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Call of the Heavies > Limitations > Flashcards

Limitations Flashcards

1
Q

Max operating altitude

A

45,100’ PA

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2
Q

Max altitude for takeoff and landing

A

10,000’ PA

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3
Q

Max field elevation

A

9,500’ MSL

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4
Q

Maximum takeoff and landing tailwind component

A

15 knots

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5
Q

Runway slope

A

+/- 2%

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6
Q

The upper deck escape slide must be in the _______position during taxi, takeoff, landing, and whenever the upper deck is occupied.

A

forward locked

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7
Q

The ladder enclosure door must be closed_____

A

during taxi, takeoff and landing. Or in flight, except when entering or leaving the cargo hold.

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8
Q

Turbulent air penetration speed

A

290-310 knots / .82-.85. Whichever is lower

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9
Q

Maximum demonstrated (not limiting) takeoff and landing crosswind

A

30 knots

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10
Q

Do not operate the _______during refueling.

A

HF radio

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11
Q

Do not operate the weather radar____

A

In a hangar or when personnel are within the nose radome

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12
Q

Are standby altimeters RVSM?

A

No

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13
Q

Maximum allowable in flight difference between CA and FO altitude displays for RVSM is____.

A

200’

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14
Q

Maximum allowable on-ground altitude display difference between CA and FO for RVSM is_______.

A

Sea level to 5,000’: 35’

9,500’: 40’

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15
Q

Max difference in altimeters between CA, FO, and field elevation

A

75’

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16
Q

Target PSI for O2 system for both passenger and crew systems

A

1,200 PSI.

(CREW O2 can be 950 PSI if not flying over the ocean)

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17
Q

Maximum taxi weight

A

397, 800 KG

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18
Q

Maximum takeoff weight

A

396, 893 KG

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19
Q

Maximum landing weight

A

302, 092 KG

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20
Q

Maximum zero fuel weight

A

288, 031 KG

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21
Q

When 5G notams are present, what operations are prohibited?

A

-ILS SA CAT II, CAT II, and CAT III

-Autoland

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22
Q

Maximum differential pressure

A

9.4 PSI

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23
Q

Maximum differential pressure for takeoff and landing

A

0.11 PSI

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24
Q

Do not use aileron trim with _____

A

the autopilot engaged

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25
Minimum height to engage the autopilot after takeoff
250'
26
Without LAND 2 or LAND 3 annunciated, the autopilot must not remain engaged below______
100' RA
27
Minimum autopilot use height if not coupled on an ILS or in go-around mode
50' below minimums
28
Max headwind component for autoland
25 knots
29
Max tailwind for autoland
15 knots
30
Max crosswind for autoland
CAT II/III: 15 knots CAT I: 25 knots
31
Max glideslope angle for autoland
3.25 degrees
32
Minimum glideslope angle for autoland
2.5 degrees
33
Autoland may be made with flaps _________ only.
25 or 30
34
Do not use FLCH below _______'.
1,000' AFE
35
Do not use the center VHF radio on _______ MHz or ________MHz.
120.000 or 120.005
36
ACARS clearances that can only be viewed through the printer must be verified with_______.
The originating ground station
37
Continuous ignition is required to be ON encountering:
-Heavy rain -Severe turbulence -Volcanic ash -Icing conditions -Standing water or slush on runway
38
Continuous ignition is automatically provided when_________.
Nacelle anti-ice is on
39
Reverse thrust is prohibited________
In flight, or to back the airplane up.
40
Do not operate the APU below
- (negative) 1000' pressure altitude
41
APU start cycle limits
-Between starts 1 and 2: 1 minute (both battery or TR) -Between starts 2 and 3: Battery- 1 minute. TR- 10 minutes -Between starts 3 and 4: 75 minutes (both battery or TR)
42
Avoid rapid and large______
alternating control inputs. (may result in structural failure, even below VA)
43
Max altitude with flaps extended
20,000'
44
Use of speedbrakes in flight with flaps past _____ is not recommended.
20
45
If you lose primary air data, standby system _____ must be applied.
corrections
46
Do not add/delete waypoints to ______
RNAV/RNP DPs or STAR procedures
47
If EICAS alert message "UNABLE RNP" displays while on an RNAV approach, pilots must____
go around, unless adequate visual references can be maintained.
48
Operations are not authorized for _____ or _____ approaches.
RNAV (RNP) or RNP (AR) NOTE: FAA- RNAV (RNP) ICAO- RNP (AR)
49
Approaches using VNAV to DA(H) are not authorized if glide path angle is less than _____ or more than ____ degrees.
2.75; 3.5
50
If leveling off within 2,000' after changing altimeter from QNE to QNH or vise versa, ___________
do not use VNAV to execute the level off if QNH is less than 29.70 IN (1006 hPa). After level off complete, VNAV can be re-engaged.
51
Max fuel tank temperature
+54 degrees C
52
____ and _____ type fuels are prohibited
Jet B and JP4
53
In-flight minimum fuel temperature
3 degrees C above the fuel freezing point
54
Do not cycle _____ and ____ pump switches from ON to OFF to ON with any continuous low pressure indication present.
CWT ; HST
55
Do not use the terrain display for _____
Navigation
56
The use of look-ahead terrain alerting and terrain display functions is prohibited within________ for airports not in the GPWS database.
15 NM of takeoff, approach, or landing
57
What is the maximum crosswind guideline when braking action is reported medium?
10 knots
58
Are operations allowed with NIL braking action?
No
59
During autoland, what is the assumed touchdown point?
2,500' from threshold
60
What is the minimum threshold crossing height for autoland?
44'
61
How many HF radios are required for CPDLC?
1
62
What altitude is the minimum oxygen quantity for each occupant determined?
25,000' cabin altitude
63
What is Max EGT for engine starting?
870C (40 seconds) 750 (unlimited)
64
What is max continuous EGT?
925 C
65
Minimum oil pressure
10 PSI
66
Max N1
117.5
67
Max N2
112.5
68
Can you reset a tripped fuel pump circuit breaker?
No
69
What is the flap limitation during fuel jettison?
Do not extend or retract flaps between position 1 and 5
70
What are the placard flap speeds?
1- 280 5- 260 10- 240 20- 230 25- 205 30- 180
71
What is the landing gear extension or retraction speed?
270 knots or Mach .82 whichever is less

Call of the Heavies (39 decks)

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