Cardiovascular System Flashcards
(190 cards)
1
Q
Which of the following is not a phase of hemostasis? Vascular spasm, fibrinolysis, platelet plug formation, coagulation
A
FIBRINOLYSIS
2
Q
All of the following can be expected with polycythemia except: high hematocrit, low blood viscosity, increased blood volume, high blood pressure
A
low blood viscosity
3
Q
What organ in the body regulates erythrocyte production?
A
Kidney
4
Q
If you centrifuge or spin whole blood you will find the band of white blood cells and platelets, the Buffy coat, is much thinner than the packed red blood cells below it. The difference reflects the fact that…
A
White blood cells are fewer in number than red blood cells
5
Q
When does the period of atrial repolarization occur?
A
Ventricular depolarization
6
Q
To auscultate the aortic semi lunar valve, you would place your stethoscope in the…
A
Second intercostal space to the right of the sternum
7
Q
If we were able to artificially alter the membrane permeability of pacemaker cells so that sodium influx is more rapid, …
A
Threshold is reached more quickly and heart rate would increase
8
Q
While auscultating heart sounds during a check up, Andy’s Dr. hears a high-pitched sound during ventricular contraction. Which type of valve could cause this?
A
Stenotic Aortic semi lunar valve
9
Q
Anastomoses among coronary arterial branches provided collateral routes for blood delivery to the heart muscle. True or false?
A
True
10
Q
What chemicals affects blood pressure for both the short and long term?
A
Angiotensin II
11
Q
An obstruction in the superior vena cava would decrease the flow of blood from the head and neck to the heart. True or false?
A
True
12
Q
What scenario would not promote reabsorption from the venous end of the capillary bed?
A
Increasing solute concentration in the nearby interstitial fluid
13
Q
The adjustment of blood flow to each tissue in proportion to its requirements at any point in time is termed autoregulation. True or false?
A
True
14
Q
Which tunic of an artery is most responsible for maintaining blood pressure and continuous blood circulation?
A
Tunic media
15
Q
If a person is severely dehydrated you would expect to see all of the following except Lower plasma levels, higher hematocrit, higher blood viscosity, or lower immunity
A
LOWER IMMUNITY
16
Q
Protein-containing fluid within lymphatic vessels
A
Lymph
17
Q
Stores blood platelets
A
Spleen
18
Q
Receives lymph from most of the body
A
Thoracic duct
19
Q
Small organs intimately associated with lymphatic vessels
A
Lymph nodes
20
Q
Isolated clusters of lymph follicles found in the wall of the small intestines
A
Peyer’s patches
21
Q
Captures antigens and brings them back to you lymph nodes
A
Dendritic cells
22
Q
Main antibody of both primary and secondary immune response
A
IgG
23
Q
Antibody that protects mucosal barriers
A
IgA
24
Q
Antibodies involved in allergies
A
IgE
25
Along with IgM, this antibody is a B cell receptor
IgD
26
First antibody to peak during a primary immune response
IgM
27
Enables quick and efficient response to secondary exposure to antigen
Memory cell
28
It's absence results in no immune response
Helper T cell
29
Forms antibody producing cells
B cell
30
Kills cancer cells and virus-infected body cells
Cytoxic T cells
31
Slows or stops the immune response
Regulatory T cell
32
Which immune response is the first line of defense?
Intact skin and mucous membranes
33
Which immune response is the second line of defense
The inflammatory response
34
Which immune response is the third line of defense
The immune response
35
Which immune response is the innate defense system?
The inflammatory response and skin and mucous membranes
36
What is the major contributor to plasma osmotic pressure and is an important blood buffer?
Albumin
37
Which white blood cell has a multilobed nucleus, functions as a Phagocyte, and contains fine indistinct granules?
Neutrophil
38
Which RBC transport CO2 and oxygen?
Erythrocyte
39
Which wbc contains a U- or an S-shaped nucleus, granules stains very dark, and releases histamine and heparin
Basophil
40
Which is the largest of the WBCs, is crucial in defense against viruses, and is associated with chronic infections?
Monocytes
41
Thrombin catalyzes the activation of these molecules present in plasma
Fibrinogen
42
Which layer is the inner lining of the heart?
Endocardium
43
Which layer of the heart is the heart muscle?
Myocardium
44
Layer of the heart is the serous layer covering the heart muscle?
Epicardium
45
Which layer of the heart is the outermost layer of the serous pericardium?
Parietal layer
46
What is the largest artery of the body?
Aorta
47
Which artery supplies the kidney?
Renal artery
48
Which artery supplies the duodenum and stomach?
Common hepatic artery
49
Which artery supplies the distal areas of the large intestine?
Inferior mesenteric artery
50
Which artery location is a common place to take a pulse
Radial artery
51
What is fibrinolysis?
the enzymatic breakdown of the fibrin in blood clots.
52
What is polycythemia?
an abnormally increased concentration of hemoglobin in the blood, through either reduction of plasma volume or increase in red cell numbers. It may be a primary disease of unknown cause, or a secondary condition linked to respiratory or circulatory disorder or cancer.
53
What are the 3 functions of blood?
Transport, regulation, and protection
54
What are the 4 delivery (transport) functions of blood?
Oxygen from lungs; nutrients from digestive system to all body cells; metabolic wastes from cells to elimination sites; hormones from endocrine organs to target organs
55
What are 3 regulatory functions?
Maintaining appropriate body temp by absorbing and distributing heat throughout body and to skin surface to encourage heat loss; maintain normal pH in body tissues; maintain adequate fluid volume in the circulatory system
56
What is the sequence of erythrocyte maturation?
stem cell, pro erythroblast, basophilic erythroblast, polychromatic erythroblast, orthochromatic erythroblast, reticulocyte, erythrocyte
57
What are three factors that would trigger erythropoiesis?
hemorrhage, insufficient hemoglobin per RBC, living at a high altitude
58
What substance accounts for the flexibility of the RBC membrane?
spectrin
59
Why is the RBC metabolism anaerobic?
no mitochondria
60
What is a common anemic occurrence after transfusion error or is a possible consequence of sickle-cell anemia?
Hemolytic anemia
61
What anemia is associated with destroyed or severely inhibited bone marrow?
Aplastic anemia
62
What anemia is a consequence of acute blood loss?
hemorrhagic anemia
63
What is pernicious anemia?
A common problem of individuals who have a portion of their stomach removed to manage bleeding ulcers
64
What are platelets?
Cell fragments that help stop bleeding
65
What is diapedesis?
the process of WBCs moving in and out of blood vessels
66
What is the differential WBC count?
The count of WBCs that provide info on the relative number of each WBC type
67
What does blood consist of?
Plasma and formed elements
68
What viscous fluid is 90% water and 10% solutes?
plasma
69
What viscous fluid is slightly alkaline and represents 8% of total body weight?
blood
70
What plasma proteins are made mostly by the liver?
albumin, globulins, and fibrinogen
71
What are the formed elements making up 45% of whole blood?
erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets
72
Where do formed elements arise from?
hematopoietic stem cells in red bone marrow
73
What are the small, anucleate, biconcave cells that contain hemoglobin?
erythrocytes
74
what is oxyhemoglobin?
when oxygen binds to iron atoms in hemoglobin molecules within the lungs
75
What is deoxyhemoglobin?
When oxygen dissociates from iron in the tissues
76
Where is differentiation of reticulocytes completed?
In the bloodstream
77
What two substances enhance erythropoiesis?
Erythropoietin and testosterone
78
What substances are essential from hemoglobin production?
Iron, vitamin b12, and folic acid
79
What is the life span of an RBC cell?
120 days
80
Describe 4 processes that happen to damaged or old erythrocytes?
Macrophages of the spleen or liver remove them from circulation; released iron is stored as ferritin to be reused, and the heme group is degraded to bilirubin and secreted in bile; amino acids of global are metabolized or recycled
81
Which WBCs defend the body?
Leukocytes
82
What are 2 main categories of leukocytes?
Granulocytes and agranulocytes
83
Which WBCs are granulocytes?
neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils
84
What are the functions of eosinophils?
They attack parasitic worms and their numbers increase during allergic reactions
85
What substance released by basophils promotes vasodilation and enhances migration of leukocytes to inflammatory sites?
histamine
86
Agranulocytes have crucial roles in immunity and include...
lymphocytes and monocytes
87
Which agranulocytes are known as the "immune cells"?
lymphocytes
88
Which agranulocytes differentiate into macrophages?
monocytes
89
What is leukopoiesis?
A process directed by colony-stimulating factors and interleukins released by supporting cells of the red bone marrow and mature WBCs
90
What are 2 leukocyte disorders?
leukemias and infectious mononucleosis
91
Where are platelets formed?
In red marrow
92
What process prevents blood loss?
hemostasis
93
coagulation of blood may be initiated by either the intrinsic or the extrinsic pathway. True or false?
True
94
What type of disorders involve undesirable clot formations, which may block vessels?
thromboembolic
95
What is thrombocytopenia?
A deficit of platelets which causes spontaneous bleeding from small blood vessels
96
What is hemophilia?
A genetic deficiency of certain coagulation factors
97
What is the name of the condition where there is bodywide clotting in undamaged blood vessels and subsequent hemorrhages?
Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
98
When are whole blood transfusions given?
To replace severe and rapid blood loss
99
What are packed RBCs transfusion?
given to replace lost 02-carrying capacity
100
How are blood groups/types identified?
By the agglutinogens (antigens) present on RBC membranes
101
What happens when mismatched blood is transfused?
the recipient's agglutinins (plasma antibodies) clump the foreign RBCs, which may block blood vessels temporarily and then they are lysed. Released hemoglobin may cause kidney shutdown.
102
What re the fetal hematopoietic sites?
the yolk sac, liver, and spleen
103
Where do fetal blood cells develop?
from blood islands derived from mesoderm; by month 7, red bone marrow is the primary blood-forming site
104
Where is the pulmonary circuit pump located?
The right side of the heart
105
Where does the blood from the pulmonary circuit pump initially go?
The lungs to pick up oxygen an dump carbon dioxide
106
Where is the systemic circuit pump located?
The left side of the heart
107
Where does blood from the systemic circuit pump initially go?
To the body tissues, supplying them with O2 and nutrients and removing CO2
108
Where is the human heart located?
obliquely within the mediastinum of the thorax
109
Describe the double sac enclosing the heart.
it is made up of the outer fibrous pericardium and the inner serous pericardium (parietal and visceral layers).
110
What is the pericardial cavity?
The area between the serous layers containing lubricating serous fluid
111
Which vessels enter the right atrium?
superior vena cava, inferior vena cava, and coronary sinus
112
The right ventricle discharges blood into the ....
pulmonary trunk
113
the left ventricle pumps blood into the...
aorta
114
What are the functions of the atrioventricular (AV) valves (tricuspid, mitral)?
prevent back flow into the atria when ventricles are contracting
115
What is the function of the semilunar (SL) valves (pulmonary, aortic)?
prevent back flow into the ventricles when the ventricles are relaxing
116
What are branching, striated, generally uninucleate cells?
cardiac muscle cells
117
Cardiac muscle cells contain myofibrils consisting of typical sarcomeres. True or False?
True
118
Which cardiac cells trigger action potentials throughout the heart?
pacemaker cells
119
Pacemaker cells are contractile muscle cells. True or False
False, the are non contractile muscle cells that exhibit automaticity and rhythmicity and can independently initiate action potentials (electrical impulses)
120
What is a pacemaker potential?
The slow, positive increase in voltage across the cell's membrane (the membrane potential) that occurs between the end of one action potential and the beginning of the next action potential.
121
The heart's intrinsic conduction system consists of...
SA and AV nodes, the AV bundle and bundle branches, and the subendocardial conducting network
122
Which node has the fastest rate of spontaneous depolarization and acts as the heart's pacemaker (sinus rhythm)?
The SA node
123
Defects in the intrinsic conduction system may cause...
arrhythmias, fibrillation, and heart attack
124
The sympathetic nervous system innervates the heart. True or false?
False, the autonomic nervous system
125
What is a graphic representation of the cardiac conduction cycle?
An electrocardiogram (ECG)
126
The P wave of an ECG reflects ....
atrial depolarization
127
The QRS complex indicates ...
ventricular deploarization
128
The T wave represents ...
ventricular repolarization
129
The mechanical events associated with blood flow through the heart describes the ...
cardiac cycle
130
Abnormal heart sounds (murmurs) usually reflect valve problems. True or false?
True
131
Stroke volume and heart rate are regulated to alter cardiac output. True or false?
True
132
What is cardiac output?
The typical amount of blood (5 L/min) pumped out by each ventricle in 1 minute
133
What is stroke volume?
The amount of blood pumped out by a ventricle with each contraction.
134
Heart rate x Stroke volume =
Cardiac output
135
What substances effect the chemical regulation of the heart?
Hormones (epinephrine and thyroxine) and ions (particularly potassium and calcium)
136
Activation of the sympathetic nervous system increases heart rate and contractibility. True or false?
True
137
Parasympathetic activation decreases heart rate and contractility. True or false.
Both, it does decrease HR but has little to no effect on contractility
138
What effects stroke volume?
Anything that influences heart rate or blood volume, which influences venous return
139
The difference between end diastolic volume (EDV) and end systolic volume (ESV) =
Stroke volume
140
Congenital heart defects are the most common of all birth defects. True or false?
True
141
List 4 risk factors for cardiac disease.
Dietary factors, excessive stress, cigarette smoking, and lack of exercise
142
the fetal heart arise from which primary germ layer?
mesoderm
143
What are the three layers of MOST blood vessels?
tunica intima, tunic media, and tunica externa
144
Capillary walls are composed of the tunica media only. True or false?
False, the tunica intima
145
What are three functions of arteries?
Pressure reservoirs, distributing vessels, and/or resistance vessels
146
What are elastic arteries?
The large conducting arteries close to the heart that expand during systole, act as pressure reservoirs, and recoil during diastole to keep blood moving
147
What are muscular arteries?
Distributing arteries that carry blood to specific organs; they are much less stretchy and more active in vasoconstriction
148
Arterioles regulate blood flow into capillary beds. True or false?
True
149
Capillaries are distributing vessels. True or false?
False, they are exchange vessels
150
What is a degenerative vascular disease that decreases the elasticity of arteries?
Atherosclerosis
151
What feature allows exchange between capillary blood and interstitial fluid?
Intercelluar clefts
152
List the 3 types of capillaries from the most permeable to the least.
Sinusoid, fenestrated, & continuous (lacks pores)
153
What is a vascular shunt?
Metarteriole-thoroughfare channels that connect the terminal arteriole and post capillary venue at opposite ends of a capillary bed
154
What is the function of a pre capillary sphincter?
To regulate the amount of blood flowing into the true capillaries, which arise from and rejoin the shunt channels
155
Veins have comparatively larger lumens than arteries and a system of valves to prevent back flow. True or false?
True
156
Due to only being partially filled, these vessels can serve as blood reservoirs.
Veins
157
What are anastomoses?
Special interconnections between blood vessels that provide alternate channels in the same organ
158
Vascular anastomoses form where?
Between arteries, btw veins, and btw arterioles and venules
159
Blood flows from high to low pressure against resistance? True or false?
True
160
What is blood flow?
The amount of blood flowing through a vessel, and organ, or the entire circulation in a given time period
161
What is blood pressure (BP)?
the force per unit area exerted on a vessel wall by the contained blood
162
What is resistance?
the opposition to blood flow
163
What factors contribute to resistance?
blood viscosity and blood vessel length and diameter
164
Blood flow is directly proportional to blood pressure and inversely proportional to resistance. True or false?
True
165
Systemic blood pressure is highest in the ___ and lowest in the ___.
aorta; venae cavae
166
Where does the steepest drop of BP occur?
in the arterioles, where resistance is the greatest
167
Arterial BP depends on what two things?
compliance of the elastic arteries and on how much blood is forced into them
168
What is systolic pressure?
When arterial blood pressure is the highest (during systole)
169
What is diastolic pressure?
When blood is forced distally in the circulation by the rebound of elastic arteries during diastole; arterial BP drops to its lowest value
170
What is pulse pressure?
Systolic pressure minus diastolic pressure
171
What is MAP?
The mean arterial pressure is the pressure that keeps blood moving throughout the cardiac cycle; MAP = diastolic pressure plus 1/3 of pulse pressure
172
What 2 measurements are used to assess cardiovascular efficiency?
Pulse pressure and blood pressure
173
Since venous pressure in nonpulsatile and low due to cumulative effects of resistance, what factors promote venous return?
venous valves, large lumens, functional adaptations (muscular and respiratory pumps), and sympathetic nervous system activity
174
Blood pressure varies directly with what 3 factors?
CO2, peripheral resistance (R), and blood volume
175
What is the major factor determining resistance?
Vessel diameter
176
Which factor significantly affects blood pressure?
small changes in the diameter or vessels (chiefly arterioles)
177
Which hormones increase BP by promoting vasoconstriction?
epinephrine, NE, ADH, and angiotensin II
178
Which hormones decrease BP by promoting vasodilation?
atrial natriuretic peptide
179
Intrinsic controls determine blood flow through...
Auto regulation that involve local adjustment of blood flow to individual organs based on their immediate requirements
180
Extrinsic controls controls determine blood flow through...
nerves and hormones that maintain MAP and redistribute blood during exercise and thermoregulation
181
Autoregulation involves...
myogenic controls that maintain flow despite changes in blood pressure, and local chemical factors
182
What are 3 vasodilators?
CO2, H+, nitric oxide, and decreased O2 concentration
183
Blood flows fastest where? slowest?
The cross-sectional area of the vascular bed is least (aorta); the total cross-sectional area is greatest (capillaries)
184
What is the importance of a slow blood flow through the capillaries?
To allow time for diffusion of nutrients and gases, and bulk flow of fluids
185
Nutrients, gases, and other solutes smaller than plasma proteins cross the capillary wall by...
diffusion
186
Larger molecules are actively transported via pinocytotic vesicles or caveolae. True or false?
True
187
How are water-soluble substances exchanged in capillaries? Fat-soluble substance?
Through the clefts or fenestrations; through the lipid portion of the endothelial cell membrane
188
Which vessels collect the small net loss of fluid in the interstitial space?
Lymphatic vessels
189
What factors determine the bulk flow of fluids at the capillary bed/interstitial space junction?
Hydrostatic and osmotic pressure (outward minus inward pressure)
190
What is edema?
The abnormal accumulation of fluid in the interstitial space as a result of imbalances in pressures that drive bulk flow or a block of lymphatic drainage
