SIT question bank (oral prep) Flashcards
(476 cards)
1
Q
What does the “AVAIL” light mean on the external and APU PWR switches?
A
Power quality is acceptable
2
Q
What bus is powered on the ground when APU GEN 1 or EXT PWR 1 is available?
A
Ground handling bus
3
Q
When is the main deck cargo handling bus powered?
A
Whenever EXT 2 or APU 2 is plugged in and AVAIL (but not selected ON).
4
Q
What electrical power source would you need to select if cargo handling is required?
A
EXT 1 or APU 1
5
Q
When is the ground service bus powered?
A
Anytime AC bus 1 is powered.
Or, if AC bus 1 not powered, can be powered from APU 1 or EXT 1 by pressing the Ground Service switch (1L).
6
Q
What is the function of the standby power switch in AUTO?
A
It allows the standby busses to be powered by available sources automatically. (Referring to main standby bus and APU standby bus).
7
Q
Where would you find the electrical power up procedure?
A
FCOM Vol. 1
8
Q
What does a bus isolation (ISLN) light illuminated indicate?
A
It means that the BTB is open and the AC bus is isolated from the synchronous bus. (bus still powered, just isolated.)
9
Q
What happens when you press a generator drive disconnect switch? (DRIVE DISC)
A
Disconnects IDG from engine. Opens related GCB.
10
Q
What condition would automatically disconnect the IDG if not manually disconnected?
A
High IDG oil temperature
11
Q
How do you reconnect an IDG that has been disconnected?
A
You don’t. MX has to do it on the ground.
12
Q
What does a generator DRIVE light indicate?
A
-High IDG oil temp
-Low IDG oil pressure
-Uncorrectable generator freq. fault
13
Q
What are some of the equipment items powered on the utility busses?
A
-Forward main fuel pumps 2 and 3
-Forward overr/jett pumps 2 and 3
-Center overr/jett pump CWT L
-Galley equipment
14
Q
Describe the electrical load shedding process.
A
ELCUs automatically control load shedding and shed utility busses as needed. Whatever order the ELCU removed items, it will restore them in reverse order.
15
Q
What is the purpose of the electrical system overload protection?
A
So the main AC busses do not get overloaded. You have systems in place to prevent the loss of critical components due to an overload. The less important things are shedded to preserve the more important things.
16
Q
During load shedding, would you expect to see an EICAS advisory message ELEC UTIL BUS L, R?
A
No
17
Q
What are the main AC electrical power sources?
A
-2 APU gens
-2 EXT power
-4 IDGs
18
Q
Describe the function of the split system breaker (SSB).
A
It divides the synchronous bus into 2 parts. It allows for segregation of non-synchronized power sources to power their own sides of the system, and also allows a single source or multiple synchronized sources to power the entire system.
19
Q
Describe the electrical system sequence of events during an engine start with the SSB open.
A
APU GEN 1 and 2 are being used, SSB open. After 1 engine start, that side is all off IDG, SSB still open. After an engine started across the SSB, the SSB closes.
20
Q
Describe the electrical system sequence of events with a single power source with the SSB closed during an engine start.
A
-
21
Q
Which bus powers the captain transfer bus and main standby bus?
A
AC bus 3
22
Q
Which bus powers the First Officer transfer bus?
A
AC bus 2
23
Q
Which bus provides power for both transfer busses?
A
AC bus 1
24
Q
What are some items on the ground service bus?
A
-Battery chargers
-Fuel pumps for APU start
-Flight deck flood lights/service lights
-Nav lights
-Misc. outlets
25
How can the ground service bus be powered when AC bus 1 is not powered, while on the ground?
If EXT 1 or APU 1 is powering the ground handling bus, you can press the "ground service" switch near door L1 to power the ground service bus.
26
What are some of the equipment items powered by the ground handling bus?
-Lower lobe handling equipment and lights
-Fueling system
-Aux hydraulic pump 4 (and 1 if installed)
27
What bus powers the APU standby bus?
Captain transfer bus
28
How is the electrical system configured during an autoland?
AC bus 1, 2, 3 and all isolated off of the synchronous bus. AC bus 4 remains on the synchronous bus and acts as a standby to step in if 1,2,3 fails.
29
What are some of the major components of the AC standby power system?
-Main and APU Standby Busses
-Main and APU batteries
-Main and APU and Standby inverters
30
What is the normal source of power for the main standby bus?
AC bus 3
31
What is the backup power source for the main standby bus?
Main standby inverter
32
If both AC bus 3 and AC bus 1 are not powered, how is the main standby bus powered? How long can it be powered?
Via the main battery (battery to hot battery bus to battery bus to main standby inverter to main standby bus). Essentially, the main battery. It can last for 30 minutes.
33
What are some of the equipment items on the main standby bus?
-Left CDU
-Left ILS and VOR
-Standby ignition all engines
-Left ADC
34
What are the equipment items on the APU standby bus?
-Left FMC
-Left ND
-Left PFD
35
How is DC power provided by the electrical system?
4 TRUs convert AC power to DC power.
(The battery chargers also convert AC to DC to charge the batteries)
36
What is the normal power source for the main and APU battery busses?
DC bus 3.
37
If either AC bus 3 or DC bus 3 are unpowered, what powers the main and APU battery busses?
By its related hot battery bus
38
What are some items on the main battery bus?
-Fuel valves
-Crossfeed valves
-Dome and storm lights
39
How is each hot battery bus normally powered?
Each respective battery chargers via Ground service bus
40
What are some items on the main hot battery bus?
-APU shutoff valve
-APU and lower cargo fire extinguishers
-Engine fire extinguishers
41
What are some items on the APU hot battery bus?
-IRUs
-Outflow valves
-APU inlet door and APU controller
42
What does EICAS mean?
Engine Indications and Crew Alerting System
43
What are the 3 types of EICAS messages?
Alert, memo, status.
44
What are the 3 priority levels of alert messages?
Warning, caution, advisory
45
What is the highest priority alert message?
Warning
46
Can warning messages be cancelled using the CANC switch?
No
47
Can amber alert messages be cancelled or recalled?
Yes
48
What is an advisory message?
The lowest priority alert message. They are amber but indented
49
Where is the most recent EICAS message displayed?
At the top of its priority group
50
What is a memo message and where are they displayed?
Reminders of flight crew selected normal conditions. Display in white at the bottom of the last EICAS page.
51
Give examples of EICAS memo messages.
-PARK BRAKE SET
-AUTOBRAKES RTO
-PACKS OFF
-APU RUNNING
52
What does the STATUS cue mean? What color is it?
It displays on primary EICAS whenever a new STATUS message exists. It is white.
53
What is the function of the EIU selector in the AUTO position?
The EUI L will be used first. If that fails, auto switch to C. If that fails, auto switch to R. In summary, AUTO allows for automatic switching to a functional EIU.
54
If you had previously exceeded an engine parameter, such as an EGT, what would happen when you press the RCL switch?
The red band on the vertical gage would reappear.
55
What alert displays are shown or displayed on the PFD?
EGPWS, TCAS, WINDSHEAR, AIRSPEED LOW, and OVERSPEED.
56
When you receive a TCAS RA, where do you position the center of the airplane symbol on the PFD?
In the pitch to region
57
How many events can the EICAS EVENT RCD switch record?
5
58
What type of EICAS message are listed in the DDG and provide cross reference to the MEL for dispatch capability?
Status messages
59
Which engines, when advanced, will display the EICAS alert message CONFIG, if the airplane is not configured for takeoff?
2 or 3
60
What configuration conditions will cause the CONFIG message to display?
Airplane on ground with fuel control switches in RUN, engine 2 or 3 is in takeoff range, and airspeed is less than V1 and one of the following:
-Flaps not in takeoff setting
-Body gear not centered
-Parking brake set
-Speedbrake lever not DN
-Stab trim not in takeoff range
61
What configuration conditions will cause the CONFIG GEAR message to display?
Airplane is in flight with the gear not down and locked with either of the following:
-Any thrust lever idle and RA less than 800'
-Flaps in a landing position
62
When does the c-chord sound prior to reaching selected altitude?
900 to go
63
How many feet off the selected altitude will cause the EICAS alert ALTITUDE ALERT?
300'
64
Name some ground proximity warning system features provided.
-Look-ahead terrain alerting system
-Terrain map
-Windshear alerting system
-Bank angle voice alerts
-Altitude voice annunciations during approach
65
TERRAIN, TERRAIN, PULL UP voice annunciation sounds when how many seconds from projected impact with terrain? How about CAUTION, TERRAIN?
TERRAIN, TERRAIN, PULL UP: 20-30 seconds from impact
CAUTION, TERRAIN: 40-40 seconds from impact
66
When are master CAUTION lights and beeper inhibited during takeoff?
80 knots to 400' RA (or 20 seconds after rotation).
If rejected takeoff occurs, inhibit continues until below 75 knots.
67
New predictive windshear warnings are inhibited at what airspeed during takeoff? When do they come back?
100 knots. Come back at 50' RA.
68
When are master WARNING lights and bell for new FIRE messages inhibited during takeoff?
V1. Comes back at 400' or 25 seconds after V1.
69
What are the start sources for the APU, and which one do we normally use?
-APU start transformer rectifier (powered by utility bus 4)
-APU battery
Normal: Battery. (Burning up too many TRs so battery is normal)
70
Can the APU be operated in flight?
Yes
71
Is electrical power from the APU available in flight? How about bleed air?
No electrical.
Yes bleed air. (1 pack up to 15,000)
72
What APU components are powered by the APU battery?
-DC electric starter
-Inlet door
-APU controller
-DC fuel pump
-APU fire detection system
73
What APU components are powered by the main battery?
-APU fire extinguisher
-APU fuel valve
-Standby APU controller
74
What powers the APU starter during a battery start sequence?
The APU battery
75
What happens if a TR should overheat with the start source in TR?
It will automatically switch to battery during the start sequence. But it will not allow any more start attempts until you move the source from TR to APU BATTERY.
76
How does a TR failure affect APU starting?
Unlike an overheat, automatic switching is not provided. The start source must be moved to APU BATTERY which removes the TR from the start process, allowing a battery start.
77
When does the EICAS memo message APU RUNNING display?
When the APU selector is in the ON position and the APU RPM is at least 95%.
78
Describe the APU shutdown sequence.
Turn APU selector to OFF.
1. Bleed air valve closes
2.) APU cooldown for 60 seconds
3.) APU fuel valve closes, shutting down APU.
79
What would happen if the battery switch is positioned OFF prior to completion of the APU shutdown cooldown period?
It would kill the APU immediately.
80
How long should you wait before turning the battery switch OFF after the APU selector is rotated to OFF, and why?
2 minutes.
This is to ensure a complete shutdown sequence with fire detection capability. Fire detection is on the main battery. Shutting it off might mean you would not be notified of a fire.
81
What would cause the APU to shutdown automatically?
If a limit is exceeded or a fire is detected.
82
Which 2 engine indications are displayed full time on the EICAS?
N1
EGT
83
State the sequence of events that occur when you pull a start switch with the autostart switch ON.
1.) Arms start valve
2.) Opens engine bleed air valve
84
State the sequence of events that occur when you pull a start switch with the autostart switch OFF.
1.) Opens start valve
2.) Opens engine bleed air valve
85
Which 2 valves close at 50% N2 during engine start?
Start valve
Bleed air valve
86
What is the function of the AUTO ignition selector in the SINGLE position?
It will alternate between igniter 1 or 2 after each ground start. In flight during engine start or flameout, it will fire both.
87
What is the function of the Standby (STBY) IGNITION selector in NORM?
It uses AC power to power the selected igniters. If AC power is unavailable, it automatically switches to use standby power.
88
What happens when you turn the continuous (CON) ignition switch ON?
It fires selected igniters on all engines simultaneously.
It also commands approach idle minimum.
89
When is ignition selected for each individual engine?
-During start when N2 less than 50%
-Nacelle anti-ice ON for that engine
-Engine flames out
90
When is ignition selected for all engines?
-Trailing edge flaps are out of the up position.
-The CON ignition switch is ON
91
What color does the EGT change to if the EGT start limit is exceeded?
Red
92
What does X-BLD mean when displayed next to the N1 indication when an engine is shut down?
You are in flight and above the engine start altitude, so a cross bleed start is required.
93
How many igniters are selected for ground start? For inflight start?
Ground: 1 (Unless you select both)
Inflight: 2, regardless of switch position.
94
Describe the autostart sequence when the autostart is ON.
1.) Pull start switch
2.) Arms start valve
3.) Opens bleed air valve
4.) Fuel selector is moved to RUN
5.) Start valve opens
6.) Fuel metering valve opens
7.) Igniter energizes
8.) At 50% N2, start switch is released, start and bleed valves close, ignition discontinues.
9.) EEC monitors N2 and stabilizes it at idle.
95
During an engine start, the autostart system can abort the start for which 3 malfunctions?
-Hot start
-Hung start
-No EGT rise
96
Which 2 parameters does the autostart system not monitor?
-Oil pressure
-N1 rotation
97
How does the EEC protect against an impending hot start, hung start, or no EGT rise?
Hot and hung starts: EEC cuts off fuel and ignition, reschedules fuel, tries again. It makes 3 attempts then motors for 30 seconds before closing the start and bleed air valves.
No EGT rise. EEC cuts off fuel and ignition, motors for 30 seconds, tries this 3 times. After the final attempt, it motors for 30 seconds and then closes the start and bleed air valves.
98
At what EGT limit does the EEC abort an inflight start through the autostart system?
The takeoff limit. (On the ground it would be the start limit.)
99
How is the engine cooled?
Oil
100
How is engine thrust reverser actuated?
Engine bleed air
101
What protects the thrust reversers from deploying inadvertently in flight?
If a reverser unlocks and deploys inadvertently, the reverser system applies bleed air to stow and lock the reverser.
102
What is broadband vibration in the airborne vibration monitoring system, and how is it displayed?
If the vibration monitoring system cannot determine the source (fan, LPT, or N2), broadband (BB) displays for the affected engine.
It is displayed on the secondary EICAS under VIB
103
How many fuel tanks does the aircraft have and what are their approximate capacities?
7 fuel tanks.
Main 1 and 4: 26.5 tons
Main 2 and 3: 76.2 tons
Center: 52.1 tons
Reserve tanks: 8 tons
TOTAL: 163 tons
104
What commands fuel valves to open or close and fuel pumps to turn on or off based on system logic?
FSMCs. (Fuel system management cards)
105
Which crossfeed valves are affected by flap extension on the ground?
2 and 3
106
Which fuel pumps are system logic pumps? In other words, which pumps turn on and off by system logic during normal operations?
Override/jettison pumps
107
Trace the fuel flow to the engines when there is more than 7,700 kgs in the CWT from blockout.
-Flaps are extended
-Crossfeed valves 2 and 3 close
-Engines 1 and 4 off of CWT via CWT pumps
-Engines 2 and 3 off of main 2 and 3 pumps
-After takeoff crossfeed valves 2 and 3 open (when flaps not in takeoff position)
-All 4 engines feed from CWT pumps
-When CWT reaches 2,300 kgs, CWT pumps should be turned off, main 2 and 3 jettison/override pumps provide fuel for all 4 engines
-Reserve tanks gravity feed main 2 and 3 when main 2 and 3 reaches 18,200 kgs
-Once inboard mains reach level of outboard mains, each tank feeds its respective engine via main pumps
108
Trace the flow of fuel to the engines when there is less than 7,700 kgs of fuel in the CWT from blockout.
-Flaps are extended
-Crossfeed valves 2 and 3 close
-Override/jettison pumps 2 and 3 supply fuel to their outboard engines
-Main pumps 2 and 3 provide fuel to their respective engines
-After takeoff when flaps not in takeoff position, crossfeed 2 and 3 open
-Override/jettison pumps 2 and 3 provide fuel to all engines on their respective side
-Reserve tanks gravity feed main 2 and 3 when main 2 and 3 reaches 18,200 kgs
-Once inboard mains reach level of outboard mains, each tank feeds its respective engine via main pumps
109
When do the FSMCs open the reserve transfer valves?
When main 2 or 3 reaches 18,200 kgs
110
Under what conditions would fuel automatically transfer from the outboard mains directly to the inboard mains? (1 to 2 and 4 to 3)
-During fuel jettison when either 2 or 3 reaches 9,072 kgs
111
Can fuel be manually transferred from any tank to another tank?
Yes
112
What occurs when fuel jettison switch is selected to either A or B?
-EICAS fuel temperature is replaced with a fuel remaining indication.
-Arms fuel jettison system
113
Describe how the fuel quantity indication changes upon termination of a fuel jettison
-Fuel to remain indication switches from magenta to white
-Flashes for 5 seconds
114
What occurs when either fuel jettison switch is pushed ON during the fuel jettison procedure?
-Activates all fuel override/jettison pumps in tanks containing fuel (pump switches must be on)
-The related jettison nozzle opens
115
What is the source of fuel for the APU?
Main tank 2
116
In general, how are fuel imbalance situations handled?
By opening and closing crossfeed valves and turning on and off fuel pump switches. (QRH procedure would guide you step by step)
117
What is the impact on the aircraft in an excessive fuel imbalance?
-Adversely affects CG
-More drag
-Poor fuel economy
118
When is an engine on suction feed, and how are suction feed conditions corrected?
-Suction feed happens when main tank fuel pump pressure is low
-Can be corrected by opening crossfeed valves to get pressure from another fuel pump
119
Does the suction feed line go through the main tank fuel pumps?
No, it bypasses them. That is the point of suction feed. If the pumps fail or are not providing good pressure, it just sucks fuel from the tank directly.
120
A single main tank fuel pump can provide sufficient fuel to how many engines?
Takeoff thrust: 1 engine
Cruise: 2 engines
121
A single main tank 2 or 3 override/jettison pump can provide sufficient fuel to how any engines?
Takeoff thrust: 2 engines
Cruise thrust: 2 engines
122
Can the main tank 2 or 3 override/jettison pump operate when the related main tank is below 3,200 kgs? (standpipe level)
No. Standpipe level is where they stop working
123
Fuel tank temperature is measured in which tank?
Main 1
124
When does the fuel temperature display on primary EICAS turn amber?
When the fuel reaches -37C
125
How is the center wing tank fuel scavenged?
When tank 2 or 3 reaches 27,200 kgs, 4 jet pumps push the fuel out of the CWT into main 2 and 3.
126
What 3 different conditions will generate a fuel imbalance EICAS message?
-1,360 kgs between 1 and 4
-2,720 kgs between 2 and 3
-2,720 kgs inboard and outboard after FUEL TANK/ENG EICAS displayed
127
When does the fuel imbalance message go away?
-When difference less than 450 kgs
128
What does a crossfeed valve ON with the bar visible indication mean on crossfeed switches 2 and 3?
-Crossfeed valve open when commanded by SYSTEM LOGIC
129
What does a crossfeed valve ON with the bar visible indication mean on crossfeed switches 1 and 4?
-Crossfeed valve open
130
When are override/jettison pumps 2 and 3 displayed in cyan on the fuel system synoptic?
-When they are ARMED by system logic
131
What unlocks a fire switch?
-Fire detected
-Fuel selector to CUTOFF
-Manual override unlick switch
132
How many engine fire extinguishers are provided?
-4 total.
-2 per wing
133
What occurs when an engine fire switch is pulled out?
-Closes engine and spar fuel valves
-Closes engine bleed valve
-Trips off generator
-Shuts off hydraulic fluid to the engine driven hydraulic pump and depressureizes the pump
-Arms both fire extinguishers on that wing
134
How many APU fire bottles?
1
135
Can you shut down APU from outside the plane?
Yes, by using the APU Ground Control Fire Protection Panel, located in the right body gear well
136
What action discharges the fire extinguisher for an engine or an APU?
Rotating the associated fire switch.
(APU fire on the ground automatically discharges the extinguisher)
137
Describe the fire protection system for the forward and aft lower lobes.
-4 extinguisher bottles total
-Arm switch turns off 2 packs, arms fire extinguishers, configures equipment cooling into override mode, turns off all airflow and heat to lower lobes, closes master trim air valve.
-Discharging the bottle discharges extinguishers to provide an effective concentration for 210 minutes (400F) or other set period of time for other variants.
138
What happens when you push a FWD or AFT cargo fire arm switch?
-Arm switch turns off 2 packs,
-Arms fire extinguishers
-Configures equipment cooling into override mode
-Turns off all airflow and heat to lower lobes
-Closes master trim air valve.
139
What type of compartment is the main deck cargo compartment? (regarding fire rating)
Class E
140
What happens if you push the CARGO FIRE DEPRESS/DISCH switch with the main deck cargo fire arm switch armed?
Initiates aircraft depressurization to a pressure slightly below actual aircraft altitude.
141
What happens when you push the main deck cargo fire ARM switch?
-Enables main deck fire suppression
-Turns off 2 packs
-Configures equipment cooling to closed loop
-Turns off all airflow to main deck and airflow and heat to lower lobes
-Closes master trim air valve
142
Describe the engine fire/overheat detection system.
-Dual loop fire detection on each engine nacelle
-Dual loop overheat detection in each engine
-Both loops must be activated for either overheat or fire to trigger a fire alert
143
Describe the APU fire/overheat detection system?
-Dual loop fire detector
-No overheat detection
-Either loop sets off fire warning
-Either loop on the ground blows extinguisher bottle
144
Describe the cargo compartment fire detection system?
-Forward and aft have 4 dual loop smoke detectors
-Main deck has 16 dual loop smoke detectors
-Air is sampled via bleed air pressure through all detectors
-Both loops must detect smoke to set off warning.
145
What happens if a fault occurs in one loop upon completion of any fire and overheat system test?
-System reconfigures for single loop operation
-If the operating loop detects fire, overheat, or smoke, it triggers the fire warning
146
What fire detection system is provided in the wheel wells?
-Each main gear wheel well has single loop detector
147
Is there smoke detection provided in the crew rest areas?
Yes (aural warning)
148
Describe the lavatory smoke detection/protection system.
-Smoke detection is provided in LAV (aural warning)
-Automatic fire extinguisher in the trash can
149
When will the demand pumps be commanded to operate if the demand pump switch is in AUTO?
ALL:
-EDP pressure low
-Fuel selector set to CUTOFF
1 and 4 only:
-Trailing edge flaps in transit
-Flaps greater than 1 in flight
150
What does the hydraulic system (SYS FAULT) light indicate?
-Low pressure
-Low quantity
-Exessively high temperature
151
What does a hydraulic demand pump PRESS light indicate?
-Pump is off (or AUX)
-Low pressure when pump is on
-Pump failed
152
What does a hydraulic reservoir quantity indication of .80 mean, as displayed on the secondary EICAS?
Fluid 80% of normal service level
153
What does a magenta RF displayed next to a hydraulic quantity indicator on the secondary EICAS mean?
On the ground only-
Means its time to refill that hydraulic reservoir
154
When is the engine driven hydraulic pump pressurized?
-EDP switch on
-Engine running
-Fire switch not pulled
155
Which demand pumps are air driven, and which demand pumps are electric?
1 and 4: Air (from bleed air manifold)
2 and 3: Electric
156
What is the purpose of the auxiliary hydraulic pump?
Used for ground operations
157
Why are the hydraulic reservoirs pressurized by bleed air?
-To prevent cavitation
-To provide positive flow in high demand situations
158
How does pulling a fire switch affect the hydraulic system?
-Related hydraulic shutoff valve closes
-EDP depressurizes
-Related demand pump operates
159
What are some examples of major system components powered by each hydraulic system?
Systems 1 and 4: Trailing edge flaps, body gear, normal brakes (4), alternate brakes (1), and steering. System 1 also provides redundant power to flight controls
Systems 2 and 3: Primary flight controls, stabilizer trim, and elevator feel. System 2 also provides alternate brakes and lower yaw damper. System 3 also powers upper yaw damper.
Systems 1, 2 and 3: L, C, R autopilot servos (3, 1, 2 = L, C, R)
Systems 2, 3, and 4: Spoilers
160
How many flap control units (FCUs) are provided?
3
161
What are the basic functions of the FCUs?
-Primary control
-Secondary control
-Indication and annunciation
162
How many groups of leading edge flaps are provided, and how are they normally powered?
-3 per wing (outboard, midspan, inboard)
-Normally powered pneumatically
163
What are the 2 groups of trailing edge flaps, and how are they powered?
-Outboard and inboard
-Outboard: Hydraulic system 4
-Inboard: Hydraulic system 1
164
How are opposite trailing edge flaps connected?
Mechanically, to maintain symmetry
165
What protection features do FCUs provide for trailing edge flaps in primary mode?
-Asymmetry protection
-Flap load relief
-Flap position information on EICAS and other systems
166
What protection features do FCUs provide for trailing edge flaps in secondary mode?
-Asymmetry protection
-Flap position information on EICAS and other systems
167
Describe the function of the FCUs in primary mode.
-Leading edge flaps are driven pneumatically to the selected position
-Trailing edge flaps are driven hydraulically to the selected position
168
Describe the function of the FCUs in secondary mode.
-If any flap group fails to move to the selected position, that group switches to secondary mode
-A flap group in secondary mode is driven electrically
169
What happens if a primary control failure occurs in either the inboard or midspan leading edge flap group?
-Both groups switch to secondary mode
170
What happens if a failure occurs in a leading edge flap group on one wing?
-The flap groups on both wings change to secondary mode after 20-45 seconds
-The non-affected side completes movement before changing to secondary mode, due to primary mode being so much faster.
171
What happens immediately if a trailing edge asymmetry is detected?
-Primary mode is shut down for the asymmetrical group
-The FCUs do not use secondary mode
-FLAP DRIVE EICAS caution message
172
What EICAS message displays if all 3 FCUs fail?
FLAPS CONTROL caution message
173
How does the flap alternate control mode work?
-Bypasses the FCUs
-Can manually be selected
-All flaps are moved using electric motors
174
Is there any asymmetry protection in alternate flap mode?
No
175
State the actions that occur when the alternate (ALTN) flaps arm switch is pushed?
-Arms flap alternate control mode
-Arms alternate flaps selector
-Shuts off primary and secondary mode
-Asymmetry protection not avail.
-Flap lever inoperative
176
What is the maximum extension of the trailing edge flaps in alternate mode?
Flaps 25
177
Describe the secondary mode or non-normal expanded flap position indication for leading edge flaps.
-All flap positions displayed
-White box: LE flaps retracted
-White crosshatch: LE flaps in transit
-Solid green box: LE flaps extended
-Amber: drive unit inop
-Indicator motion continuous between flap detents
178
Describe the secondary mode or non-normal expanded flap position indication for trailing edge flaps.
-White: Position of inboard and outboard TE flaps
-Asymmetry or drive failure in related group
-Indicator motion is continuous between flap detents
179
What does an amber X mean on an expanded flap display?
Related flap sensor (and display) inoperative
180
Describe the alternate mode expanded flap position indicator.
-All flap positions displayed
-Flap position index marks at 5 and 25
-Indicator motion is continuous between flap detents
181
Describe the flap position indication on EICAS if the standby bus is the only powered AC bus.
-Left wing TE flap position sensors not powered
-Amber X is displayed on left outboard and inboard TE flap indications
-Expanded indication is displayed
182
What flaps extend when the flap lever is moved from UP to Flaps 1?
-Inboard and midspan LE flap groups
183
What flaps extend when the flap lever is moved from Flaps 1 to Flaps 5?
-Outboard LE flap group
-Trailing edge flaps move to flaps 5 position
184
What flap sequencing occurs when using alternate flaps?
-During extension, all LE flaps and TE flaps extend simultaneously
-TE flaps maximum is 25
-During retraction, all LE flaps retract after inboard trailing edge flaps are completely retracted
185
Describe the flap load relief.
-If airspeed limit is exceeded, the flaps go back a notch. Only available in flaps 30 or 25.
-30 goes to 25
-25 goes to 20
-Not available on secondary or alternate mode. ONLY IN PRIMARY
186
How long does the flap indication on primary EICAS remain displayed after all flaps are up?
10 seconds
187
What is the effect of the flap system during engine reverse thrust operation?
-Inboard and midspan LE flaps retract automatically
188
Describe the function of the stabilizer (STAB) trim cutout switches, AUTO position.
-Supplies hydraulic power for stab trim
-Automatically shuts off hydraulic power if unscheduled trim detected
189
What surface component is moved when stabilizer trim inputs are mode?
The horizontal stabilizer
190
State what occurs when the stabilizer (STAB) trim cutout switches are in CUTOUT.
-Hydraulic power is removed from the related stabilizer trim actuators
191
Describe the function of the alternate trim switches.
-They use a separate control channel
-They have an increased range of motion
192
How do the FMCs calculate a correct stabilizer trim greenband for takeoff?
They use entered:
-CG
-Gross weight
-Thrust setting
193
How does the aircraft provide a crosscheck to make sure the FMC calculated greenband is correct?
There is a nose gear oleo pressure switch which compares what it thinks greenband should be to what the FMC greenband is
194
What is the effect on stabilizer trim if the control wheel stabilizer trim switches are used while the autopilot is engaged?
-If SINGLE autopilot: Disconnects AP and trims the stabilizer as desired
-If MULTIPLE autopilots: Control wheel stabilizer trim switches inhibited
195
State the effect on the autopilot and stabilizer trim, if the alternate trim switches are used with any number of autopilots engaged.
-Does not disengage autopilot
-Overrides autopilot trim commands
196
How many spoiler panels are provided?
6 panels per wing
197
Which spoiler panel does not function as a flight spoiler? ("Flight spoilers" is Boeing's way of describing ROLL spoilers)
-Only the INBOARD spoilers do not function as "flight" spoilers.
198
Which spoiler panels function as speedbrakes in flight?
-The 4 inboard panels on each wing
199
Which spoiler panels function as ground spoilers once you land?
ALL panels
200
Which spoiler panel is displayed on the EICAS status display?
-Left wing: The 4th panel in from the wingtip. (Functions as flight, speedbrake, and ground spoiler)
-Right wing: Outermost panel. (Functions only as flight spoiler and ground spoiler. NOT as a speedbrake. No indication of right speedbrakes on EICAS when using speedbrakes)
201
Which spoiler panels are extended when the speedbrake lever is in the FLIGHT detent?
-2 inboard on each wing (go to MID travel)
-2 middle spoilers on each wing go to full travel
202
When do the spoiler panels extend to the UP position during landing, when the speedbrake lever is ARMED?
-Thrust levers 1 and 3 near closed
-Main gear touchdown
203
When do the spoiler panels extend to the UP position during landing, when the speedbrake lever is NOT ARMED?
-Thrust levers1 and 3 near closed
-Main gear on the ground
-Reverse thrust levers 2 or 4 pulled to the idle detent
204
Since the speedbrake lever is in the DN position for takeoff, what action provides an automatic spoiler function for RTO?
-Reverse thrust levers 2 or 4 pulled to the idle detent
205
For go-around protection, what action drives the speedbrake lever to the DN position?
Thrust levers 1 or 3 advanced from the closed position. (Regardless of if spoilers were automatically or manually deployed.)
206
Which elevator panels are displayed on the surface position indicator?
-Left and right outboard elevator positions
207
What can you do if you lose elevator control due to a jam?
-Apply significant manual force to the control column, the shear outs between the inboard and outboard elevators will break and allow you to regain control.
208
Describe the elevator feel system.
-Provides artificial feel at control columns
-Force increases with airspeed
-If hydraulic systems 2 and 3 fail, feel is provided by springs and no longer reacts to airspeed.
209
How does the aileron lockout system work and what is its purpose?
-It locks the outboard ailerons in the neutral position above 238 knots.
-Prevents over-controlling at high airspeeds and unlocks below 238 knots to provide full aileron authority at lower airspeeds.
210
What would happen if you used aileron trim with the autopilot engaged?
-The aileron neutral point would reposition
-When autopilot is disengaged, the wheel and ailerons would snap to that new neutral point
-The airplane responds with roll proportional to the trim you input. (autopilot fighting your trim inputs)
211
How do the rudder ratio changers work?
-They gradually reduce the rudder deflection as the airspeed increases
-Also protects the vertical stabilizer from large control inputs at high airspeeds.
212
What is the purpose of the yaw dampers?
-Improve directional stability
-Turn coordination
213
Describe the OFF position of the landing gear lever.
Landing gear hydraulic system depressurized
214
How many degrees can the tiller turn the nosegear? The rudder pedals?
-Tiller: 70 degrees
-Rudder pedals: 7 degrees
215
When does the RTO system apply maximum braking?
-On ground
-All 4 thrust levers idle
-Above 85 knots
216
What does the BRAKE SOURCE amber light indicate when illuminated?
Active brake hydraulic sources have low pressure. (Hydraulic systems 4, 1 and 2.)
217
What does a white, crosshatched, expanded gear position indication mean?
Gear in transit
218
What does an amber X on an expanded gear position mean?
Landing gear position indicator inoperative
219
What does a white empty box on the gear synoptic display indicate?
Related landing gear door position indicators inoperative
220
What sensing systems control in flight and ground operation of various airplane systems?
-Air/ground sensing system
-Nose gear extension sensing system
221
How does the airplane distinguish between air mode and ground mode?
A combination of main gear tilt sensors
222
Nose gear extension sensing provides a signal to relays controlling functions in which systems?
-Stall warning
-Nose gear steering
223
What conditions must be satisfied in order for the landing gear lever lock to release?
-Main gear are tilted
-Body gear are centered
224
Describe the sequence of events when the landing gear lever is moved UP.
-Landing gear doors open
-Automatic braking occurs
-Landing gear begin to retract
-Main gear hydraulically tilt to the retract position
-EICAS gives related indications
225
How are the landing gear held up in position after retraction?
-Main gear are held up by uplocks
-Nose gear mechanically locked up
226
During landing gear extension or retraction, state what happens if any gear position disagrees with the lever position after normal transit time.
-EICAS changes to expanded non-normal format
-Affected gear displays as in-transit, or UP if the gear never unlocked from the UP position
227
How does the gear extend through the alternate extension system?
By pushing the alternate gear extension switches:
-Gear uplocks and gear door latches are electrically released
-Gear free falls
-Gravity and air loads extend gear
-Springs pull the downlocks into their locked position
228
When does body gear steering operate?
-When the nose wheel steering angle exceeds 20 degrees
-Groundspeed decreasing through 15 knots
229
When is body gear steering deactivated?
Groundspeed increasing through 20 knots
230
What is the purpose of the brake accumulator?
Provides pressure for the parking brake
231
Describe the difference between normal and alternate anti-skid braking systems.
Normal: Each main gear wheel has individual anti-skid protection
Alternate: Anti-skid protection provided to lateral wheel pairs (forward and/or aft pair on each truck)
232
How does the brake torque limiter function in the ALTERNATE brake system?
-Brake torque is sensed on an individual wheel basis
-Brake pressure is released on a laterally paired wheel basis
233
When do the auto brakes apply after landing?
-All thrust levers closed
-Ground mode sensed
-The wheels have spun up
234
Which systems contribute to total airplane deceleration on landing?
-Wheel brakes
-Reverse thrust
-Ground spoilers
235
Give examples of what would disarm the autobrakes after landing?
-Pedal braking applied
-Any thrust lever advanced after landing
-Speedbrake lever moved to DN detent after speedbrakes have deployed
-DISARM or OFF selected
-Autobrake fault
-Normal anti-skid system fault
236
What hydraulic system pressurizes the brake accumulator?
Hydraulic system 4
237
Can the airplane be stopped with normal accumulator pressure?
No, the accumulator was not designed to stop the aircraft
238
Why is it necessary to pressurize hydraulic system 4 before pressurizing other systems?
So hydraulic fluid from system 1 or 2 does not flow into system 4 if the parking brake is set then released.
239
What provides automatic brake source selection?
Pressure operated selector valves
240
What value on the brake temp monitoring system (BTMS) causes the EICAS message BRAKE TEMP to appear?
5
241
Under what conditions would high pressure (HP) bleed air be used?
-Descent
-Other low power operating conditions
242
Under what conditions would intermediate pressure (IP) bleed air be used?
Higher power setting operations
243
The engine bleed air switches control which valves by system logic, when bleed air pressure is available?
-Engine bleed air valve
-PRV
-HP bleed valve
244
Describe the general function of the pressure regulating valve (PRV).
It prevents damage to ducting and equipment downstream by limiting bleed air pressure
245
How are the engine bleed air valves actuated, and when do they open for forward flow?
-They are pressure actuated
-They remain closed until engine bleed air pressure causes forward flow
246
With the HP bleed valve failed open and the respective bleed air switch OFF, will nacelle anti-ice be available?
No
247
An engine bleed air SYS FAULT light indicates what?
-Bleed air overheat
-Bleed air overpressure
-HP valve open when commanded closed
-PRV open when commanded closed
248
What does a bleed duct isolation valve amber VALVE light indicate?
Isolation valve position disagrees with switch position
249
What prevents reverse air flow into the engine compressor sections during engine start?
The PRV valve is positively closed
250
What happens if the engine start valve fails to close?
-Bleed air is isolated from the engine starter
-The PRV remains closed
-The engine bleed air valve remains closed
-Nacelle anti-ice and reverse thrust are not available for respective engine
251
What 2 valves close in the engine if a bleed air overheat is detected?
-HP valve
-PRV valve
252
What conditions in the engine bleed air system would prevent nacelle anti-ice protection when the bleed air switch is ON?
-PRV valve has failed closed, or
-PRV valve has closed due to bleed air overheat, or
-The start valve was not closed
253
How would you isolate a bleed air duct section in the event of a bleed duct leak?
Close the respective isolation valve and engine bleed air valves
254
Do we normally operate with the isolation valves open or closed?
Open
255
If the center duct is isolated, how do you control temperature in all zones?
-All zones operate in backup temperature control mode
-Trim air is unavailable
256
With a left or right duct isolated, how would the leading edge flaps extend on the affected side, and what EICAS advisory message display?
-The respective LE flaps operate electrically in secondary mode
-EICAS "FLAPS PRIMARY" until they are extended
257
How does an isolated left or right duct affect the hydraulic systems?
The respective hydraulic demand pump 1 or 4 is turned off
258
What 2 systems use engine bleed air downstream in the engine prior to the engine bleed valve?
-Nacelle anti-ice
-Reverse thrust
259
What is the flight deck temperature range with the flight deck (FLT) temperature selector in AUTO?
65-85F
(18 to 29 C)
260
What valve are you taking control of when you select MAN with the flight deck temperature controller?
The flight deck trim air valve
261
What does the zone system fault light indicate? (SYS FAULT)
-Temperature zone duct overheat or zone temperature controller fault
-Master trim air valve failed closed
-Trim air switch off
-Master trim air valve closed and pack air continues to flow
262
What is the temperature range for the main deck and lower lobes with their selectors in AUTO?
40 to 85 F
(4-29C)
263
Under what conditions would trim air be unavailable to the flight deck, upper deck, crew rest, and main deck?
-TEMP ZONE (EICAS message)
-Center bleed duct isolated
-TRIM AIR OFF (EICAS message)
-Master trim air switch off
264
If trim air is not available to the flight deck, upper deck, crew rest, and main deck, how is temperature controlled in the cabin?
The backup modes control temperature:
-If the flight deck temp selector setting is available to the PTC, pack outlet temperature of all packs is regulated to an average temp between 65F and 85F, as set by the Flt Deck Temp selector
-If unavailable to the PTC, the last temperature set
-If last temp unavailable to the PTC, then 75F (24C)
265
What target temperature is set to the upper deck and crew rest zone when electrical power is initially applied to the airplane?
75F
(24C)
266
How many pack temperature controllers (PTCs) are provided?
2 (A and B)
267
How many separate channels are provided in the PTCs?
Each PTC has 3 channels, 1 for each pack.
268
What happens if a PTC detects a fault in a pack channel?
Control of the respective pack switches to the other PTC.
269
How can you restore pack operation for a failed PTC?
Push the pack reset switch
270
What would happen if a fault or overheat of the PTC is detected?
The respective pack valve closes, shutting the pack down
271
What are the 7 temperature zones for the 400F?
-Flight deck
-Upper deck
-Crew rest
-Main deck forward
-Main deck aft
-FWD lower cargo
-AFT lower cargo
272
What is the function of the lower lobe cargo conditioned air flow rate selector (LLCCAFR) selector?
Provides cargo air conditioning to the lower lobes
273
With the LLCCAFR switch OFF, what controls pack outlet temperature?
The temperature zone on the upper deck requiring the coolest temperature
274
What zone and what pack is affected with the LLCCAFR selector in FWD HI?
All of pack 3 air is sent to the forward lower lobe
275
What zone and what pack is affected with the LLCCAFR selector in AFT HI?
All of pack 2 air is sent to the aft lower lobe
276
Explain the position of the LLCCAFR selector in BOTH LOW
2/3 of pack 3 and 2/3 of pack 2 conditioned air distributed respectively to forward and aft lower lobes.
277
What position of the LLCCAFR selector would result in all packs remaining in high flow during cruise?
-FWD or AFT in HI
or
-BOTH LOW
278
The center duct provides air supply to what systems?
-Cargo smoke detection
-Potable water pressurization
-LLCCAFR trim air
-Trim air
-Aft cargo heat
279
Describe overheat protection of the aft cargo heat system?
A thermal switch shuts off the overheat shutoff valve at higher temperatures
280
What is the source of heat for the forward cargo compartment?
-Heated air exhausted from the E and E compartment (with the equipment cooling inboard exhaust valve open)
or,
-Pack 3
281
Equipment cooling provides air cooling for what compartment/systems?
-Flight deck equipment
-E&E racks
282
When is warm equipment cooling air ducted overboard on the ground?
All of the following:
-Engines not running
-Equipment cooling selector in NORM
-Temperature 45F (7C) or higher
283
When does the equipment cooling system configure for flight?
When one or more engines on each wing is operating
284
How can you manually configure the equipment system for flight?
By positioning the equipment cooling elector to STBY
285
Which valve is closed when equipment cooling is in closed loop mode?
Inboard exhaust valve
286
What is the source of equipment cooling air for the flight deck?
-With at least 2 packs operating, the flight deck equipment cooling source valve directs conditioned air into the flight deck electrical equipment.
287
Describe the operation of the equipment cooling system with the equipment cooling selector in OVRD.
-Provides equipment cooling in flight if internal fans are inoperative
-Internal fans are not powered
-Smoke/override valve opens
-All other valves closed, no airflow into FWD cargo
-Cabin differential pressure draws air from the panels area on the flight deck, through the equipment cooling ducts to the E&E to create a reverse flow of air across the equipment, then overboard via the supply duct.
288
Under what conditions would the equipment cooling system revert to closed loop mode?
-LLCCAFR selector FWD LOW, BOTH LOW, or FWD HI with the FWD temp selector set to less than 10C (50F)
-If a single internal fan fails
-When the MAIN CARGO FIRE ARM switch is pushed
289
What happens when you turn the nacelle anti-ice switches on?
-NAI valve opens
-Engine igniters operate continuously
-PRV opens
290
What conditions would prevent the PRV from opening when the nacelle anti-ice is ON?
-Prior or present bleed air overheat
-Start valve not closed
-HP bleed air valve failed open
291
With the nacelle anti-ice switches in AUTO during icing conditions, while on the ground, prior to takeoff, would the system be on or off?
Off
292
If in the NAI AUTO position, with the anti-ice valves open at touchdown, when do the valves close?
At shutdown
293
How many ice detection probes are there, and where are they located?
2, located on either side of the forward fuselage
294
If the engine bleed air valve is closed, and nacelle anti-ice is commanded, what is the source of bleed air for the nacelle anti-ice?
IP bleed only. HP remains closed
295
Is wing anti ice effective with the LE flaps extended?
No
296
Can you operate the wing anti ice system on the ground?
No, it's inhibited
297
What part of the engine and wing are heated with NAI and WAI on?
-Nacelle inlets
-Wing leading edges
298
What is displayed on primary EICAS when the nacelle anti ice and/or the wing anti ice valve is open?
NAI for nacelle
WAI for wing
299
Describe the flight deck window heating systems.
-Flight deck windows electrically heated
-Forward windows have anti-ice protection on the exteriors
-Forward and side windows have anti fog protection on the interiors
300
What windows are controlled by the window heat switches?
Forward windows
301
Since the forward windows are controlled by the window heat switches, how do we heat the side windows?
-Automatic with no controls
-Heated whenever AC power is provided
302
How many pitot static probes are there? When are they heated?
4, heated when any engine is running
303
How many AOA probes are there? When are they heated?
2, heated when any engine is running
304
What are the items on the exterior safety check?
-Chocks in place
-Landing gear door position and handle
-Flight control surfaces clear
-APU exhaust area clear (Unless APU running)
305
What does the EEC use as the controlling parameter?
N1
306
What protections do you have in EEC normal mode?
-Thrust limiting (Overboost)
-Maintains constant thrust, compensating for pressure and temperature
-Compensates for bleed requirements
-Overspeed protection
307
What action should be taken prior of selection of EEC alternate mode?
Decrease thrust lever position.
(Manual selection causes thrust to increase, while automatic reversion to alternate mode by the EEC does not cause this)
308
How does changing an EEC mode to alternate affect the autothrottle?
It disconnects the autothrottles. But if you select all of the EECs to alternate, you can get autothrottles back.
309
What feature of the EEC provides overspeed protection?
The fuel metering unit
310
When does the EEC select approach idle?
-Flaps in a landing position
-Continuous ignition ON
-Reverse thrust operation
311
How long is approach idle maintained after touchdown?
5 seconds
312
How do you select the IRU selector mode FROM NAV?
You must pull out on the selector, then rotate.
313
What is the function of the ALIGN position on the IRU selector?
-Initiates alignment
-Removes sensor errors when selected from NAV mode
314
How long does it take for a full alignment of the IRS?
10 minutes
315
When is a full alignment of the IRS required?
When the time from last full alignment to arrival exceeds 18 hours
316
How do you accomplish a fast alignment of the IRS?
-Airplane must be parked
-Select ALIGN on all 3
-Enter GPS position (Not required, but improves accuracy)
-Move all 3 back to NAV
-Takes 30 seconds
317
What does the IRS on BAT light mean on the overhead MX panel?
IRS is operating on backup power (APU hot battery bus)
Sounds a horn that can be heard from outside
318
What happens if alignment of the IRS is lost in flight?
-Navigation mode is inoperative for the rest of the flight
-You can restore attitude information by selecting the selectors to the ATT position (Requires magnetic heading to be entered on the CDU)
319
What happens if the center IRU is operating on DC power?
The center will operate for 5 minutes, then shut down
320
What is the wingspan of the airplane?
213'
64.9 meters
321
What is the length of the airplane?
231' 10"
70.7 meters
322
What is the distance from wing gear strut to wing gear strut?
36' 1"
11 meters
323
What is the minimum pavement width for a 180 degree turn?
153'
46.6 meters
324
What 2 types of push button switches are provided?
-Momentary action
-Alternate action
325
Describe a momentary action switch and give some examples.
-Spring loaded to the extended position.
-They activate, deactivate, or reset a system
-Zone reset switch, pack reset switch, cargo fire depress/disch switch
326
How would you describe an alternate action switch when the switch is ON?
IN, flush with the panel is ON.
327
When do the FASTEN SEAT BELTS signs illuminate automatically when the selector is in AUTO?
-When landing gear or flaps are not UP
-Airplane altitude below 10,300'
-Cabin altitude above 10,000'
328
When are landing lights at maximum intensity?
Landing light switches ON and landing gear lever DOWN
329
Can the taxi light and runway turnoff lights be illuminated in flight?
No. They would only work when the air/ground sensor says ground mode
330
With the emergency lights switch EMER, in ARMED, when do the emergency lights turn on?
If DC power fails or is turned off.
331
What powers the emergency lighting system? For how long?
-Dedicated remote batteries, which are charged by DC bus 4
-Lasts 15 minutes
332
When do the supernumerary oxygen masks drop automatically?
When the switch is in NORM and cabin altitude reaches 14,000'
333
When would the supernumerary oxygen flow control unit reset?
-Press RESET
or
-When cabin altitude reaches below 12,000'
334
What indication do you get when oxygen is flowing on the mask panel?
Yellow cross indication
335
On the oxygen masks, what does "N" mean on the red NORMAL/100% switch?
It means "normal" flow which means the air/oxygen ratio depends on cabin altitude
336
What does the 100% function of the oxygen mask do?
Supplies 100% oxygen under positive pressure.
Used to protect against smoke and vapors
337
When the oxygen mask is removed from the stowage box, when does the mask microphone activate?
When the LEFT door opens
338
How do you know that the oxygen supply valve is open on your oxygen mask?
An OXYGEN ON flag appears on the left side of the box
339
After you are done with the oxygen mask, how do you shut off oxygen?
Close the left door
Push the TEST/RESET switch
340
Where is the portable ELT located on the freighter?
Upper deck lavatory exterior wall
341
Where are the 2 crash axes on the freighter?
-Main deck left forward sidewall (near L1)
-Flight deck stowage compartment, left side
342
How many PBEs are on the freighter? Where are they?
4 total
-1 on main deck forward side wall (L1)
-2 on the upper deck lavatory wall
-1 in the flight deck, immediately on the right after entering flight deck
343
How do you reengage the autothrottles when the pitch mode is VNAV____ or FLCH SPD?
Cycle the autothrottle switch off and back to armed.
344
How do you reengge the autothrottles if the pitch mode is ALT, V/S, or G/S?
Press the SPD switch on the MCP
345
How could you select climb thrust after takeoff or go around?
Press the THR switch on the MCP
346
What speed is set in the IAS/MACH window on the MCP when power is first applied to the plane?
200 knots
347
The outer BANK LIMIT selector applies to which roll mode?
HDG SEL
348
When the localizer is captured, what is displayed in the heading window?
The ILS front course
349
How can you deselect the approach mode after LOC and G/S are captured?
-TOGA mode
or
-Disengage the autopilot and place both flight director switch to off
350
With the APP switch pushed, what angle does the AFDS capture the localizer?
120 degrees of the localizer course
351
What altitude does each autopilot get separate power sources, when 3 autopilots are engaged?
1,500 RA
352
Can the glideslope be captured prior to the localizer?
No. Glideslope capture is inhibited until localizer is captured and within 80 degrees of the localizer course
353
What does an amber line through an active pitch or roll mode mean?
A fault is detected in that mode
354
How many pushes of the autopilot disengage switch are required to disengage all autopilots?
2 pushes. The first disengages the autopilots, second resets the master warning light, sound, and EICAS message
355
If TOGA is pushed on an approach with the autothrottle engaged, what autothrottle mode would be displayed?
THR
356
What climb rate is achieved during go around when the TOGA switched is pushed once?
2,000 FPM
357
What autothrottle mode is activated with a second push of the TOGA switch on a go around?
THR REF
358
What AFDS status indication displays above attitude indicator on the PFD when an autopilot is engaged?
CMD
359
What altitude does VNAV activate?
400' AFE
360
When is VNAV deactivated?
-TOGA, FLCH, V/S, ALT, or G/S modes
-Dual FMC failure
361
If using FLCH SPD in a descent, what autothrottle modes would you see after selecting FLCH, then in the descent, then once level off?
-Initially, THR
-Then, HOLD
-Then SPD once the altitude is captured
362
When power is first applied to the plane, what altitude is in the MCP window and PFD?
10,000'
363
How are autothrottle, roll, and pitch mode changes emphasized on the FMA?
Green box around the mode for 10 seconds
364
Will the autothrottles operate if you don't push TOGA by 50 knots airspeed? When will they be available again?
-No
- 400' AT available
365
How can you disarm a mode that is armed? (LNAV, VNAV, LOC, APP).
Press the mode switch a second time
366
Which PFD annunciation is associated with a "fail passive" autoland, and which is associated with a "fail operational"?
Fail passive: LAND 2
Fail operational: LAND 3
367
Which pitch mode does not provide autothrottle speed protection?
V/S
368
When does LNAV activate when armed?
-At 50' AFE on takeoff
or
-Within 2.5 miles of active course in flight
369
When does ROLLOUT mode activate?
When below 5'
370
What controls are used by the AFDS to steer the aircraft on the centerline after touchdown during autoland?
Rudder and nosewheel steering
371
What initial pitch does the flight director show when you first turn on a flight director while on the ground?
8 Degrees
372
In flight, when is TOGA armed?
-Flaps out of up
or
-Glideslope captured
373
If a VNAV descent is initiated prior to T/D, what is the pitch mode?
VNAV SPD
374
Describe the condition that would cause VNAV ALT to display as the pitch mode.
A conflict occurs between the VNAV profile and the MCP altitude.
375
When does the FLARE mode activate during autoland?
Between 60' and 40' RA
376
When do the autopilots actually start the flare maneuver?
Approximately 50' RA
(FLARE mode is activated between 60' and 40')
377
When do the autothrottles retard to idle during autoland?
25' RA
378
When does FLARE mode deactivate?
At touchdown. (it lowers nose down smoothly)
379
During autoland, what action disconnects the autothrottles?
Raising a thrust reverser lever to reverse idle
380
What conditions would caust the autothrottles to disconnect and not be able to be reconnected?
-Dual FMC failure
-More than 1 engine failure/shutdown
381
Can autothrottles be reconnected after switching the FMC master switch?
Yes. (Switching this switch causes them to disconnect, but you can reengage)
382
During takeoff and TOGA is selected, what autothrottle mode will you see on the FMA?
THR REF
383
When does the autothrottle go into HOLD mode on takeoff?
65 knots
384
When is the barometric snapshot altitude recorded by the FMC on takeoff?
100 knots
385
After liftoff with TOGA mode engaged, what is the aircraft following as far as roll, prior to LNAV capture?
Ground track.
386
If an engine failure occurs on the ground, what speed does the flight director pitch for on liftoff?
V2 or airspeed at liftoff, whichever is greater
387
At acceleration height, what speeds are commanded by the AFDS during flap retraction?
5 knots below the placard speed limit for each flap setting.
388
When is TOGA mode terminated on takeoff?
-By activation of LNAV/VNAV modes
or
-Selecting any other pitch and roll modes
389
When does the autopilot actively control the rudder?
Only when LAND 2 or LAND 3 is annunciated
390
With multi autopilot approaches, when does the autopilot accomplish runway alignment? (All engines operating)
-500'
and
-200'
(depending on crab angle)
391
How does the autopilot maintain centerline during approaches with an engine out? What about if the engine failed on approach? (This is for multi-autopilot approaches)
-Introduces sideslip at 1,300' AGL
-Establishes wings level
If engine fails on approach: Goes to wings level right away at the failure
392
What pitch does the AFDS command during a windshear recovery on approach, when the TOGA switch is pressed?
15 degrees or slightly below the pitch limit, whichever is less
393
How does the automatic flight control system provide stall protection?
It prevents speed reduction below the minimum maneuvering speed
394
Describe flight envelope speed protection.
Prevents the aircraft from exceeding:
-Max operating speed
-Gear extended speed
-Flap placard speeds
395
What speed margin is used by the AFDS for speed protection for max operating, gear extended, and flap placard speeds?
5 knots below the limit
396
What 2 conditions prevent the AFDS and autothrottle from providing speed protection?
-V/S mode
or
-Engine failure above maximum engine out altitude
397
How tall (in knots), is the command speed pointer on the PFD?
5 knots
398
What minimum maneuver capability does the top of the amber tape provide on the airspeed display?
1.3 G at 40 degrees of bank, level flight
399
What will occur at the minimum speed (red) on the airspeed indicator?
Stick shaker or low speed buffet
400
When is the pitch limit indicator (PLI) displayed on the PFD?
When the flaps are not up
401
When is radio altitude displayed on the PFD?
2,500' RA and below
402
Where are the marker beacon annunciations displayed?
Upper right corner of the PFD
403
How do the glideslope and localizer indications on the PFD indicate excessive deviations?
They turn amber and the pointers flash
404
What color is the altitude that you select on the MCP on the PFD?
Magenta
405
Where is current track displayed on the ND?
Top of the ND, middle
406
How can you control your displays if the EFIS control panel fails?
Through the related CDU
407
Describe the plan (PLN) mode of the ND mode selector
-Non moving display
-True north is up
-Allows you to step through fixes using the legs page
408
What systems failure would result in the NAV source selector to be positioned to CDU L (captains side) and CDU R (FO side)?
A dual FMC failure. (using alternate navigation)
409
Which source selector switch determines what GS and LOC receivers provide information to the respective PFD and ND?
EIU source selector
410
What does EIU mean?
EFIS/EICAS interface unit
411
Which IRU source provides brake reference?
IRU selected on the captains side
412
What source selector would you likely move in the event of an ALT or SPD flag on the PFD?
The air data source selector
413
How can you control displays, if the display select panel (DSP) fails?
Through the CDU
414
The pitot static system provides information to which systems and components?
-Air Data Computers
-Standby airspeed and standby altimeter
-Elevator feel computer
415
Explain the course of air through the pitot static system, as it enters the tubes and ports and all the way through the displays.
Air flows through the pitot tubes and static ports, to the air data computers, to the EIUs, which send info to the displays.
416
After selecting an ILS, when does the ILS auto-tune to display frequency and course?
Any of the following:
-When within 150 NM of destination
-When within 50 NM of T/D
-When in an FMC descent
417
How long is ILS auto-tuning inhibited after takeoff?
10 minutes
418
How could you auto-tune a new ILS course and frequency, if you are within the 10 minute inhibit period after takeoff?
Select and execute a new ILS approach on the CDU
419
If a tuned frequency identifier is incorrect, what should you do?
Verify the morse code by listening to the frequency
420
In what transponder modes will the transponder activate beacon and altitude reporting to ATC in flight?
-XPNDR
-TA/RA
-TA ONLY
421
Can ATC monitor aircraft position on the ground when the transponder is in OFF or STBY?
No
422
Can clear air turbulence be sensed by weather radar?
No
423
How many FMSs and how many FMCs are provided?
-1 FMS (Flight management system)
-2 FMCs (L and R flight management computers)
424
How many hours could you meet navigational requirements if you had 2 IRUs, 1 FMC, and 2 CDUs?
18 hours
425
When does the approach phase of the FMC start?
When the first waypoint of the procedure sequences?
426
When will the FMC fail to sequence the active waypoint?
When more than 21 miles off the route and not on an offset route
427
What factor determines econ speed?
Cost index
428
Explain what cost index means.
-Relationship of fuel versus time
-Lower index is slower speed, less fuel
-Higher index is less time, but higher speed
429
What is a conditional waypoint?
Based on tie or altitude, not a land reference ("When reaching 400'")
430
What determines current airplane position, and where is it displayed on the ND?
FMC, tip of the white triangle
431
How is FMC position updated?
-GPS
-IRS
-NAV radios
432
How is the FMC updated during an ILS or LOC approach?
Localizer signals
433
What does a "VD" FMC radio position update status indicate and where is it displayed?
-VOR and its co-located with a DME
-Lower right corner of the ND in GREEN
434
When does the FMS enter polar conditions?
North of 84 degrees N
South of 84 degrees S
435
When would you ever select "TRUE" on the heading reference switch?
For operations in high latitude conditions, when not in an LNAV roll mode
436
When does the heading reference automatically change to true north?
82 degrees N or S
437
What pitch modes might you see if climbing in VNAV?
VNAV SPD
VNAV PTH
438
What FMA annunciation for pitch mode would you see after leveling off during a VNAV departure at an altitude constraint?
VNAV PTH
439
If the FMC VNAV cruise altitude is FL290 and you level off at FL190, what would you see in the FMA after level off?
VNAV ALT
440
What is the end of descent "E/D" for VOR approaches?
The missed approach point
441
What is the end of descent "E/D" for all approaches other than VOR approaches?
50' above the runway threshold (RW waypoint)
442
If you are on approach logic, and you get more than 150' high of the path, the VNAV mode changes from VNAV PTH to ______.
VNAV SPD
443
What feature of the FMC allows you to set a higher altitude (such as the missed approach altitude), and still continue to descend?
When on "approach logic"
444
When you execute the missed approach, what altitude becomes the new cruise altitude?
The missed approach altitude
445
What thrust mode would you see on the upper EICAS during an engine failure at V1, and the aircraft has accelerated past VREF+98 knots, flaps retracted?
CON
446
What 2 databases are contained in the FMC?
-Performance
-Navigation
447
What could happen if you advance the thrust levers during a TO-1 or TO-2 takeoff, after an engine failure?
Loss of directional control
448
Can you manually apply more thrust, when conditions are necessary, during an assumed temperature takeoff?
Yes, because assumed temperature is not a limitation. Fixed derate is
449
At what altitude does CLB-1 or CLB-2 derated thrust begin to increase linearly, and at what altitude would full CLB thrust be attained?
-Begins to increase at 10,000
-CLB thrust reached at 15,000
450
What fuel value is usually used by the FMC for performance calculations?
CALC (calculated)
451
If you lose electrical power to the FMC, then it returns, do you have to re-enter performance data on PERF INIT?
Yes
452
Is autothrottle available during dual FMC failure?
No
453
Are LNAV and VNAV available in alternate navigation?
No
454
What CDU pages are available during alternate navigation?
LEGS, PROG, NAVRAD
455
If the
Push the LEGS, PROG, and NAVRAD key
456
Is it OK to enter information into both CDUs at the same time?
No, pilots should avoid this practice
457
What is meant on the CDU by the DRAG/FF value on line 3L in the CDU identification page?
Drag and fuel flow correction factors
458
What happens when an active database expires in flight?
You use it until it is changed after landing
459
When do the ILS frequency and course and the word PARK display on the NAVRAD page when enroute to the destination?
-When less than 200 NM from T/D or more than halfway to destination, whichever occurs first.
-Also upon manual tuning
460
What is the maximum thrust reduction limit, in terms of percentage, when using assumed temperature?
25%
461
When entering a thrust reduction (HAA) height in the CDU, do you need to add field elevation?
No, its automatic
462
How would the FMC handle a manually entered V1 speed that is less than V1 min?
FMC would display "V1MIN" in the header and in the value line
463
On the CDU, does INTERCEPT COURSE mean from or to?
Always TO
464
What system logic feature of the FMC allows quick turn-back to the departure airport?
The arrivals page allows you to change an approach without having to change the destination. This happens within 400 miles of the origin, as long as origin is closer than destination
465
Can the FMC display engine out performance based on the loss of 2 engines?
Yes
466
On what page of the CDU would you find airport elevation for an airport in the database?
Reference navigation data page
467
What is the difference between RNP and ACTUAL? Where is it displayed?
RNP: What is required
ACTUAL: What the actual performance is
Where is it: FMC POS REF page
468
Can you make manual entries to RNP or ACTUAL values?
Only to RNP values
469
On what page of the CDU would you enter where anti-ice is to be turned on during the descent?
Descent forecast page
470
If while loading an approach, you push the APPROACH INTC in 6R and execute, what happens?
-The approach intercept fix becomes the active waypoint
-All other fixes are deleted
471
On what page of the CDU would you find runway length?
Approach reference page
472
What teardrop offset angle is used by the holding page?
40 degrees
473
What is commanded by pushing the MCP altitude selector switch in cruise?
-If within 50 NM of T/D, initiates early descent and later joins PTH
-If outside 50 NM of T/D, initiates a cruise descent to new cruise altitude, may not capture PTH
-Initiates climb or descent to whatever the altitude selector is set to.
474
What is commanded by pushing the MCP altitude selector switch while in a climb?
-Each push deletes any altitude constraints.
-It climbs to the MCP altitude
-FMC is re-cruises to that altitude
475
When flying an instrument approach with a PROC HOLD header displayed in 1L, do you have to select exit hold to exit the holding pattern?
No, this is because the FMC knows its a procedure turn
476
Which waypoints are referenced and displayed in magnetic, and which are displayed in true on the LEGS page?
Only the active waypoint is magnetic, all others are true
