CBT Quiz Questions Flashcards
1
Q
When on the ground, auxiliary AC power can be provided by ________.
A
2 external power sources; 2 APU generators.
2
Q
Both AC and DC Power Flow are displayed on the Electrical Synoptic Display. (True or False)
A
False (only AC)
3
Q
There are ______ IDGs, _____ APU generator(s), and _____ external power source(s) that supply AC power to the B747-400.
A
4, 2, 2
4
Q
Disconnecting an IDG is an irrevocable action that can only be reset on the ground. (True or False)
A
True
5
Q
External Power and an APU generator cannot both be connected to the same side of the synchronous bus simultaneously. What divides the synchronous bus and allows each side to be powered by two different auxiliary sources?
A
Split System Breaker (SSB)
6
Q
Each IDG normally powers its related AC bus through a _________.
A
Generator Control Breaker (GCB.)
7
Q
The Ground Handling Bus is never available during flight. (True or False)
A
True
8
Q
The Captain Transfer Bus is normally powered by ________.
A
AC Bus 3
9
Q
If the Left Utility Power switch is ON, which utility busses are powered?
A
Utility Bus 1 and Utility Bus 2
10
Q
The four main DC busses are connected through ____ to the DC tie bus.
A
DCIR’s (DC Isolation Relays)
11
Q
There are NO switches or relays to control power to the hot battery busses. (True or False)
A
True. (Each is directly connected to its associated battery.)
12
Q
The Electrical Synoptic is inhibited during autoland. (true or false)
A
True
13
Q
If AC bus 3 is not powered, the main standby bus will be automatically powered by the _____________.
A
Main Standby inverter
14
Q
The Standby Power selector is required to be in the _____ position for the automatic switching of the standby power system.
A
AUTO
15
Q
What is the normal Demand Pump Selector position after Engine Start?
A
AUTO
16
Q
The hydraulic fluid Shutoff Valve closes when _________.
A
The related engine fire switch is pulled.
17
Q
If the engine Driven Pump Switch is turned Off the associated Pressure Light ______________.
A
Illuminates
18
Q
The pilot controls the scavenging system. (True or False)
A
False
19
Q
Each Main Tank has ____ AC Pumps.
A
2
20
Q
If the fuel temperature drops to _______ or below the fuel temperature indicator turns amber.
A
-37C
21
Q
When override pump 2 or 3 is armed by the system logic, what color is the pump symbol?
A
Cyan
22
Q
APU Fuel is normally supplied from what tank?
A
Main tank 2
23
Q
As for normal operations, during jettison, the FSMCs open the reserve transfer valves when main tank 2 or 3 quantity decreases to ____________.
A
18,200 KG (40,124 lbs)
24
Q
Fire Extinguishing is provided for the APU, Engines, Lower Cargo Compartments, and Lavatories. (true/false)
A
True
25
The Engine Fire Switches must be ____________ to arm the extinguisher bottle, and ___________ to discharge the bottle.
Pulled out
Rotated
26
How many Fire Detection Loops are there per engine?
2
27
The Master Warning lights and bell may be reset by pressing the Master Warning/Caution Reset switch. (True or False)
True
28
How many Extinguisher Bottles are provided for APU Fire protection?
1
29
If the Flight Deck APU Fire Switch Fails to unlock, the pilot can manually unlock it. (True or False)
True
30
The Air Conditioning System has _____ packs.
3
31
The Autobrake System is selected to RTO for Takeoff. (true or false)
True
32
Where can you find the APU ground control panel?
On the right body gear wheel well
33
The Main Gear wheel wells have a fire extinguisher. (True or False)
False
34
After pushing the Main Deck Cargo Fire Arm Switch, pushing the Cargo Depress/Disch switch will _______________.
Initiate a controlled cabin depressurization.
35
All six spoiler panels on each wing functions as ____________.
Ground spoilers.
36
The center of the body gear strut is _____ from the strut of the nose gear.
89' 5.5"
37
At take off power, the hazard distance of winds up to 100 mph extends to almost _____ ft/ ______ m from the back of the engine.
500, 150
38
Where is the Fire Panel located?
On the overhead panel?
39
Where are the Rudder Trim Controls located?
On the aisle stand
40
What type of window damage can cause Arcing to occur?
Moisture ingress
41
With the Landing Light switch ON, the Landing Lights will be full bright when the Landing Gear Lever is in what position?
Down position
42
The absence of the green blow-out disk on the right forward side of the fuselage indicates an over-pressurized crew oxygen bottle. (true or false)
True
43
The Mask Inflation Levers must be held continuously to inflate the quick donning mask harness. (True or false)
True
44
At what cabin altitude are the PSU Doors (supernumerary in 400F) designed to automatically open and drop the masks?
14,000'
45
What altitude can the flow to all oxygen masks be shutdown?
12,000'
46
How many zones are on the Freighter B747 Aircraft?
7
47
As a precaution both Pack Temperature Controllers are active at the same time. (True or False)
False
48
The three identical packs are normally supplied bleed air from the __________.
Engines
49
The master temperature for the Cabin can be adjusted between ________ and ________.
18-29 degrees C (65-85F)
50
If PTC A is selected and PTC A fails, does the pack automatically switch to the PTC B?
Yes
51
If all packs are selected OFF, what EICAS Memo Message will display?
PACKS OFF
52
With the aircraft on the ground, no engines running, and cool ambient temperatures, what mode is the Equipment Cooling System operating in?
Flight mode
(this is because its cold outside)
53
The EICAS caution message EQUIP COOLING displays only when an overheat or smoke is detected in the Equipment Cooling System. (True or False)
False
"The EICAS caution message, EQUIP COOLING, will display if the system does not properly configure for flight after the engines are started."
54
The packs supply air at what temperature?
At the coldest zone requested temperature
55
The ______________ selector is used to determine how much air from a pack is delivered to a specific lower lobe cargo compartment.
Lower lobe cargo conditioned air flow rate
56
The Flt Deck Temp selector can automatically adjust the temperature between _________-__________
18-29C (65-85F)
57
If a fault or duct overheat no longer exists an attempt to restore zone temperature control can be made by pushing the ___________.
Zone reset switch
58
The heated air from the E&E compartment heats the forward cargo compartment. (True or False)
True
59
The Aft Cargo Heat Switch is normally ______ before engine start.
OFF
60
The maximum cabin differential pressure is ______psi.
9.4
61
With the AUTO SELECT switch in the A position ______________________
The A controller is designated a primary, but the B controller is selected if the A fails.
62
Selecting an Outflow Valve Manual Switch to ON bypasses the ________ and ________ for the selected valve.
automatic outflow valve control, cabin altitude limiter
Note: Cabin altitude limiter closes outflow valves at 11,000 cabin altitude. But in manual, this protection is gone
63
The maximum headwind on an autoland approach is ______.
25 knots
64
During single A/P controlled flight the rudder is operated by an A/P servo. (True or False)
False
65
Which AT thrust mode engages after a TO/GA switch is pressed during takeoff?
THR REF
66
The autothrottle system is normally disconnected by _________.
Pushing an autothrottle disconnect switch.
67
Autothrottle operation is provided by both the _______ and __________.
MCP, CDU’s
68
What is the crew alert for engagement of speed intervention?
There is no alert
69
When speed intervention is active, there are _______ alerts to the pilots.
No obvious
70
On the ground with both F/D switches OFF and the A/P not engaged; when the first F/D is selected ON, the following modes display in the Roll and Pitch FMA windows:
TOGA, TOGA
71
While a mode is armed and not active, it can be disarmed by pressing the same switch a second time. (True or False)
True
72
When VNAV mode is selected, the IAS/MACH window______
Blanks
73
After touchdown, when does the autothrottle automatically disengage?
When a reverse thrust lever is raised to reverse idle.
74
The AFDS status FMA changes at ______ during autoland.
1500’
75
If the aircraft is below _____ the AFDS status will not change from LAND 3 to LAND 2.
200’
76
Speed Protection is NOT provided for the ___________ pitch mode.
V/S
77
If FMC data is invalid, the _______ provide(s) the speed limits.
Flight Control Computers (FCC's)
78
LNAV activates when the airplane is _______.
-50' above the runway
and
-Within 2.5 miles of the LNAV active leg
79
Selection of LNAV with the airplane not on a heading to intercept the active leg displays what message on the CDU?
NOT ON INTERCEPT HDG
80
Localizer (LOC) cannot capture until the aircraft is within range of the LOC beam and ____ of the LOC track.
120 degrees
81
To disarm the APP mode before LOC or G/S capture, the pilot would need to _______.
-Select roll mode to LNAV or LOC
-Select pitch mode to VNAV
-Push APP a second time
(ALL are correct)
82
Assume your airspeed is over 80 knots and the flaps are not retracted. What action will cause the Flight Director guidance to pop-up when the Flight Director switch is off?
Pressing either TOGA switch
83
What does the VNAV pitch mode provide?
It couples the AFDS to the FMS for automated vertical guidance.
84
Which A/T thrust mode is engaged after a TO/GA switch is pressed twice during a go-around?
THR REF
85
When the aircraft accelerates through 65 knots ______.
Autothrottle HOLD mode is activated
86
When the aircraft accelerates through 100 knots ______.
The current barometric altitude is recorded.
87
When the aircraft lifts off ______. (What speed does it pitch for)
V2 + 10
88
If LNAV is armed for takeoff it activates at ____ feet.
If VNAV is armed for takeoff it activates at ____ feet.
50' ; 400'
89
During Autoland the rudder will automatically compensate for asymmetric thrust. (true or false)
True
90
TO/GA switches are inhibited ____ seconds after the radio altitude decreases through _____ feet on landing.
2 ; 5
91
______ will display in the Autothrottle FMA window after the first push of a TO/GA switch for a Go-Around.
THR
92
The Go Around Mode is armed by:
Either flap extension or glideslope capture
93
Which Two(2) displays have priority over other available displays?
PFD and Primary EICAS
94
The _____ System provides air speed and barometric information to various airplane systems.
ADC
95
If an outboard display fails the PFD will transfer to the _____.
Inboard
96
There are ______ identical EFIS/EICAS interface units (EIUs).
3
97
On LCD displays, the Slip and Skid indicator is filled white at ____________.
at full scale deflection
98
The digital vertical speed displays below or above the Vertical Speed display when the vertical speed is greater than ___________.
400 FPM
99
Which of the following ND modes are displayed in a TRACK UP format?
A.) APP and VOR
B.) MAP
C.) VOR
B.) MAP
100
Look-ahead terrain, weather radar, PWS, and TCAS are available for display in all ND modes except the __________________ modes.
APP CTR, VOR CTR, and PLN
101
If an EFIS control panel fails, control of the PFD and ND can be performed on the CDU. (true or false)
True
102
The ND may be switched to ________ different modes from the EFIS control panel?
4
103
What is the result of a failure of both FMCs?
LNAV, VNAV, and Autothrottles are no longer available.
(The alternate navigation mode is available on each CDU. )
104
The FMC gets the best position accuracy update information from the __________.
GPS
105
Which database is used by the FMS for operation of the VNAV mode? (performance database or navigation database)
Performance database
106
How does the crew tune the ILS frequency for the approach?
It is automatically tuned by the FMS for the selected approach. (When within 150 NM of destination, 50 NM of T/D, or in FMC descent.)
107
When the FMS provides a message to the flight crew, it is displayed _____________.
On the CDU scratchpad.
108
Which key can be used to clear data from the left or right side lines of the CDU?
DEL key
109
Which of these areas on a CDU page require a pilot entry?
A.) Lines with dashes
B.) Lines with blocks
B.)
110
Once the IRS Mode Selectors have been placed in the NAV position, what coordinates are normally used for the SET IRS POS entry on the POS INIT page?
The GPS POS coordinates displayed at 4R
111
Preflight pages consist of route preflight pages and performance preflight pages. (True or false)
True
112
How is the fuel value entered in the RESERVES block on the PERF INIT page obtained?
Directly from the flight plan RESERVE (FMC RESERVE) value
113
What occurs when the last V speed value is entered or selected on the TAKEOFF REF page?
The amber "NO V SPEED" message on the PFD goes away and you see a V1 bug on the speed tape.
114
When does LNAV engage?
When above 50' RA and within 2.5 miles of the active leg.
115
When does VNAV engage?
At 400' above the runway.
116
RTE Offsets are entered from the RTE page. (True or false)
True
117
Once level in cruise, how are climbs and descents normally initiated and the FMC updated?
By setting the new altitude in the MCP altitude window and pushing the altitude selector, the FMC is automatically updated.
118
What is the first step when setting up an Intercept Course TO a waypoint?
Select direct to the waypoint.
119
Which mode allows the Transponder to provide only TCAS Traffic Advisories?
Note: it is usually selected after an engine failure to inhibit Resolution Advisories.
TA ONLY
120
Which mode allows the Transponder to operate with altitude reporting - but with no TCAS?
XPNDR
121
If Backup DC power to an IRU fails, the EICAS Message ________ displays.
IRS DC CENTER, LEFT, or RIGHT
122
If an IRS position is not entered before the IRSs finish alignment, what message displays?
SET IRS POS
123
The IRS is the sole source of attitude and heading signals to the AFDS, PFD, and ND. (True or false)
True
124
The B747-400 is equipped with ______ ILS system(s).
3
125
The DMEs are primarily tuned automatically by the _______.
FMC
126
The N1 and N2 rotors are mechanically independent. (True or false)
True
127
The N2 Rotor drives the __________.
Engine accessory gearbox
128
Each engine has an ignition system that has ____________ igniter(s).
2
129
After leaving the fuel tank the fuel for each engine passes through what valve first?
Spar fuel valve
130
A fuel filter removes the contaminants prior to fuel entering the fuel metering unit. (true or false)
True
131
During Autostart the fuel metering valve is additionally controlled by the EEC. (True or false)
True
132
The oil is cooled as it flows through the _____/_____ heat exchanger.
fuel, oil
133
Oil Temperature is measured __________ of the engine.
downstream
134
During cruise, oil quantity displays on the EICAS whenever oil quantity on one engine differs from any other engine by a predetermined amount. (true or false)
True
135
N1 and EGT are ___________ indications.
Primary
136
When any Fuel Control Switch is moved to the CUTOFF position in flight the __________ will automatically pop-up if not displayed.
secondary engine indications display
137
Primary EICAS ALWAYS has priority. True or false
True
138
Each engine is equipped with _______ igniters.
2
139
The Fuel On Indicator displays the minimum _______ at which the fuel control switch should be moved to RUN during the manual start.
N2
140
During ground start, the auto-start system monitors engine parameters and aborts the start for any of the following Engine Start Malfunctions, except...
A.) High Oil Pressure
B.) No EGT Rise
C.) Hung Start
D.) Hot Start
A.) High Oil Pressure
141
An engine will not operate without the associated EEC operating. (True or False)
True
NOTE: It still operates in ALTERNATE mode, but the question asked if the EEC is not operating at all. Its basically FADEC, so if the EEC dies so does the engine.
142
Both normal and alternate modes of the EEC use _____ RPM as the controlling parameter for setting thrust.
N1
143
The alternate mode does not provide the engine protection of limiting the thrust at maximum N1. (True or False)
True
144
The EEC provides overspeed protection for the N1 and N2 in normal mode and alternate mode. (True or False)
True
145
If an engine is not running the thrust reverser can or cannot operate?
cannot
146
While the reverser deployment is in transit the reverse thrust lever is locked in the interlock position. (True or false)
True
147
The thrust levers can only be moved forward after ________.
the reverse thrust levers are fully down
148
There are _____ possible sources for engine vibration.
4
-FAN (N1)
-LPT (Low pressure turbine)
-N2
-BB (Broad Band)
149
Transitioning from cruise to landing, there can be multiple regions of altitudes and airspeeds where vibration levels can become severe. (True or false)
True
150
Generally, if descending and reducing airspeed does not help or worsens the vibrations, what may help?
Slight increase in airspeed
151
Is the APU certified to be started in flight?
No
152
The EICAS Memo message APU RUNNING displays when the APU RPM is above _____%
95
153
The Elevator Feel System ________ forces to move the column at increased airspeeds.
Increases
154
The manual stabilizer trim switches are located on the ___________ and the ____________.
Control wheel, control stand
155
Moving the appropriate STAB TRIM CUT OUT switch to the CUTOUT position does what?
Deactivates associated hydraulic power to the STCM, and the associated STAB TRIM 2 or 3 displays
156
Only the ______ side spoiler indicator indicates speedbrake operation on the Flight Control Synoptic Display.
Left
157
Take Off Flap settings are?
10 or 20
158
Opposite Trailing Edge Flaps are mechanically linked to assure symmetry. (true or false)
True
159
Alternate flap control does not give what protection?
Asymmetry protection
160
For roll augmentation, the 5 most ________ spoilers receive control inputs from the spoiler mixing system.
Outboard
161
Yaw Damper operation can be viewed on the Flight Control Synoptic display
(True or false)
False, the yaw damper operation is transparent to pilots
162
If a rudder ratio changer fails, the response of the associated rudder pedal to the rudder inputs remains the same as when the failure occurred, regardless of the current airspeed. (True or false)
True (Dangerous because it can get stuck in a low airspeed condition and be way deflected, then rip off the tail if you go fast.)
163
All Main Gear wheels are equipped with Normal and Alternate Brakes along with Antiskid. (True or False)
True
164
The Nose Gear Retracts ____________. (what direction)
Forward
165
The Main Gear include the ________ and _________.
Wing gear, body gear
166
The Nose Wheels have ___________.
No brakes
167
The Normal Brakes are powered by ___________.
hydraulic system 4
168
According to the Non-normal procedure, you have extended the landing gear after takeoff due to the display of the BRAKE TEMP message. After _____ minutes and with the BRAKE TEMP message blank, the crew will retract the landing gear normally.
8
169
Normally, the Brake Pedals supply hydraulic pressure to each wheel brake by controlling the _________.
Normal metering valve
170
Anti-Skid protection operates for both normal and alternate brake systems, but at a lower capacity in the ________ system.
Alternate
171
Locked wheel protection is provided using __________.
Wheel speed comparison
172
The EICAS Advisory message __________ displays if there is a fault in the anti-skid system.
ANTISKID
173
The Autobrake system depends on the ________ brake system to be functioning.
Normal
174
The Autobrake selector has one mode for takeoff and ____ for landing.
5
175
The Autobrakes will not activate on a rejected takeoff if the ground speed is below _________.
85 knots
176
Does Wing Anti-Ice operate when the aircraft is on the ground?
No
177
On the ground, with at least one engine running, which of the probe heat systems is not operating?
TAT
178
The window heat switches are normally ____ for all flight operations.
ON
179
Engine Anti-Ice can operate on the ground or in flight.
(true or false)
True
180
Wing Anti-ice is available on the ground and in flight if the leading edge flaps are retracted. (True or False)
False
181
Engine Nacelle Anti-ice is provided by bleed air ______.
directly from the associated engine
182
When the Nacelle Anti-ice system is operating, the igniter(s) will continuously operate on the selected engine. (True or False)
True
183
To transmit using the boom microphone and the ACP Panel, what position should the Push-To-Talk switch be in?
R/T
184
The EICAS Message _________ displays if a HF or VHF radio transmits for more than 30 seconds.
RADIO TRANSMIT
185
When the ground crew calls the flight crew, what button on the Call Panel will illuminate?
Ground (GRD)
186
The Service Interphone Switch is used to connect the Service Interphone to the __________.
Freight interphone
187
The HF L (left) sensitivity can be adjusted by the ______ radio tuning panel.
Left
188
How many VHF radios are on the B747?
3
189
The Voice Recorder can be erased only when ______________.
Aircraft is on the ground
