitz II)

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24
Q

Fibrinolytic Agents are part of the treatment plan of MI’s why?

A

ability to effectively dissolve blood clots

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25
Q

Agitation and restlessness that results from cerebral hypoxia are early signs of what ?

A

shock

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26
Q

What is the chest discomfort or pain that occurs when myocardial O 2 demands exceed supply?

A

Angina

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27
Q

What is the general marker that indicates that sexual activity can begin if exercise is well tolerated. What is the test?

A

climb two flights of stairs without exertion.

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28
Q

Which is a hypertension drug used with patients who have normal renal function ?

A

Thiazide Diuretics

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29
Q

Another side effect of diuretics thiazide or this class of drugs is hypokalemia. Why does it cause it?

A

Because it excretes sodium, potassium, and chloride ions.

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30
Q

What is a common side effect of diuretics ?

A

dehydration

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31
Q

For those clients taking these 2 medications, make sure to be cautious in taking diuretics. Name these two drugs ?

A

Digoxin and Lithium

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32
Q

Mannitol is an?

A

osmotic diuretic

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33
Q

What is another name for ACE Inhibitors?

A

Angiotensin Converting Enzymes

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34
Q

What are the diseases that ACE Inhibitors treat?

A
  1. Hypertension
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35
Q

Most common adverse effect of ACE inhibitors ( prils) ?

A

bothersome cough

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36
Q

If your client is taking diuretics, you notify the physician before they take which ACE inhibitor ( pril) ?

A

Lisinopril

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37
Q

Should the ACE Inhibitors be taken immediately after eating?

A

No::Yes or No

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38
Q

Drugs used as ARBs usually end with which suffix ?

A

sartan

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39
Q

What is the function of Vasodilators in the treament of hypertension?

A

(↓) to decrease total peripheral resistance → (↓) lower the blood pressure

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40
Q

What are circulatory problems that can be due to arterial or venous pathology?

A

Peripheral Vascular Disease (PVD)?

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41
Q

What’s the teaching for a client who is prescribed furosemide (Lasix) for hypertension? Or side effect to be on the look out.

A

Ototoxicity

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42
Q

Client with atrial fibrillation is experiencing palpitations, dyspnea (SOB) and dizziness. What should the nurse do first? In terms of assesment.

A

Vital signs

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43
Q

What is Milrinone (Primacor, Primacor I.V.)?

A

a vasodilator

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44
Q

Lasix is a loop diuretic given to increase ?

A

urine output

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45
Q

Milrinone is a phosphodiesterase inhibitor, positive inotrope and vasodilator. It’s given for ?

A

heart failure.

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46
Q

What causes localized pain at the sternal border and intensifies when palpating the affected area.

A

costochondritis

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47
Q

Ventricular septal defect (VSD). What is the nurse likely to assess in this client?

A

murmur

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48
Q

Loud S1 heart sound is a manifestation of ?

A

mitral stenosis

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49
Q

The S2 heart sound represents the closing which valves ?

A

aortic and pulmonic valves

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50
Q

The S1 sound represents the closing of the

A

mitral and tricuspid valves.

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51
Q

A normal PR interval and abnormal P waves buried in the preceding T waves.

A

paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia

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52
Q

Which cardiac patients are advised to use soft toothbrush and floss with waxed floss.

A

Thrombophlebitis

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53
Q

Which clients are to avoid aspirin or aspirin related products and NSAIDs?

A

Thrombophlebitis

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54
Q

What are caused by disturbances in the electrical conduction of the heart ?

A

Dysrhythmias::think in general terms

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55
Q

What is the the most common type of arrhythmia ?

A

atrial fibrillation

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56
Q

What digitalis medicaton is used as part of the treatment of Heart Failure ?

A

Digoxin

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57
Q

What is the type of heart rhythm disorder in which the heart’s upper chambers (atria) beat too quickly.

A

Atrial flutter

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58
Q

What rythm does wide bizarre QRS represent?

A

Ventricular tachycardia

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59
Q

What is a very irregular rhythm with indiscernible P waves or QRS complexes on ECG

A

Ventricular fibrillation

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60
Q

What is the delivery of synchronized electrical shocks to the myocardium called ?

A

Cardioversion

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61
Q

What do you give for digoxin toxicity?

A

Digibind (Digoxin Immune Fab)

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62
Q

Which protein is specific to myocardial cells and can help quantify myocardial damage?

A

CK MB band

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63
Q

What is the name is a cardiac hormone released when ventricular dilation and stretch (such as occurs in HF) occur?

A

BNP

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64
Q

Name the acute phase protein and a marker for systemic inflammation.

A

C reactive protein (CRP)

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65
Q

Which artery branches to supply the sinoatrial (SA) and the AV nodes, along with the the RA and RV, and the inferior part of the LV.?

A

Right coronary artery

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66
Q

What is the normal stroke volume? [in mL and its a range]

A

60 to 100 mL.

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67
Q

What is an (↑) increase in contractility called ?

A

positive inotropic effect::Its an effect, another name

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68
Q

When something gives a (↓) decrease in contractility its said to be called?

A

negative inotropic effect::Its an effect

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69
Q

What do Calcium Channel Blockers do the blood pressure?

A

Lowers (↓) it

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70
Q

Which arteries do Calcium Channel Blockers dilate?

A

Coronary Arteries

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71
Q

What is the best position to auscultate the opening snap and low pitched diastolic rumble associated with mitral stenosis

A

left side lying position

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72
Q

What position is the best to put the patient to auscultate the second heart sound?

A

Sitting up and leaning forward

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73
Q

What is the the most important shockable cardiac arrest rhythm?

A

Ventricular fibrillation (VF)

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74
Q

When you see narrow QRS’s what should you think immediately, sin pensarlo?

A

Atrial Flutter, Atrial Fibrillation, AV Blocks

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75
Q

What is the common presenting symptom of Congestive heart failure?

A

dyspnea which is most often due to pulmonary edema

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76
Q

Dry cough is a common side effect of which antihypertensive mediction ?

A

ACE inhibitors PRIL

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77
Q

Describe how heart palpitations feel like in your heart ?

A

Skipping beats Fluttering rapidly Beating too fast Pounding Flip flopping

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78
Q

A positive Homen’s sign is considered an early indication of what ?

A

DVT (Deep Vein Thrombosis)

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79
Q

Elevated levels of CRP are present in patients with ?

A

checks for inflammation in the body

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80
Q

What is the number one cause of a stroke in hypertensive clients ?

A

noncompliance with medication regimen

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81
Q

Client complains that he can feel his or her heart beating. What condition is this ?

A

AAA

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82
Q

What is the most common pathology of AAA ?

A

atherosclerosis

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83
Q

Its a sign of fatty deposits and calcium building up in the walls of the arteries?

A

atherosclerosis

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84
Q

Children with chronic otitis media are at risk for developing what problem

A

hearing loss}

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85
Q

Heart anomalies that develop in utero and manifest at birth or shortly thereafter are called

A

Congenital Heart Disorders (cardiovascular)}

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86
Q

Congenital Heart disorders may be categorized as ?

A

Acyanotic and Cyanotic

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87
Q

Congential heart disorders of the Acyanotic type shunt from →

A

Left to Right or (↑) Pulmonary blood flow}

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88
Q

Congential heart disorders of the Cyanotic type shunt from →

A

Right to Left or (↓) Pulmonary blood flow}

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89
Q

Acyanotic: Has abnormal circulation; however, all blood entering the systemic circulation is ?

A

oxygenated

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90
Q

Cyanotic: has abnormal circulation blood entering the systemic circulation but the blood is ?

A

un oxygenated

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91
Q

Its a physiological finding that represents closing of the aortic valve on the pressure waveform?

A

dicrotic notch

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92
Q

Describe quickly what is Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)?

A

Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) is a congenital heart defect (CHD) composed of four separate heart problems

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93
Q

These solutions are isotonic to human plasma?

A

Crystalloid fluids

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94
Q

what is the leading cause of noncardiac death in intensive care units (ICUs)

A

septic shock

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95
Q

What is the most frequently used crystalloid fluid(IV fluids)?

A

0.9% NaCl Solution normal saline

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96
Q

Its the leading cause of death in clients with acute myocardial infarction (MI) and usually develops after admission to the hospital.

A

Cardiogenic shock

97
Q

Its a clinical syndrome characterized by inadequate tissue perfusion that results in end organ dysfunction?

A

Shock

98
Q

Priority assessment in Heart Failure is to

A

auscultate breath sounds

99
Q

synchronized cardioversion is used in these rhythms

A

(SVT) Supra Ventricular Tachycardia Ventricular Tachycardia Atrial Fibrillation

100
Q

thiazides can cause

A

hypokalemia

101
Q

Left Heart catherization are performed via

A

an artery

102
Q

Right Heart catherization are performed via

A

a Vein

103
Q

Wound evisceration is a medical emergency. the client should be placed in what position?

A

Low Fowler’s position with the knees bent to reduce tension on the open wound

104
Q

Puts you at risk of blood clots and stroke

A

Atrial Fibrillation

105
Q

This arrhythmia is characterized by Sawtoothed pattern and a rate of 200 350

A

Atrial Flutter

106
Q

This arrhythmia is characterized by not visible P waves replaced by fibrillary waves ?

A

Atrial fibrillation

107
Q

This arrhythmia has more P waves than QRS complexes?

A

Complete heart block

108
Q

Stimulants (eg, nicotine, caffeine, cocaine) and organic heart disease can cause?

A

SVT

109
Q

Common treatment for SVT’s?

A

Treatment includes vagal stimulation and drug therapy

110
Q

Sinus tachycardia involves a heart rate of ?

A

101 200/min

111
Q

The rate of 150 250/min and P waves are usually not visible and are buried in the QRS, and the PR interval is not measurable.

A

Ventricular tachycardia

112
Q

Occurs when electrical conduction from the atria to the ventricles is blocked, causing decreased cardiac output?

A

Third degree AV Block

113
Q

Presents as a regular rate and rhythm with disassociated P waves and QRS complexes.

A

Third degree AV block

114
Q

This rhythm displays a pacer spike before the P wave, followed by a QRS complex?

A

Atrial Pacing

115
Q

This rhythm is characterized mainly by a prolonged PR interval of 0.20 sec?

A

First degree heart block

116
Q

199f0b89afb3402a89e43e9862eb1381 ao 1

A

0

117
Q

Symptoms of Pulmonary Embolism include the following?

A

chest pain shortens of breath vascular injury ( manifest itself as bleeding causing back pain ) lower extremity pain and numbness

118
Q

In clients with bradycardia this med is NOT contraindicated and does not lower HR?

A

Lisinopril → ACE Inhibitor

119
Q

In patients with bradycardia, Diltazem & Verapamil, can cause what vital sign reaction?

A

(↓) HR

120
Q

Most commonly used med to prevent DVT in hospitalized clients?

A

Heparin

121
Q

Cardiogenic shock is manifest by?

A

reduced (↓) cardiac output

122
Q

Which med can cause systemic vasodilation and lead to significant risk of hypotension?

A

Nitroglycerin

123
Q

Two basic signs of Hypotension? (Don’t over think)

A

dizziness or lightheadedness

124
Q

Essential for the treatment of chronic venous insufficiency, venous ulcer healing, and prevention of ulcer recurrence.

A

Compression

125
Q

In cardiogenic shock, hypotension and narrow pulse pressure are signs of?

A

reduced (↓) cardiac output

126
Q

IV adenosine is the drug of choice to convert?

A

SVT to a sinus rhythm

127
Q

Sinus tachycardia involves a heart rate of?

A

101 200/min

128
Q

Are all indicators that the patient’s body is starting to compensate?

A

increased heart rate (↑) HR decreasing blood pressure (↓) BP increasing respiratory rate (↑)RR

129
Q

Pulmonary edema manifest itself with the following S/S?

A

tachypnea (often 30/min) bibasilar crackles (↓) oxygen saturation pink frothy, blood tinged sputum anxiety and restlessness hx. of orthopnea and/or paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea

130
Q

In clients receiving IV Nitroglycerin one has to be careful the systolic blood pressure doesn’t fall below?

A

<90 mm HG

131
Q

During an Infant CPR Pulse Assessment where do you check for a pulse?

A

brachial artery

132
Q

Erratic electrical activity that causes the heart muscle to lose its ability to contract?

A

Ventricular fibrillation (VF)

133
Q

Potentially lethal dysrhythmia characterized by organized, rapid firing of electrical activity within the ventricles?

A

Ventricular tachycardia

134
Q

Which arrhythmia requires immediate treatment with CPR and defribillation?

A

Ventricular tachycardia

135
Q

The following meds converts and maintain sinus rhythm?

A

Amiodarone Flecainide Sotalol

136
Q

This arrhythmia is characterized by not visible P waves replaced by fibrillary waves?

A

Atrial fibrillation

137
Q

Highly specific cardiac marker for MI?

A

Troponin

138
Q

In Atrial fibrillation the following three meds are used to regulate the heart rate?

A

CCB (diltiazem and verapamil) Beta blockers Digoxin

139
Q

Anti arrhythmia medication used for conversion of the rhythm in atrial fibrillation back to sinus?

A

Amiodarone

140
Q

An antiarrhythmic medication used to treat life threatening arrhythmias that cannot be controlled with other medications?

A

Amiodarone

141
Q

Frequent liquid stools in a client receiving antibiotics may indicate development of?

A

Clostridium difficile infection

142
Q

In acute decompensated heart failure (ADHF) which medication therapy is the #1 priority?

A

Diuretics

143
Q

Electrolyte disturbance caused by excess of total body water in relation to total sodium content?

A

Dilutional hyponatremia

144
Q

Major adverse effect of ACE inhibitors? ( pril)

A

Angioedema (medical emergency)

145
Q

Its a normal compensatory mechanism to increase the cardiac output associated with hypotension.

A

Tachycardia

146
Q

In Open aneurysm repair what’s the most important assessment pre operative ?

A

character and quality of peripheral pulses

147
Q

What’s the best indicator the medication giving to a client with Atrial fibrillation has its intended effect?

A

Ventricular rate decreased to <100/min

148
Q

Protamine sulfate is the reversal agent of which anticoagulation medication commonly used for DVT?

A

Heparin

149
Q

Vitamin K is the reversal agent of?

A

Warfarin

150
Q

These medications may produce a nonproductive cough in susceptible individuals sometimes called intractable cough?

A

ACE inhibitors

151
Q

These medications are vasodilators used to treat hypertension and chronic stable angina?

A

Calcium Channel blockers

152
Q

They promote relaxation of vascular smooth muscles leading to decreased systemic vascular resistance and arterial blood pressure.

A

Calcium channel blockers

153
Q

The most important adverse effects of calcium channel blockers include?

A

dizziness flushing headache peripheral edema constipation

154
Q

Most common cause of acute pericarditis is a recent ?

A

viral infection

155
Q

The typical assessment of Pericarditis is what?

A

pericardial friction rub (scratchy or squeaking sound) which they call pleuritic chest pain

156
Q

Enumerate some some S/S of bleeding risks?

A

bruising tarry stools hematuria bleeding gums epistaxis

157
Q

Besides hypokalemia what else should we monitor patients on diuretic medications?

A

monitoring intake and output

158
Q

Baseline liver enzymes are obtained for clients taking statins (hyperlipidemia) and what other condition?

A

isoniazid (for tuberculosis)

159
Q

What do we monitor when low molecular weight heparins are administered?

A

complete blood count (CBC)

160
Q

Jugular venous distension should be assessed in what bed position?

A

Semi Fowler’s position

161
Q

Due to possible vagal stimulation resulting in bradycardia or syncope we should not palpate?

A

carotid arteries

162
Q

Are used to drain air or fluid from the mediastinal space and/or pericardial cavity (ie, after cardiac surgery)?

A

Mediastinal chest tubes

163
Q

Performed through transvenous cardiac catheterization burn electrical pathways causing supraventricular or ventricular tachydysrhythmias.

A

Ablation

164
Q

Obstruction (eg. clot) of the chest tube will result in excess fluid buildup in the pericardium, leading to eventual?

A

Cardiac Tamponade

165
Q

A marked decrease in mediastinal chest tube drainage warrants immediate assessment for signs of?

A

Cardiac tamponade

166
Q

Describe some characteristics of Left sided heart failure?

A

pulmonary congestion cardiomegaly S3 sound pulmonary edema

167
Q

Orthopnea (dyspnea with recumbency), paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND), and crackles in lung bases are clinical manifestations of?

A

Left sided heart failure

168
Q

Dyspnea on exertion is usually present in?

A

Right sided heart failure

169
Q

A major problem with long term management of hypertension?

A

poor adherence to the treatment plan

170
Q

Clients with TIA are at a high risk for a stroke so an important patient teaching is?

A

adherence to HTN medications

171
Q

Blood is not effectively pumped into systemic circulation, resulting in the backup of blood into the pulmonary vessels?

A

Left sided heart failure

172
Q

What’s the technique that helps to decrease shortness of breath?

A

Purse lip breathing

173
Q

Manifest as muscle cramps, weakness, or paresthesia?

A

Hypokalemia → <3.5 mEq/L

174
Q

Vomiting, diarrhea, and nasogastric suctioning can all lead to what electrolyte condition?

A

Hypokalemia → <3.5 mEq/L

175
Q

Unmanaged hypokalemia (↓ K+) can lead to what type of conditions?

A

lethal cardiac dysrhythmias and paralysis

176
Q

Name 3 Potassium wasting diuretics?

A

furosemide bumetanide torsamide

177
Q

Describe some characteristics of Right sided heart failure?

A

systemic venous congestion jugular venous distension hepatomegaly splenomegaly ascites edema PND paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea

178
Q

Heard on inspiration and indicate the presence of pulmonary congestion ?

A

Crackles

179
Q

Heard on expiration this indicate the presence of secretions in the larger airways.

A

Rhonchi

180
Q

Is the first line drug of choice for the treatment of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (SVT)?

A

Adenosine

181
Q

Signs of (↓) Cardiac Ouput

A

dizziness syncope mental status changes heart failure hypotension bradycardia

182
Q

Is performed for ventricular or supraventricular tachydysrhythmias but is not indicated in heart block?

A

Cardioversion

183
Q

Scheduled procedure that is usually done to treat people who have atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter?

A

Cardioversion

184
Q

Is the asynchronous delivery of energy, such as the shock is delivered randomly during the cardiac cycle?

A

Defibrillation

185
Q

In post operative abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) repair what is a huge priority?

A

Assessing the pulses

186
Q

A decreased ejection fraction (normal 55% 70%) results in decreased?

A

cardiac output inability to meet oxygen demand

187
Q

An emergency procedure that’s performed when your heart stops or quivers uselessly?

A

Defribillation

188
Q

This could indicate postoperative hemorrhage and requires immediate intervention?

A

Chest tube drainage

189
Q

Urine output in postoperative infant should be?

A

1 2 mL/kg/hr

190
Q

Minimum urine output in adults is what?

A

30ml/hr

191
Q

The resulting decrease (↓) in forward blood leads to venous congestion and increased venous pressure throughout the systemic circulation?

A

Right sided heart failure

192
Q

Clinical manifestations of Right sided heart failure include?

A

Peripheral and dependent edema (eg, sacrum, legs, hands), especially in the lower extremities

193
Q

Increased abdominal girth due to venous congestion of the gastrointestinal tract in Right sided heart failure can lead to?

A

ascites. hepatomegaly splenomegaly

194
Q

Classical sign of Right sided heart failure

A

Peripheral and dependent edema

195
Q

What are we NOT freaking out about after administering Adenosine?

A

brief period of asystole

196
Q

First line drug for paroxysmal SVT?

A

Adenosine

197
Q

The most important adverse effects of (ACE) inhibitors include?

A

Angioedema (allergic reaction involving edema of the face and airways)

198
Q

ACE inhibitors lower the levels of aldosterone , thereby promoting what vital sign condition change?

A

Hyperkalemia

199
Q

New onset of dependent edema of the feet could represent what condition?

A

congestive heart failure

200
Q

Failure of pinprick testing and loss of hair point to what condition ?

A

peripheral arterial disease (PAD)

201
Q

Chronic, atherosclerotic disease caused by buildup of plaque within the arteries commonly affects the lower extremities?

A

peripheral arterial disease (PAD)

202
Q

Heating pads should never be used in clients with lower extremity disease?

A

peripheral arterial disease (PAD)

203
Q

Urinary tract infections can cause what two symptoms in the elderly?

A

fever confusion

204
Q

Name the three clinical features (or assessment findings) of Cardiac Tamponade that require immediate intervention?

A

Narrowed pulse pressure Muffled or distant heart sounds Distended neck veins

205
Q

What is the buildup of fluid in the pericardium called?

A

Pericardial effusion

206
Q

What condition is a serious complication of pericardial effusion?

A

Cardiac Tamponade

207
Q

Most frequent complication following myocardial infarction (MI)?

A

Ventricular fibrillation

208
Q

Discharge teaching for clients with a permanent pacemaker?

A

report fever or signs of redness, swelling, or drainage at the incision site

209
Q

These two rhythms typically precede Ventricular Fibrillation and early identification is an important assessment?

A

ventricular tachycardia or premature ventricular contractions (PVCs)

210
Q

Left to right shunting leads to?

A

excess blood flow to the lungs → pulmonary congestion

211
Q

These congenital heart defects impede pulmonary blood flow?

A

Right to Left congenital heart defects (eg, cyanotic defects )

212
Q

This heart failure medications has a narrow therapeutic range?

A

Digoxin

213
Q

This type of medication increases the risk of thrombotic events in clients with cardiovascular disease?

A

NSAIDS

214
Q

Its a long acting nitrate medication prescribed to prevent angina in clients with CAD?

A

Isosorbide dinitrate (Isordil)

215
Q

This contains omega 3 fatty acids, which may decrease blood triglyceride levels with consistent use?

A

Fish oil

216
Q

A large anterior wall MI can develop into these two conditions without the proper assessments?

A

heart failure cardiogenic shock

217
Q

A demand ventricular electronic pacemaker delivers an impulse (fires) when it senses an intrinsic rate below the predetermined rate of?

A

70/min

218
Q

First degree atrioventricular (AV) block can be associated with beta adrenergic blocker drugs?

A

Beta Blockers

219
Q

The client will have no pulse or respirations, and will be unresponsive he’s in?

A

Asystole

220
Q

Assessment of the client’s breathing is the greatest priority in which condition?

A

Heart failure related fluid overload

221
Q

Which of the following is most likely an indication for the use of Albuterol (Proventil)?

A

Asthma

222
Q

Albuterol is used to treat acute onset episodes of

A

asthma

223
Q

Dobutamine’s primary activity results from its stimulation of

A

beta 1 adrenoreceptors of the heart

224
Q

Which of the following is an important consideration when administering dobutamine with MAOIs and TCA’s?

A

Other Meds May Increase Potency

225
Q

Which of the following effects does dobutamine directly exert on the cardiovascular system?

A

Positive Inotropic

226
Q

Which of the following is an important consideration when administering dobutamine?

A

Closely Monitor Patients Monitor

227
Q

Which of the following diseases or disorders is most likely an indication for dobutamine?

A

Heart Failure

228
Q

Which of the following conditions is an indication for the USE of NSAIDs in congenital disease newborns relating to the heart?

A

Closure of PDA

229
Q

The NSAID

A

indomethacin

230
Q

During your assessment of a patient with peripheral artery disease (PAD), which of the following is most likely to be found on history or physical?

A

Critical limb ischemia

231
Q

when the pulmonary capillary wedge is above 20 mmHg what is likely to occur, which is a life threatening condition

A

pulmonary edema

232
Q

Considered the gold standard for determining the cause of acute pulmonary edema?

A

Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP)

233
Q

First line standard test used to assess the arterial blood supply of the hand?

A

Allen test

234
Q

The best position to auscultate the opening snap and low pitched diastolic rumble associated with mitral stenosis is in the

A

left side lying position

235
Q

When auscultating the heart of a client with mitral stenosis, in what position should the nurse place the client?

A

left side lying position

236
Q

most common type of Tachyarrhythmia of childhood rapid heart rate 200 to 300 bpm

A

Supraventricular Tachycardia

237
Q

all diuretic including spironolactone can cause dizziness therefore

A

monitor for orthostatic hypotension

238
Q

its measured medial to midclavicular line (MCL) 5th intercostal space

A

Maximal Pulse (PMI) or Apical Pulse

239
Q

The continuum from angina to myocardial infarction (MI) is termed

A

acute coronary syndrome

01 - Nclex Board Review (7 decks)

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