Case 10 - anaesthesia notes Flashcards

1
Q

what is the diagram showing the scale from fully alert and conscious to brainstem death

A
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2
Q

what are the different parts of the reticular activating system

A

midbrain reticular formation
mesencephalic nucleus in midbrain
thalamic intralaminar nucelus
dorsal hypothalamus
tegmentum

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3
Q

reticular activating system diagram

A
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4
Q

what are the phases of surgery and anaesthesia

A

preparation
induction
maintenance
early recovery
delayed recovery

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5
Q

what is the monitoring of an anaesthetised patient

A

heart rate and ST segments
pulse oximetry - oxygen saturations
arterial wave form - cannula into radial artery to monitor BP and cardiac output
CO2 and ventilation perimeters
isoflurane also
temperature (hypothermic)

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6
Q

how do we optimise preparation for elective surgery - physiologically

A

stop smoking, loose weight, improve exercise tolerance

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7
Q

how do we optimise preparation for elective surgery - pharmacologically

A

awareness, information, anticipation and mindset

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8
Q

why do people with a high BMI need more of a drug

A

because they have a lot more lipid to dissolve the drug

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9
Q

what is the BIS and which range means a patient is anaesthetised

A

is the bispectral index and a number between 40 and 60 means the patient is anaesthetised

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10
Q

what is local anaesthesia

A

consciousness is not impaired

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11
Q

types of local anaesthesia:

A

topical
field
regional: spinal, epidural

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12
Q

what is an essential feature of general anaesthetic

A

hypnosis

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13
Q

what is combined anaesthesia

A

general anaesthesia combined with some regional technique

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14
Q

why is anaesthesia further down the back less risky than one further up

A

because it is much easier to hit the spinal cord and do damage if anaesthesia needs to be placed higher up the back e.g epidural

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15
Q

when is regional anaesthesia given

A

peripheral limbs
Lower abdomen
Supplied by a distinct set of nerves
Topical
Local infiltration
Field block
Ring blocks
plexus blocks: ultra sound guided

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16
Q

what are the three components of general anaesthesia

A

hypnosis
analgesia
muscle relaxation

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17
Q

what agents are used for hypnosis

A

intravenous agents: propofol, barbiturates (thiopentone), benzodiazepines

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18
Q

what agents are used for analgesia

A

optiates: synthtic or natural
non-opiates

19
Q

what agents are used for muscle relaxation

A

depolarising agents
non-depolarising agents

20
Q

what is remifentanyl used for

A

to perform brain surgery when the patient is aware during it

21
Q

what do more soluble inhalation anaesthetic agents have

A

a higher coefficient

22
Q

what do agents with a lower coefficient have

A

faster onset and faster emergence

23
Q

what is the potency of anaesthetic agents measured and related to

A

measured by oil-gas partition coefficient and related to lipid solubility

24
Q

what is potency not related to

A

the blood gas solubility coefficient

25
what drug has low potency
N2O
26
what is the inverse indicator of potency
MAC
27
what are the mode of actions these drugs can have
disruption of synaptic transmission Pre synaptic membrane Altering reuptake Alter binding Alter activation / ionic conductance of the post-synaptic membrane Direct action on the neuronal plasma membrane
28
what is the Meyer Overton Theory
lipid solubility and anaesthetic potency
29
what are the adverse effects
PONV Cardiovascular depression Negatively inotropic Variable action on heart rate arrhythmogenesis Hypotension: vasodilation Loss of airway tone: airway obstruction Malignant hyperthermia Bronchial muscle relaxation Agitation and confusion… particularly in elderly Nephrotoxicity Hepatotoxicity: halothane hepatitis
30
pain pathway diagram
X
31
what are natural opiates
morphine dihydro-morphine codeine
32
what are opiate analogues
tramadol
33
what are synthetic or semisynthetic agents
pethidine fentanyl alfentanyl remifentanyl
34
what is mediated via the mu1 receptor
analgesia
35
what is mediated via the mu2 receptor
respiratory depression
36
what is mediated via the mu3 receptor
vasodilation
37
where do must muscle relaxants work
the motor end plate
38
what is a depolarising blocker
suxamethonium
39
what are non-depolarising blockers
curare, atracurium
40
what are the adverse effects of suxamethonium
muscle pain Hyperkalaemia Malignant hyperthermia Anaphylaxis Suxamethonium apnoea Increased IOP and ICP
41
what are adverse effects of non-depolarising blockers
hypotension Histamine release Wheeze Tachycardia or bradycardia Anaphylaxis Incomplete reversal
42
what drugs are involved in recovery
neostigmine and glycopyrolate
43
what is involved in long term recovery
early mobilisation Physiotherapy: prevention of pulmonary complications Prevention of thromboembolic disorders Early enteral nutrition
44
why are patients given 100% oxygen
to wash out and replace the anaesthesia gas